4A0-M10 Nokia 5G Packet Core Architecture Exam

Exam overview
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and course outline can be found here.

Exam Name: Nokia 5G Packet Core Architecture
Exam Number: 4A0-M10
Mandatory Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45 minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 40 multiple-choice questions
Language: Price: $125 US
Attend the Nokia 5G Packet Core Architecture course or purchase the course materials.

Course overview
This hands-on instructor-led course explains the 5G end-to-end system architecture and describes the design and components of a 5G system which includes architecture explanations of Nokia’s solution for deployment option 3x and option 2.

It carefully examines the role and functionality of the components in the Next Generation Core (NGC). Students will also learn the procedures for access, mobility, session management, handover, and interworking with EPS, together with the concepts relevant to network slicing, the flow-based architecture of QoS, and 5G security.

The course is accompanied by comprehensive hands-on lab exercises using Nokia Cloud Mobility Manager (CMM), Cloud Mobile Gateway (CMG), and Network Resource Discovery (NRD) to reinforce the course learning objectives.

Course objectives
After completing the course, students should be able to:

Identify the drivers, benefits, use-cases, and performance requirements of 5G Present 5G end-to-end system architecture and deployment options
Identify key characteristics and components of 5G New Radio (NR)
Explain the building blocks of Nokia end-to-end 5G solution for option 3X
Describe the centric technical capabilities relevant for option 3X (DC, DECOR, CUPS)
Explain architectural changes and configuration steps for CMG CUPS (Control and User Plane Separation)
Detail EPC procedures for option 3X Present next-generation core (NGC) architecture
Explain NGC network functions (NFs)
Identify NGC logical interfaces
Describe the 5G service-based architecture (SBA)
Describe 5G mobility management functions
Describe 5G session management functions
Describe handovers in 5GS
Describe the architecture for interworking between
5GS and EPS using the N26 interface
Present 5G network architecture for end-to-end network slicing
Describe network slice identification and selection process
Detail UE registration and PDU session establishment procedures in NGC
Describe the procedures for changing the anchor points of SSC mode 2 and mode 3 PDU sessions
Detail the Xn-based and N2-based handover procedures
Describe the actions performed during the interworking procedures between EPS and 5GS when
N26 interface is used
Present 5G QoS architecture
Describe 5G security architecture and mechanisms
Explain the characteristics and capabilities of the Nokia solution for 5G packet core
Configure Nokia CMM and CMG to enable AMF, SMF, and UPF network functions and allow successful 5G UE registration and PDU session establishment procedures
Verify NF registrations and display NF profiles in the
Nokia NRD

Course modules
Module 1 – Introduction to 5G
Drivers, benefits, and performance requirements of 5G
Differences between the 4G and 5G network architectures
5G deployment options
5G cloud RAN architecture and NR characteristics
Key characteristics of NGC
Module 2 – EPC Enhancements for 5G Option 3X
Building blocks of Nokia end-to-end solution for option 3X
Enhancements required for supporting option 3X
CMG CUPS architecture
CMG-U and CMG-C configuration steps for CMG CUPS deployment
Procedures for supporting option 3X
Module 3 – Next Generation Core
NGC architecture
NGC NFs (network functions) and logical interfaces
Services offered by the network repository function (NRF)
Control plane interaction between NFs in SBA
Module 4 – NGC Mobility and Session Management Functions
5G NAS (non-access stratum) protocol overview
5G mobility management sublayer
Registration and connection management states in NGC
Registration, connection, and mobility management functions of NGC
Session management concepts and functionality in NGC
Principles of session and service continuity (SSC) modes used in 5GS
AMF basic configuration on Nokia CMM
SMF and UPF basic configuration on Nokia CMG
Xn-based NG-RAN handover
N2-based NG-RAN handover
Interworking between 5GS and EPS using the N26 interface

Module 5 – Network Slicing
Motivations and benefits for 5G network slicing
5G network architecture for end-to-end network slicing
Network slice assistance information in 5G
Network slice identification and selection
Services offered by the network slice selection function (NSSF)
UE registration to a set of network slices
PDU session establishment in a network slice
Module 6 – NGC Procedures
UE initial registration procedure
PDU session establishment procedure
Procedures for changing the anchor point of SSC mode 2 and SSC mode 3 PDU sessions
Access node release procedure
Service request procedure
Xn-based inter NG-RAN handover procedures
N2-based inter NG-RAN handover procedure
5GS to EPS handover procedure using N26
EPS to 5GS handover procedure using N26
5GS to EPS idle mode mobility procedure using N26
EPS to 5GS idle mode mobility procedure using N26
Module 7 – 5G QoS
5G flow-based QoS framework
QoS profiles used by NG-RAN to map between QoS flows and data radio bearers (DRBs)
SDF templates used by UPF to map user traffic to QoS flows
QoS rules used by UE to map user traffic to QoS flows and DRBs
Treatment of QoS flows on the downlink and uplink
Module 8 – 5G Security
5G security architecture and concepts
5G security enhancements in subscription identifier privacy
5G access-agnostic authentication framework
Increased home control 5G security feature
5G security mechanisms for service-based interfaces

QUESTION 1
Which of the following best describes the function of a PDU session flow classifier?

A. An SMF that dynamically inserts and removes uplink classifiers (UL CL) at the UPFs.
B. An SMF that dynamically inserts and removes UL CL at the UE.
C. A UPF that terminates the N6 interface towards the data network.
D. A UPF that filters uplink traffic according to UL CL rules provided by the SMF.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding cloud RAN architecture is FALSE?

A. The gNB is split into three functional modules: a radio unit (RU), a distributed unit (DU), and a centralized unit (CU).
B. DU performs the non-real time processing of layer 2.
C. The fronthaul segment connects RU to DU and the midhaul segment connects DU to CU.
D. CU can be deployed in the cloud as a VNF.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A UE has a PDU session established using slice 1. The operator removes slice 1 from the UE subscription data stored in UDM. Which of the following actions is NOT performed as a result?

A. UDM notifies the serving AMF about the UE subscription data modification.
B. AMF initiates the UE configuration update procedure.
C. AMF requests the UE to release the established PDU session.
D. UE updates its slicing information with the data received from AMF.

Correct Answer: B

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1Z0-908 MySQL 8.0 Database Administration Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Certified Professional, MySQL 8.0 Database Administrator

Format:
Duration: 140 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.40,575
Number of Questions: 85
Passing Score: 62%
Validation: Exam has been validated against MySQL 8.0

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

MySQL for Database Administrators Ed 5

In the subscription:
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Architecture
Configure client connections to the server
Understand how MySQL stores data
Understand how InnoDB stores data and logs
Configure buffers and caches
Understand and use the Data Dictionary

Server Installation and Configuration
Install and use the MySQL server and client programs
Identify the files and folders created during installation
Start and stop MySQL
Upgrade MySQL
Configure MySQL by using options and option files
Configure MySQL variables
Launch multiple MySQL servers on the same host

Security
Create user accounts and roles
Use authentication plug-ins
Control user and role permissions
Recognize common security risks
Secure MySQL server connections
Provide password and login security
Secure the MySQL host environment
Prevent SQL injection attacks
Encrypt MySQL data
Configure MySQL Enterprise Firewall

Monitoring and Maintenance
Configure and view MySQL log files
Monitor MySQL processes and status
Configure MySQL Enterprise Audit
Use MySQL Enterprise Monitor to view activity in MySQL
Monitor database growth and explain capacity planning
Troubleshoot problems with locked resources

Query Optimization
Examine how MySQL optimizes queries
Analyze queries with MySQL Enterprise Monitor
Create indexes to improve server performance
Monitor and understand index statistics

Backups and Recovery
Distinguish between the different types of backup
Implement a backup strategy
Backup and restore data with MySQL Enterprise Backup
Use mysqldump and mysqlpump to perform logical backups
Explain when and how to use raw file backups
Back up the binary log

High Availability Techniques
Explain how replication provides high availability and scalability
Configure replication
Explain the role of the binary log in replication
Configure multisource replication
Explain the role of replication threads
Monitor and troubleshoot replication
Describe MySQL InnoDB cluster and Group Replication
Configure a MySQL InnoDB cluster
Perform an InnoDB cluster recovery

QUESTION 1
Which three are characteristics of a newly created role? (Choose three.)

A. It can be dropped using the DROP ROLE statement.
B. It is stored in the mysql.role table.
C. It is created as a locked account.
D. It can be renamed using the RENAME ROLE statement.
E. It can be granted to user accounts.
F. It can be protected with a password.

Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about InnoDB persistent index statistics?

A. Updating index statistics is an I/O expensive operation.
B. Index statistics are calculated from pages buffered in the buffer pool for tables with InnoDB storage engine.
C. Setting innodb_stats_auto_recalc=ON causes statistics to be updated automatically when a new index is created.
D. Execution plans based on transient index statistics improve precision when innodb_stats_persistent_sample_pages is increased.
E. Increasing innodb_stats_persistent_sample_pages determines higher pages scanning speed, at the cost of increased memory usage.
F. Tables are scanned and index statistics recalculated when an instance is restarted.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You wish to protect your MySQL database against SQL injection attacks.
Which method would fail to do this?

A. installing and configuring the Connection Control plugin
B. avoiding concatenation of SQL statements and user-supplied values in an application
C. using stored procedures for any database access
D. using PREPARED STATEMENTS

Correct Answer: C

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1z0-1067-21 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021 Cloud Operations Associate Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021 Certified Cloud Operations Associate

Format:
Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.24 842
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: This Exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Take recommended training

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

In the subscription: Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Automating Cloud Tasks
Use the OCI CLI to simplify repetetive tasks
Utilize configuration management tools to control infrastructure
Manage infrastructure as code
Explain user resource manager processes to implement infrastructure as code

Performance Tuning and Troubleshooting
Explain Troubleshooting resource availability and accessability
Validate OCI performance

Managing Cost
Utilize billing tags to track cost
Explain how to Implement billing alerts
Leverage automation to control cost

Security and Compliance
Create secure access control policies
Leverage compartments for resource isolation
Audit cloud access
Utilize CASB to remediate security vulnerabilities

Monitoring and Alerting
Understand Metric Query Language (MQL)
Create and managing alarms
Implement automated notifications

Data Retention and Archival

Use Object Storage Lifecycle policies for tiered data storage
Manage automated block storage and database backups
Implement cross-region data copy strategies

Designing for cloud-scale agility
Utilize edge services for automated failover / recovery
Implement hybrid network environments

QUESTION 1
You have been asked to ensure that in-transit communication between an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
compute instance and an on-premises server (192.168.10.10/32) is encrypted. The instances communicate
using https:. The OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) is connected to the on-premises network by two separate
connections: a Dynamic IPsec VPN tunnel and a FastConnect virtual circuit. No static configuration has been added.
What solution should you recommend? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The instances will communicate by default over IPsec VPN, which ensures data is encrypted in-transit.
B. Advertise a 192.168.10.10/32 route over the VPN.
C. Advertise a 192.168.10.10/32 router over the FastConnect.
D. The instances will communicate by default over the FastConnect private virtual circuit, which ensures data is encrypted in-transit.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have a web application running on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) that lets users log in with a
username and password. You notice that an attacker has tried to use SQL comment “–” to alter the database
query, remove the password check and log in as a user. You decide to prevent any future attacks.
Which of the following OCI services or features would you choose to safeguard your application? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Network Security Group
B. Data Safe
C. Web Application Framework (WAF)
D. Vault

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
One of the compute instances that you have deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) is malfunctioning.
You have created a console connection to remotely troubleshoot it.
Which two statements about console connections are TRUE? (Choose two.)

A. It is not possible to use VNC console connections to connect to Bare Metal Instances.
B. VNC console connection uses SSH port forwarding to create a secure connection from your local system to the VNC server attached to your instance’s console.
C. It is not possible to connect to the serial console to an instance running Microsoft Windows, however VNC console connection can be used.
D. For security purpose, the console connection will not let you edit system configuration files.
E. If you do not disconnect from the session, your serial console connection will automatically be terminated after 24 hours.

Correct Answer: BE

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500-220 Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 Exam

Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 (500-220)
Exam Description: The Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 (ECMS 500-220) is a 90-minute exam associated with the Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills to engineer Meraki solutions including cloud management, design, implementing, monitoring, and troubleshooting. The courses, Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions Part 1 and Part 2, help candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

15% 1.0 Cisco Meraki Cloud Management
1.1 Explain Cisco Meraki cloud architecture
1.2 Explain access methods to dashboard and devices
1.3 Explain organizational structure, segmentation and permissions
1.4 Explain licensing, co-termination, and renewals
1.5 Compare deployment workflows

30% 2.0 Design
2.1 Design scalable Meraki Auto VPN architectures
2.2 Explain deployment consideration for the vMX
2.3 Design dynamic path selection policies
2.4 Design stable, secure, and scalable routing deployments
2.5 Design Enterprise network services
2.5a Redundant networks and high availability
2.5b QOS strategy for voice and video
2.5c Applying security at layer 2
2.5d Firewall and IPS rules on MX and MR
2.5e Network access control solutions
2.6 Design Enterprise wireless services
2.6a High density wireless deployments
2.6b MR wireless networks for Enterprise
2.6c MR wireless networks for guest access
2.7 Compare endpoint device and application management methods
2.7a Device enrollment such as supervised and device owner
2.7b Application deployment

25% 3.0 Implementation
3.1 Configuring MX security appliances
3.1a SVI, dynamic routing and static routes
3.1b Auto VPN
3.1c Traffic shaping and SD-WAN
3.1d Threat protection and content filtering rules
3.1e Access policies and 802.1x
3.2 Configuring MS switches
3.2a SVI, dynamic routing and static routes
3.2b QoS using Meraki switching networks
3.2c Access policies and 802.1x
3.2d Replicate a switch configuration
3.3 Configuring MR wireless access points
3.3a SSIDs for Enterprise and BYOD deployments
3.3b Traffic shaping
3.3c RF profiles
3.3d Air Marshal
3.4 Configuring SM endpoint management
3.4a Management profiles
3.4b Security policies
3.4c Sentry for Meraki managed deployments
3.5 Configuring MV security cameras
3.5a Camera video and alerting
3.5b Retention settings
3.6 Configuring MI application assurance
3.6a Standard applications
3.6b Application thresholds

30% 4.0 Monitoring and Troubleshooting

4.1 Interpret information from monitoring and reporting tools
4.1a Alerts with Dashboard, SNMP, Syslog and Netflow in Dashboard
4.1b Logging and reporting in Dashboard
4.2 Describe how to use the dashboard API to monitor and maintain networks
4.3 Explain firmware upgrades
4.4 Troubleshooting Enterprise networks
4.4a Layer 2 technologies using Dashboard
4.4b Layer 3 technologies using Dashboard
4.4c Wireless client connectivity issues using Dashboard
4.4d Device local status pages
4.4e Security threats using Security Center
4.4f Application performance issues using Meraki Insight

QUESTION 1
When an SSID is configured with Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allow listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior
B. Captive Portal strength
C. Simultaneous logins
D. Firewall & traffic shaping
E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network
B. more hardware devices than device licenses
C. expired device license
D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization
E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.
B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.
C. Configuring a syslog server for the network.
D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which design requirement is met by implementing syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed
B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated
C. when organization-wide information must be collected
D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

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PT1-002 CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam

CompTIA PenTest+ is for cybersecurity professionals tasked with penetration testing and vulnerability management.

Why is it different?
CompTIA PenTest+ is the only penetration testing exam taken at a Pearson VUE testing center with both hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice, to ensure each candidate possesses the skills, knowledge, and ability to perform tasks on systems. PenTest+ exam also includes management skills used to plan, scope, and manage weaknesses, not just exploit them.

PenTest+ is unique because our certification requires a candidate to demonstrate the hands-on ability and knowledge to test devices in new environments such as the cloud and mobile, in addition to traditional desktops and servers.

About the exam
The new PenTest+ (PT0-002) exam will launch October, 2021!

Beta exam registration available on April 13, 2021. Interested in taking the beta exam? Registration on the Pearson VUE site.

CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks.
Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings.
Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.

CompTIA PenTest+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PLANNING & SCOPING

Explain the importance of planning and key aspects of compliance-based assessments
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
INFORMATION GATHERING &
VULNERABILITY IDENTIFICATION

Gather information to prepare for exploitation then perform a vulnerability scan and analyze results.
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
ATTACKS & EXPLOITS

Exploit network, wireless, application, and RF-based vulnerabilities, summarize physical security attacks, and perform post-exploitation techniques
NETWORKING
PENETRATION TESTING TOOLS

Conduct information gathering exercises with various tools and analyze output and basic scripts (limited to: Bash, Python, Ruby, PowerShell)
HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING
REPORTING & COMMUNICATION

Utilize report writing and handling best practices explaining recommended mitigation strategies for discovered vulnerabilities
obs that use CompTIA PenTest+
Penetration Tester
Vulnerability Tester
Security Analyst (II)
Vulnerability Assessment Analyst
Network Security Operations
Application Security Vulnerability

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA PenTest+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA PenTest+ certification. Collect at least 60 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA PenTest+ certification will automatically renew.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following should a penetration tester consider FIRST when engaging in a penetration test in a cloud environment?

A. Whether the cloud service provider allows the penetration tester to test the environment
B. Whether the specific cloud services are being used by the application
C. The geographical location where the cloud services are running
D. Whether the country where the cloud service is based has any impeding laws

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester who is conducting a web-application test discovers a clickjacking vulnerability associated
with a login page to financial data. Which of the following should the tester do with this information to make this a successful exploit?

A. Perform XSS.
B. Conduct a watering-hole attack.
C. Use BeEF.
D. Use browser autopwn.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company that requires minimal disruption to its daily activities needs a penetration tester to perform
information gathering around the company’s web presence. Which of the following would the tester find MOST
helpful in the initial information-gathering steps? (Choose two.)

A. IP addresses and subdomains
B. Zone transfers
C. DNS forward and reverse lookups
D. Internet search engines
E. Externally facing open ports
F. Shodan results

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester discovers that a web server within the scope of the engagement has already been
compromised with a backdoor. Which of the following should the penetration tester do NEXT?

A. Forensically acquire the backdoor Trojan and perform attribution
B. Utilize the backdoor in support of the engagement
C. Continue the engagement and include the backdoor finding in the final report
D. Inform the customer immediately about the backdoor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are the MOST important items to include in the final report for a penetration test? (Choose two.)

A. The CVSS score of the finding
B. The network location of the vulnerable device
C. The vulnerability identifier
D. The client acceptance form
E. The name of the person who found the flaw
F. The tool used to find the issue

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 6
A penetration tester who is performing a physical assessment of a company’s security practices notices the
company does not have any shredders inside the office building. Which of the following techniques would be
BEST to use to gain confidential information?

A. Badge cloning
B. Dumpster diving
C. Tailgating
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A penetration tester conducted an assessment on a web server. The logs from this session show the
following:
https:://www.thecompanydomain.com/servicestatus.php?serviceID=892&serviceID=892 ‘ ;
DROP TABLE SERVICES; —
Which of the following attacks is being attempted?

A. Clickjacking
B. Session hijacking
C. Parameter pollution
D. Cookie hijacking
E. Cross-site scripting

Correct Answer: C

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GCP-GC-ADM Genesys Cloud Certified Professional – Contact Center Administration Exam

The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional – Contact Center Admin exam introduces the fundamental concepts and major components associated with the Contact Center feature set of the Genesys Cloud platform.

This exam provides an overview of the Genesys Cloud interface and presents scenarios to facilitate your understanding of the administration of a contact center. You will also gain familiarity with daily contact center monitoring and administration tasks.

Note: The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC) certification is obtained by completing the following three exams (Contact Center Administration, Implementation, and Reporting & Analytics). The prerequisite for GCP-GC is the Genesys Cloud Certified Associate (GCA-GC) certification.

Target Audience
The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional – Contact Center Admin exam is intended for system administrators, contact center managers, project managers, and supervisors to help them monitor and administer the contact center. The exam is also useful for anyone else who needs to learn the basic functionality of Genesys Cloud Contact Center.

Course Objectives
Genesys Cloud Collaborate
Basic overview of the Genesys Cloud Platform and Administration
Overview of Genesys Cloud Collaborate
List the features of Genesys Cloud Contact Center
List the three levels of Contact Center licensing
Configure Automatic Call Distribution to optimize customer service
Describe ACD processing
Explain interaction flow and queue design
Evaluation and routing combination
Configure agent utilization
Configure ACD Skills and Language Skills
Configure wrap-up codes
Configure After Call Work
Activate and deactivate agents on queues
Test ACD call routing
Configure ACD email in Admin settings
Test ACD email routing
Describe ACD Messages
Purpose and capabilities of Genesys Cloud Architect
Features of Genesys Cloud Architect
Describe the options for Inbound
Describe how to create and edit System and User Prompts
Genesys Cloud Data Actions Integration
Describe the function and purpose of the Genesys Cloud data actions Integration
Scripting in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Describe Scripts and basic script functionality
Genesys Cloud Outbound Dialing
Describe the Outbound Dialing modes
Explain the use of Contact Lists
Configure and test an Outbound Power Dialing campaign
Use of Reports and Dynamic Views
List the main types of reports and describe their use
List the main Dynamic Views and describe their use
Configure and run an Interaction Details report
Quality Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Quality Policies Overview
Describe how to enable call recording on a Trunk
Create a recording policy
Create and publish an Evaluation form
Quality Evaluator and Quality Administrator dashboards
Workforce Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Workforce Management Overview
Working with Schedules
Benefits of scheduling agents
Create a manual schedule

QUESTION 1
A Queue is configured for Standard ACD routing and Disregard skills, next agent for the Evaluation Method.
What agent property is used to determine the next available agent?

A. Skill
B. Time since they last handled an ACD interaction
C. Cost
D. Department

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which definition matches the After Call Work option Mandatory, Time-boxed?

A. The agent may or may not complete after call work. The system will set them to Available after an interaction completes.
They are responsible for setting their availability appropriately if performing After Call Work.

B. The agent is automatically placed into an After Call Work status and the system will automatically set them to Available when the After Call Timeout is reached.
The agent may set themselves to Available if they complete their After Call Work early.

C. The agent is automatically placed into an After Call Work status and the system will automatically set them to Available when the After Call Timeout is reached.
The agent may not set themselves to Available if they complete their After Call Work early.

D. The agent is placed in an After Call Work status and must manually set their status back to available when their after call work is complete.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Currently, you manage all agents’ schedules by using a spreadsheet. This shows when each agent is working
when they are on breaks, and when they have meetings or other events that take them away from the queue.
You would like to be able to schedule agents in an easier and more automated way. What Genesys Cloud
Contact Center feature can you use to replace and automate the spreadsheet schedule?

A. Workforce Management
B. Workflow Process Automation
C. Genesys Cloud Architect
D. Genesys Cloud Reporting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Select all the roles that are automatically assigned by default to the user who sets up the organization.
(Choose two.)

A. Employee
B. Master Admin
C. Genesys Cloud User
D. Admin
E. Telephony Admin

Correct Answer: AD

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250-441 Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 Exam

Introduction
250-441 Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 exam is one of the top certification exams. It is designed by group of advanced level official certification experts. It covers all in depth concepts by following the official exam pattern and exam syllabus. This certification exam questions will give you the most realistic experience in the real world exam.

Exam Details:
This Exam contains multiple choices, multi selection and true or false questions.

Exam Time Limit: 90 Minutes

How this exam is useful to you?
This exam is intended for the people who are aspiring for 250-441 Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 Certification. It is designed exclusively as per the real certification exam so that certification aspirants can experience the touch of real-time exam. This will definitely help you to cross check your skills before attempting the main exam. This practice exam will evaluate your skills and give idea how far you are skillful in 250-441 Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 Certification exam.

Exam Details:
This Exam contains multiple choices, multi selection and true or false questions.

Exam Time Limit: 90 Minutes
Check the instructions before starting the exam:

Read the exam instructions carefully and follow them to avoid any issues while writing the exam.
· Check the exam time limit before you start the exam.
· It is highly recommended to have faster internet access.
· No power cut shall happen during the exam. Hence the power backup for your system/laptop.
· In case your system/laptop gets shut down abruptly due to power cut, internet connectivity issues or any other reasons, your exam will be ended and will be considered as one attempt completed.
· Exam browser window shall not be closed once exam starts otherwise exam will be ended abruptly and same with losing your attempt as well.
· While writing the exam, if you click on back button of the browser tab then your exam will be ended abruptly and attempt will be lost. Hence it is highly recommended not use to back button of the browser button while/after writing the exam.
· Once exam time is completed, exam will be submitted automatically. Hence it is recommended to keep checking the timer which will be available at the exam window.
· It is recommended to use the Google Chrome browser for better results of the application.

QUESTION 1
What is the second stage of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack?

A. Exfiltration
B. Incursion
C. Discovery
D. Capture

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which SEP technology does an Incident Responder need to enable in order to enforce blacklisting on an endpoint?

A. System Lockdown
B. Intrusion Prevention System
C. Firewall
D. SONAR

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An Incident Responder wants to create a timeline for a recent incident using Syslog in addition to ATP for the
After Actions Report.
What are two reasons the responder should analyze the information using Syslog? (Choose two.)

A. To have less raw data to analyze
B. To evaluate the data, including information from other systems
C. To access expanded historical data
D. To determine what policy settings to modify in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM)
E. To determine the best cleanup method

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which SEP technologies are used by ATP to enforce the blacklisting of files?

A. Application and Device Control
B. SONAR and Bloodhound
C. System Lockdown and Download Insight
D. Intrusion Prevention and Browser Intrusion Prevention

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the role of Insight within the Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) solution?

A. Reputation-based security
B. Detonation/sandbox
C. Network detection component
D. Event correlation

Correct Answer: A

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CIPP-A Certified Information Privacy Professional/Asia (CIPP/A) Exam

CIPP/A Certification
RECOGNIZING YOUR EXPERTISE IN ASIAN PRIVACY MARKETS

The IAPP’s CIPP/Asia credential certifies proficiency in the key data privacy practices of major Asian economies. CIPP/A holders are known for their ability to apply relevant knowledge and a nuanced understanding of privacy practices to the needs of organizations operating in Asia and around the world.

The CIPP/A exam is available for scheduling at more than 6,000 computer-based testing centers worldwide. Prepare for the exam with these resources and in-person training developed by IAPP official training partner Straits Interactive.

Demonstrate your ability to support vital privacy-related processes such as compliance, cross-border data transfers and internal data protection. Explore CIPP/A certification today.

Certified Information Privacy Professional/Asia

WHAT’S COVERED
Fundamental Privacy Principles
Singapore Privacy Laws and Practices
Hong Kong Privacy Laws and Practices
India Privacy Law and Practices
Common Themes Among Principle Frameworks

The CIPP/A body of knowledge outlines all the concepts and topics you need to know to become certified. It also has an exam blueprint that gives you an idea of how many questions from each topic area you can expect on the exam. These documents, as well as additional certification resources and helpful links, can be found here.

We strongly encourage all potential test takers to read our Certification Candidate Handbook before testing for details on our testing policies and procedures.

Here are our top five reasons why IAPP certification and training are sure to advance your organization.

The CIPP is the global industry standard for professionals entering and working in the field of privacy.

Achieving a CIPP/A credential demonstrates understanding of a principles-based framework and knowledge base in information privacy within the Asian context, including laws and practices specific to the regions of Singapore, Hong Kong and India.

You’ll be recognized as part of an elite group of knowledgeable, capable and dedicated privacy and data protection practitioners.

Holding a CIPP/A designation elevates your leadership profile among your colleagues.

The CIPP/A is a key benchmark among top employers for hiring and promoting privacy professionals.

The examination blueprint indicates the minimum and maximum number of question items that are included on the CIPP/A examination from the major areas of the Body of Knowledge. Questions may be asked from any of the listed topics under each area. You can use this blueprint to guide your preparation for the CIPP/A examination. For example, domains II, III and IV comprise 78% of the exam.

I. Privacy Fundamentals
A. Modern Privacy Principles
OECD Guidelines, APEC privacy principles, Fair Information Practices

B. Adequacy and the Rest of the World
GDPR, U.S. Sectoral approach, adequate and non-adequate countries

C. Elements of Personal Information
Personal data (EU, HK, SG), Personally Identifiable Information (US), Sensitive Personal Data Information (IND), psuedonymisation, de-identification and anonymisation

II. Singapore Privacy Laws and Practices
A. Legislative History and Origins
Legal and political system, surveillance and identification, constitutional and common law protections, sector specific protections, social attitudes to privacy

B. Personal Data Protection Act (PDPA)
PDPA definitions, Do Not Call Registry, the employment setting, exemptions, key concepts and practices (DPOs, staff training, consent, use, disclosure)

C. Enforcement
Monetary Authority of Singapore, Personal Data Protection Commission, Commissioner guidance, rulings

III. Hong Kong Privacy Laws and Practices

A. Legislative History and Origins
Political and legal systems, surveillance and identification, constitutional and common law protections, social attitudes to privacy

B. Personal Data Privacy Ordinance (PDPO)
Definitions of personal data, sensitive personal data, Guidance on Direct Marketing, exemptions, six data protection principles (DPPs), employment matters, data transfers

C. Enforcement
Commissioner rules and guidance, policy development, privacy incidents

IV. India Privacy Law and Practices

A. Legislative History and Origins
Legal system and political structure, Credit Information Companies Regulation Act, Article 21, The Right to Information Act 2005, The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993

B. Information Technology Act 2000 (IT Act)
Section 43 and 43A, 2008 amendment, exemptions, 2011 rules

C. Enforcement
The Ministry of Communication and IT, DeitY, TRAI, commissioner rulings and guidance, penalties and sanctions

V. Common Themes

A. Comparing Protections and Principles
Children’s data, data breach notification, public registers, surveillance, national identity systems, data processing and export

B. Data Subject Rights
Domestic use, breadth of exemption in HK, SG, and India

QUESTION 1
In the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Privacy Framework, what exception is allowed to the
Access and Correction principle?

A. Paper-based records.
B. Publicly-available information.
C. Foreign intelligence.
D. Unreasonable expense.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How can the privacy principles issued in 1980 by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) be defined?

A. Guidelines governing the protection of privacy and trans-border data flows issued in collaboration with the Federal Trade Commission.
B. Guidelines governing the protection of privacy and trans-border data flows of personal data in states that are members.
C. Mandatory rules governing the protection of privacy and trans-border data flows within the European Union.
D. Mandatory rules governing the protection of privacy and trans-border data flows among binding member states.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which concept is NOT an element of Cross Border Privacy Rules (CBPR)?

A. Enforcement by Accountability Agents.
B. Self-assessment against CBPR questionnaire.
C. Consultation with Privacy Enforcement (PE) Authority.
D. Dispute resolution via the Accountability Agent’s compliance program.

Correct Answer: B

UESTION 4
What term is defined by the European Commission to mean any data that relates to an identified or identifiable individual?

A. Personally identifiable information.
B. Sensitive information.
C. Personal data.
D. Identified data.

Correct Answer: C

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250-439 Administration of Symantec IT Management Suite 8.1 (Broadcom) Exam

Administration of Symantec Client Management Suite 8.5
The certified candidate will demonstrate an understanding of the planning, designing, deploying and optimization of the Symantec Client Management Suite. This understanding serves as a basis of technical knowledge and competency for the Symantec Client Management Suite 8.5 solution in an enterprise environment.

To achieve this level of certification, candidates must pass the technical exam and accept the Symantec Certification Agreement.

Exam Details:
# of Questions: 65-75
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Passing Score: 70%
Languages: English

Exam Study Guide
Recommended 3 months regular experience working with Symantec ITMS or CMS, SMS or AMS solutions and products with at least the ability to complete the following:
Create a high-level design of a basic Client Management Suite 8.5 implementation
Install the Client Management Suite 8.5 components, updates and perform post installation tasks
Import and discover endpoint resources
Create/Apply/Manage Filters, Targets & Organizational Views/Groups
Inventory managed computers
Configure the Software Catalog, Portal and Library
Deploy software packages
Download, stage, and deploy software updates
View and use reports to assist with managing computers
Create, configure, and deploy images to managed computers

Client Management Suite 8.1 or 8.5 Administration

Current Class Schedule

IT Management Suite Fundamentals
Available in the Symantec LearnCentral eLibrary

Optional Instructor-led Courses:
IT Management Suite 8.1 Administration
Current Class Schedule

ITMS 8.1 Diagnostics and Troubleshooting
Current Class Schedule

Asset Management Suite 8.1 or 8.5 Administration

Current Class Schedule

Additional online training is available 24/7 in the Symantec eLibrary.

Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the SCS exam. If you have experience with this product, you may find an online course equivalent to be sufficient. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.


QUESTION 1
Which two (2) fields are essential to tracking assets when creating a warranty contract in IT Management
Suite 8.1? (Choose two.)

A. Contract’s Assigned User
B. Covered Hardware
C. Contract’s Location
D. Start and End Date
E. Internal Reference

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An administrator has been notified that a new office location will be opening within a few weeks. The office is a
large site that will have 8,000 managed endpoints. The data center is located in Lindon, Utah and the office is
located in Houston, Texas.
What is the minimum number of site servers needed to support the new office location?

A. Four site servers
B. Two site servers
C. One site server
D. Three site servers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to ensure the following functionality for managed computers in an IT Management
Suite 8.1 environment:
– Monitoring hardware and software
– Scheduling software installations and file updates
– Collecting basic inventory information
– Managing policies and packages
Which components work together to provide this functionality for managed computers?

A. Notification Server and Symantec Management Agent
B. Symantec Management Console and Internet Gateway
C. Symantec Management Console and Symantec Management Agent
D. Notification Server and Internet Gateway

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How can an administrator quickly view and export report results while creating a filter based on the location of computers?

A. Executing the Filter Results Report Builder
B. Executing Assets by Location Organizational View Builder
C. Executing and saving the IT Analytics Computers by Location Report Builder
D. Executing the Computers by Location Report Builder

Correct Answer: A

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SC-900 Microsoft Security Compliance and Identity Fundamentals Exam

Exam SC-900: Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

This certification is targeted to those looking to familiarize themselves with the fundamentals of security, compliance, and identity (SCI) across cloud-based and related Microsoft services.

This is a broad audience that may include business stakeholders, new or existing IT professionals, or students who have an interest in Microsoft security, compliance, and identity solutions.

Candidates should be familiar with Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365 and want to understand how Microsoft security, compliance, and identity solutions can span across these solution areas to provide a holistic and end-to-end solution.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

Related exams: none
Schedule exam
Exam SC-900: Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals
Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, Dutch, French, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Russian, Arabic (Saudi Arabia)
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to describe the following: concepts of security, compliance, and identity; capabilities of Microsoft identity and access management solutions; capabilities of Microsoft security solutions; and capabilities of Microsoft compliance solutions.

Skills measured
Describe the concepts of security, compliance, and identity (5-10%)
Describe the capabilities of Microsoft identity and access management solutions (25-30%)
Describe the capabilities of Microsoft security solutions (30-35%)
Describe the capabilities of Microsoft compliance solutions (25-30%)

Audience Profile
This certification is targeted to those looking to familiarize themselves with the fundamentals of security, compliance, and identity (SCI) across cloud-based and related Microsoft services.
This is a broad audience that may include business stakeholders, new or existing IT professionals, or students who have an interest in Microsoft security, compliance, and identity solutions.

Candidates should be familiar with Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365 and want to understand how Microsoft security, compliance, and identity solutions can span across these solution areas to provide a holistic and end-to-end solution.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe the Concepts of Security, Compliance, and Identity (5-10%)
Describe security methodologies
 describe the Zero-Trust methodology
 describe the shared responsibility model
 define defense in depth

Describe security concepts
 describe common threats
 describe encryption

Describe Microsoft Security and compliance principles
 describe Microsoft’s privacy principles
 describe the offerings of the service trust portal

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft Identity and Access Management
Solutions (25-30%)
Define identity principles/concepts

 define identity as the primary security perimeter
 define authentication
 define authorization
 describe what identity providers are
 describe what Active Directory is
 describe the concept of Federated services
 define common Identity Attacks

Describe the basic identity services and identity types of Azure AD
 describe what Azure Active Directory is
 describe Azure AD identities (users, devices, groups, service principals/applications)
 describe what hybrid identity is
 describe the different external identity types (Guest Users)

Describe the authentication capabilities of Azure AD
 describe the different authentication methods
 describe self-service password reset
 describe password protection and management capabilities
 describe Multi-factor Authentication
 describe Windows Hello for Business

Describe access management capabilities of Azure AD
 describe what conditional access is
 describe uses and benefits of conditional access
 describe the benefits of Azure AD roles

Describe the identity protection & governance capabilities of Azure AD
 describe what identity governance is
 describe what entitlement management and access reviews is
 describe the capabilities of PIM
 describe Azure AD Identity Protection

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft Security Solutions (30-35%)
Describe basic security capabilities in Azure
 describe Azure Network Security groups
 describe Azure DDoS protection
 describe what Azure Firewall is
 describe what Azure Bastion is
 describe what Web Application Firewall is
 describe ways Azure encrypts data

Describe security management capabilities of Azure
 describe the Azure Security center
 describe Azure Secure score
 describe the benefit and use cases of Azure Defender – previously the cloud workload protection platform (CWPP)
 describe Cloud security posture management (CSPM)
 describe security baselines for Azure

Describe security capabilities of Azure Sentinel
 define the concepts of SIEM, SOAR, XDR
 describe the role and value of Azure Sentinel to provide integrated threat protection

Describe threat protection with Microsoft 365 Defender (formerly Microsoft Threat Protection)
 describe Microsoft 365 Defender services
 describe Microsoft Defender for Identity (formerly Azure ATP)
 describe Microsoft Defender for Office 365 (formerly Office 365 ATP)
 describe Microsoft Defender for Endpoint (formerly Microsoft Defender ATP)
 describe Microsoft Cloud App Security

Describe security management capabilities of Microsoft 365
 describe the Microsoft 365 Security Center
 describe how to use Microsoft Secure Score
 describe security reports and dashboards
 describe incidents and incident management capabilities

Describe endpoint security with Microsoft Intune
 describe what Intune is
 describe endpoint security with Intune
 describe the endpoint security with the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center

Describe the Capabilities of Microsoft Compliance Solutions (25-30%)
Describe the compliance management capabilities in Microsoft
 describe the compliance center
 describe compliance manager
 describe use and benefits of compliance score

Describe information protection and governance capabilities of Microsoft 365
 describe data classification capabilities
 describe the value of content and activity explorer
 describe sensitivity labels
 describe Retention Polices and Retention Labels
 describe Records Management
 describe Data Loss Prevention

Describe insider risk capabilities in Microsoft 365
 describe Insider risk management solution
 describe communication compliance
 describe information barriers
 describe privileged access management
 describe customer lockbox

Describe the eDiscovery capabilities of Microsoft 365
 describe the purpose of eDiscovery
 describe the capabilities of the content search tool
 describe the core eDiscovery workflow
 describe the advanced eDisovery workflow

Describe the audit capabilities in Microsoft 365
 describe the core audit capabilities of M365
 describe purpose and value of Advanced Auditing

Describe resource governance capabilities in Azure
 describe the use of Azure Resource locks
 describe what Azure Blueprints is
 define Azure Policy and describe its use cases
 describe cloud adoption framework

QUESTION 1
Which score measures an organization’s progress in completing actions that help reduce risks associated to data protection and regulatory standards?

A. Microsoft Secure Score
B. Productivity Score
C. Secure score in Azure Security Center
D. Compliance score

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What do you use to provide real-time integration between Azure Sentinel and another security source?

A. Azure AD Connect
B. a Log Analytics workspace
C. Azure Information Protection
D. a connector

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which Microsoft 365 compliance center feature can you use to identify all the documents on a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contain a specific key word?

A. Audit
B. Compliance Manager
C. Content Search
D. Alerts

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Microsoft 365 compliance feature can you use to encrypt content automatically based on specific conditions?

A. Content Search
B. sensitivity labels
C. retention policies
D. eDiscovery

Correct Answer: B

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