Monthly Archives: November 2021

Microsoft 365, Uncategorized

Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations updated on August 9, 2021

Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations updated on August 9, 2021

The content of this exam was updated on August 9, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

Consultants (functional and technical) gather and analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry recommended practices. They serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring apps to meet business requirements.

Consultants should be able to implement core components and features of Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps. They should also have awareness of how Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps integrate with external systems and tools including Power Platform. The consultant uses Lifecycle Services (LCS), Azure DevOps, and other Microsoft tools and platforms to facilitate the application lifecycle management (ALM) process.

Consultants pursue continuous education by reading the product release notes, reviewing product roadmaps, participating in conferences, or continue learning by using Microsoft Learn, Microsoft Docs, instructor-led training, blogs, and user communities. They should also pursue role-base certifications and assessments to ensure their knowledge is recognized.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing Functional Consultant Associate Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant Associate

Related exams: 4 related exams
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
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Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations
Languages: English, Japanese
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: describe finance and operations apps, and extend apps by using Microsoft Power Platform technologies; configure administrative features and workflows; manage Finance and Operation data; and validate and support the solution.

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on August 9, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.

Describe finance and operations apps, and extend apps by using Microsoft Power Platform technologies (20–25%)
Configure administrative features and workflows (30–35%)
Manage finance and operations data (25-30%)
Validate and support solutions (20-25%)

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices.
Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.
Candidates understand common features and capabilities of Finance and Operations apps and how to configure and use each. They should also have awareness of how Finance and Operations apps integrate with external systems and tools including Power Platform. The candidate actively manages application lifecycles by using Lifecycle Services (LCS) and other Microsoft tools and platforms.
Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of Finance and Operations apps including finance, manufacturing, and supply chain management.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Use common functionality and implementation tools Describe finance and operations apps, and extend apps by using Microsoft Power Platform technologies
(15 20% – 20 25%)

Identify and use common Finance and Operations apps, features, and functionality
 describe apps in the finance and operations portfolio
 describe the main components of Dynamics 365 Commerce
 describe uses cases for and capabilities of workspaces and mobile workspaces
 describe case management
 describe global address book features and their use cases
 identify inquiry and report types available in a default installation
 describe use cases for the Business document management and electronic reporting features
 perform common actions including performing searches, saving save queries and views, creating create and use, and using record templates, and creating create filters

Extend app functionality by using Microsoft Power Platform technologiesDescribe use cases for Power Platform apps and services

 identify use cases for Microsoft Dataverse
 identify use cases for Power Apps
 identify use cases for Power Automate
 identify use cases for Power BI
 identify use cases for Power Virtual Agents
 differentiate between pinned and embedded Power BI reports

Configure security, processes, and options administrative features and workflows (30-35%)

Implement security
 distinguish between roles, duties, privileges, and permissions
 assign users to security roles to users based on given scenariosrequirements
 describe segregation of duties
 describe and use the security diagnostics tool

Design and create workflows and business events
 describe use cases for workflows
 design and create workflows
 configure workflow properties, tasks, approvals, and elements
 configure queues, workflow assignment hierarchies, and workflow parameters, and troubleshoot workflows
 troubleshoot workflows
 manage workflow versions
use Trigger Power Automate to extend workflows flows by using business events

Configure organization administration features
 set up and configure legal entities and operating units
 configure and troubleshoot number sequences
 import or create all necessary startup data including postal code data, customers, vendors, and products
 create organization hierarchies
 describe and apply user options including time zones, language, and email settings
 configure document handling for attachments
 configure print management and form setup features

Configure system administration features
 describe use cases for the Microsoft Excel Workbook Designer and the Microsoft Dynamics Office add-in
 configure email (SMTP/Exchange)
 create and maintain email templates
integrate Power BI with Describe use cases for Entity store
 create, export, and import personalization’
Ps and publish saved views
 set up and monitor batch jobs
set up alerts

Manage finance and operations data (25-30%)

Manage data
 describe use cases for the data management workspace and templatesframework
 describe use cases for projects, and types of data entities, and templates
 copy configuration data between companies or legal entities by using the data management framework
 describe use cases for the dual-write feature

Plan Describe thea migration strategy process
 identify common migration scenarios and tools in finance and operations apps
 determine the scope for a migration
 identify relevant data entities and elements based on given scenarios
 establish migration strategy processes including migration scope Identify data migration requirements

Prepare data for migration and migrate data to Finance and Operations apps
 Identify types of data including master, transactional, reference, and parametricidentify and extract source
 generate field mapping between source and target data structures
 import or export data by using the data management framework
 support the transition between the existing and migrated systems
 perform a test migration and validate output from the process
 implement data task automation

Validate and support the solutions (15 20% – 20 25%)

Test solutions
 describe types of testing, tools including unit, regression, functional, and end-to-end testing
 describe capabilities of available testing tools
 track work items through a project implementation by using Azure DevOps
 create test cases and test plans by using Azure DevOps
 automate and manage test cases by using the Regression Suite Automation Tool (RSAT)
 create test scripts by using Task recorder and upload scripts to BPM Business process
modeler or Azure DevOps

Implement Describe and use Lifecycle Services (LCS) tools
 differentiate between LCS roles including Owner and Environment Manager
 identify opportunities to re-use existing assets use cases for project asset libraries and shared asset libraries
 analyze Business Process Modeler (BPM) results and identify gaps in functionality
 create an acceptance testing BPM library and analyze results.
 describe environment purposes and topologies
 differentiate between Tier 1 environment and other tiers
 describe use cases for Business Process Modeler libraries
 describe the types of environments, including sandbox, test, and production
 implement the LCS tools including Issue Search and analyze results
 implement performance monitoring
 report production outages
 create and save trace files to troubleshoot performance issues
 describe the impacts of Dynamics 365 One Version service updates on projects
 use LCS tools to identify, report, and resolve issues
 manage Dynamics 365 One Version

QUESTION 1
Your company has recently deployed Dynamics 365 Finance.
You are currently establishing the location of work items.
Which two of the following work items are located in Accounts payable?
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Purchase order.
B. Vendor invoice.
C. Transfer order.
D. Customer Invoice.
E. Sales Order.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 2
As part of the company™s effort to regulate business processes, you plan to make use of the Business Process
Modeler (BPM) tool in Lifecycle Services (LCS) to make business process alignment possible.
You are classifying the key capabilities of BPM with regards to integration.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the above scenario?

A. You are able to pull master data.
B. You are able to pull reference data.
C. You are able to upload flowcharts from Task recorder.
D. You are able to access external databases.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Microsoft releases a new feature for public preview that does not require additional licensing.
You want to enable the new feature.
You enable the feature in Solution management.
Does this action enable the new feature?

A. Yes, it does
B. No, it does not

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Microsoft releases a new feature for public preview that does not require additional licensing.
You want to enable the new feature.
You enable the feature in Lifecycle Services (LCS).
Does this action enable the new feature?

A. Yes, it does
B. No, it does not

Answer: A

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Linux

CompTIA Linux+ (XK0-004) Certification Study Guide, Exam Q&A

Exam Codes : XK0-004
Launch Date : April 2, 2019
Exam Description : CompTIA Linux+ validates the skills of IT professionals with hands-on experience configuring, monitoring, and supporting servers running the Linux operating system. The new exam has an increased focus on the following topics: security, kernel modules, storage & virtualization, device management at an enterprise level, git & automation, networking & firewalls, server side & command line, server (vs. client-based) coverage, troubleshooting and SELinux.
Number of Questions: Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions : Performance-based, Multiple Choice (Single Response), Multiple Response and Fill-in-the-Blank
Length of Test : 90 Minutes
Passing Score : 720 (on a scale of 100 to 900)
Recommended Experience : CompTIA A+, CompTIA Network+ and 12 months of Linux admin experience
Languages : English, Japanese, Portuguese and Spanish
Retirement
TBD – Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE: Testing Centers: Online Testing

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed by CompTIA for the CompTIA certification candidate. Self-paced study guides are:

Reviewed extensively to ensure 100% coverage of the CompTIA exam objectives
Clearly written and structured
Flexible, so you can learn at any pace

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options. Two common ones are:

Product Details
Media type: Paperback print book or eBook
Audience: Self-paced individual learner
Publisher: CompTIA Learning
Language: English
Price: print book: $149, eBook: $139

What You’ll Learn
This Official CompTIA Linux+ Study Guide (XKO-004) was designed to help you acquire the knowledge for configuring, operating and troubleshooting Linux systems.

After reading this text, you will understand how to:
Perform basic Linux tasks
Manage users and group
Manage permissions and ownership
Manage storage
Manage files and directories
Manage kernel modules
Manage the Linux boot process
Manage system components
Manage devices
Manage networking
Manage packages and software
Secure Linux systems
Write and execute Bash shell scripts
Automate tasks
Plan and perform a Linux installation

Prerequisites
To learn with the Official CompTIA Linux+ Study Guide and prepare for your exam, you need to have the following:

CompTIA A+ certification
CompTIA Network+ certification
Have at least 12 months of Linux admin experience

The new CompTIA Linux+ is for the IT pro who will use Linux to manage everything from cars and smartphones to servers and supercomputers, as a vast number of enterprises use Linux in cloud, cybersecurity, mobile and web administration applications.

In the new CompTIA Linux+, candidates are only required to pass one exam for certification. However, the new certification is no longer eligible for the LPI 2-for-1 offer.

CompTIA Linux+ is the only job-focused Linux certification covering the latest foundational skills demanded by hiring managers.
Unlike other certifications, the new exam includes performance-based and multiple-choice questions to identify the employees who can do the job.
The exam covers tasks associated with all major distributions of Linux, setting the foundation for advanced vendor/distro-specific knowledge.

CompTIA Linux+ covers common tasks in major distributions of Linux, including the Linux command line, basic maintenance, installing and configuring workstations, and networking.

What Skills Will You Learn?

HARDWARE
Hardware & System Configuration
Configure kernel modules, network parameters, storage, cloud and virtualization technologies

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
System Operation & Maintenance
Manage software and services, and explain server roles, job scheduling, and the use and operation of Linux devices

SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Security
Understand best practices for permissions and authentication, firewalls, and file management.

NETWORKING
Linux Troubleshooting & Diagnostics
Analyze system properties and processes and troubleshoot user, application and hardware issues

HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING
Automation & Scripting
Execute basic BASH scripts, version control using Git, and orchestration processes
Jobs that use CompTIA Linux+
Linux Administrator
Network Administrator
Technical Support Specialist
Web Administrator
Systems Administrator

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Linux+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA Linux+ certification. Collect at least 50 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA Linux+ certification will automatically renew.

Want more details? Learn more about the CompTIA Continuing Education program.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following would be the BEST solution for a systems administrator to access the graphical user environment of a Linux machine remotely?

A. VNC
B. KDE
C. X11
D. RPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A technical support engineer receives a ticket from a user who is trying to create a 1KB file in the /tmp directory and is getting the following error:
No space left on device.
The support engineer checks the / tmp directory, and it has 20GB of free space.
Which of the following BEST describes a possible cause for this error?

A. The /tmp directory is not mounted.
B. The filesystem is formatted with a 4MB block size.
C. the filesystem ran out of inodes.
D. The /tmp directory has been set with an immutable attribute.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the BEST reason for not storing database files in the /var directory?

A. The /var filesystem is not fast enough for database files.
B. The number of files in /var is limited by the available inodes.
C. Files in /var do not have strict file permissions.
D. If log files fill up /var, it might corrupt the database.

Answer: D

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Cisco

700-680 Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization Exam (700-680) Exam

Exam overview
This exam will test the knowledge of Account Manager/Presales engineers on the foundations of Cisco’s Collaboration SaaS solutions in order for them to effectively sell these cloud-based services. This exam is a requirement for the Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization Program.

Exam topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

5% 1.0 Webex Market Overview
1.1 Understand the market opportunity for Webex
1.2 Overview of Webex portfolio

30% 2.0 Webex Meetings, Webex Teams, Webex Devices, and Webex Edge
2.1 Understand the key sales and technical aspects of Webex meetings
2.2 Key elements of Webex Teams and organizational uses
2.3 Portfolio of Webex Cloud connected devices and key features
2.4 Webex edge solutions connecting On Prem capability to Webex Cloud

5% 3.0 Webex Calling
3.1 Overview of Webex Calling
3.2 Key technical and customer features
3.3 Worldwide availability for partners

30% 4.0 Webex Control Hub, Webex security, compliance and Webex for developers
4.1 Understand the partner and customer capabilities of Control Hub
4.2 Key capabilities of Webex security – apt to Cloud service
4.3 Webex compliance – what it means and how customers manage compliance
4.4 Webex for developers – partner opportunity, processes for developing integrations with Webex

20% 5.0 Collaboration Flex Plan
5.1 Overview of Collaboration Flex Plan
5.2 Specific features and customer positioning scenarios
5.3 Resources and Tools to support partners

10% 6.0 Overview of Ordering, Smartaccounts and Webex Try and Buy
6.1 Subscription billing platform as part of CCW
6.2 SmartAccounts – Value to Customers and Partners
6.3 Webex Try and Buy -Program Overview and Tools for Partners

Training
The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

Cisco SaaS Authorization Training

Cisco Partners can access Cisco SalesConnect for access to a variety of training content to help them prepare for this exam.

QUESTION 1
Which applications can be created on Webex Teams developer portal?

A. Adapters and AppTies
B. Java and Python programs
C. Pages and Snapins
D. Integrations and Bots

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which Webex Edge service uses +E.164 numbers?

A. Webex Edge does not support +E.164 numbers
B. Webex Edge Audio
C. Webex Edge Video Mesh
D. Webex Edge Management

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two endpoints allow for whiteboarding and annotating on the screen? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Meeting Server 2000
B. Cisco IP Phone
C. DX 80
D. Cisco IP Conference Phone
E. Webex Board

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which two services are delivered in Webex Edge? (Choose two.)

A. Webex Edge Management
B. Cisco dCloud
C. Webex Edge Audio
D. Webex Edge Touch Ten
E. Webex Edge Connect

Correct Answer: CE

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CompTIA CASP Recertification

CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) CAS-004

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is an advanced-level cybersecurity certification for security architects and senior security engineers charged with leading and improving an enterprise’s cybersecurity readiness.

Why is CASP+ Different?
CASP+ is the only hands-on, performance-based certification for advanced practitioners — not managers — at the advanced skill level of cybersecurity. While cybersecurity managers help identify what cybersecurity policies and frameworks could be implemented, CASP+ certified professionals figure out how to implement solutions within those policies and frameworks.
Unlike other certifications, CASP+ covers both security architecture and engineering – CASP+ is the only certification on the market that qualifies technical leaders to assess cyber readiness within an enterprise, and design and implement the proper solutions to ensure the organization is ready for the next attack.

Exam Details : CAS-004
Launch Date : October 6, 2021
Exam Description : CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.
Number of Questions : Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions : Multiple-choice and performance-based
Length of Test : 165 Minutes
Passing Score : This test has no scaled score; it’s pass/fail only.
Recommended Experience : A minimum of ten years of general hands-on IT experience, with at least five years of broad hands-on security experience.
Languages : English, Japanese to follow
Retirement : Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider : Pearson VUE, Testing Centers, Online Testing

CASP+ CAS-004: What’s in this version
Information security threats are on the rise globally. Organizations are increasingly concerned over the lack of adequately trained senior IT security staff’s ability to effectively lead and manage the overall cybersecurity resiliency against the next attack. Updates to CASP+ qualify advanced skills required of security architects and senior security engineers to effectively design, implement, and manage cybersecurity solutions on complex enterprise networks.

About the Exam
The new CASP+ (CAS-004) exam is now available!

CASP+ is an advanced-level cybersecurity certification covering technical skills in security architecture and senior security engineering in traditional, cloud, and hybrid environments, governance, risk, and compliance skills, assessing an enterprise’s cybersecurity readiness, and leading technical teams to implement enterprise-wide cybersecurity solutions. Successful candidates will have the knowledge required to:

Architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise
Use monitoring, detection, incident response, and automation to proactively support ongoing security operations in an enterprise environment
Apply security practices to cloud, on-premises, endpoint, and mobile infrastructure, while considering cryptographic technologies and techniques
Consider the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements throughout the enterprise

CASP+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
Security Architecture
Expanded coverage to analyze security requirements in hybrid networks to work toward an enterprise-wide, zero trust security architecture with advanced secure cloud and virtualization solutions.

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
Security Operations
Expanded emphasis on newer techniques addressing advanced threat management, vulnerability management, risk mitigation, incident response tactics, and digital forensics analysis.

NETWORKING
Governance, Risk, and Compliance
Expanded to support advanced techniques to prove an organization’s overall cybersecurity resiliency metric and compliance to regulations, such as CMMC, PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, FISMA, NIST, and CCPA.

SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Security Engineering and Cryptography
Expanded to focus on advanced cybersecurity configurations for endpoint security controls, enterprise mobility, cloud/hybrid environments, and enterprise-wide PKI and cryptographic solutions.

Jobs That Use CASP+
Security Architect
Senior Security Engineer
SOC Manager
Security Analyst

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies, and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals, through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like CASP+ itself, CASP+ CE also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs — including higher certifications — to renew your CASP+ certification. Collect at least 75 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account. Your CASP+ will automatically renew when you do this!

Want more details? Learn more about the CompTIA Continuing Education program.

QUESTION 1
An organization is referencing NIST best practices for BCP creation while reviewing current internal
organizational processes for mission-essential items.
Which of the following phases establishes the identification and prioritization of critical systems and functions?

A. Review a recent gap analysis.
B. Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
C. Conduct a business impact analysis.
D. Develop an exposure factor matrix.

QUESTION 2
An organization is preparing to migrate its production environment systems from an on-premises environment
to a cloud service. The lead security architect is concerned that the organization’s current methods for
addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud environment.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why traditional methods of addressing risk may not be
possible in the cloud?

A. Migrating operations assumes the acceptance of all risk.
B. Cloud providers are unable to avoid risk.
C. Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider.
D. Risks to data in the cloud cannot be mitigated.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A company created an external application for its customers. A security researcher now reports that the
application has a serious LDAP injection vulnerability that could be leveraged to bypass authentication and
authorization.
Which of the following actions would BEST resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Conduct input sanitization.
B. Deploy a SIEM.
C. Use containers.
D. Patch the OS
E. Deploy a WAF.
F. Deploy a reverse proxy
G. Deploy an IDS.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION 4
In preparation for the holiday season, a company redesigned the system that manages retail sales and moved
it to a cloud service provider. The new infrastructure did not meet the company’s availability requirements.
During a postmortem analysis, the following issues were highlighted:
1. International users reported latency when images on the web page were initially loading.
2. During times of report processing, users reported issues with inventory when attempting to place orders.
3. Despite the fact that ten new API servers were added, the load across servers was heavy at peak times.

Which of the following infrastructure design changes would be BEST for the organization to implement to avoid these issues in the future?

A. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports
from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.
B. Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a nonrelational
database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.
C. Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across
different regions, and dynamically create API servers based on load.
D. Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed
relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.

Answer: A

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CompTIA Server+

SK0-005 CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam

CompTIA Server+ ensures pros have the skills to work in data centers or cloud environments.
CompTIA Server+ is a global certification that validates the hands-on skills of IT professionals who install, manage and troubleshoot servers in data centers as well as on-premise and hybrid environments.

CompTIA Server+ is the only certification that can ensure that IT professionals at the administrator level are able to do the job in any environment because it is the only certification not restricted to a single platform. The exam covers essential hardware and software technologies of on-premise and hybrid server environments including high availability, cloud computing and scripting. The new exam includes performance-based questions that require the candidate to demonstrate multi-step knowledge to securely deploy, administer and troubleshoot servers.

CompTIA Server+ now features flexible training options including self-paced learning, live online training, custom training and labs to advance the career development of IT professionals in server administration.

The new CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 is now available. CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 (English language version) will retire January 7, 2022.

What Skills Will You Learn?

HARDWARE
Server Hardware Installation & Management
Install and maintain physical hardware and storage

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
Server Administration
Manage and maintain servers, including OS configuration, access control and virtualization

SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Security & Disaster Recovery
Apply physical and network data security techniques and Understand disaster recovery and implement backup techniques

NETWORKING
Troubleshooting
Diagnose and resolve system hardware, software, connectivity, storage and security issues

Jobs that use CompTIA Server+
Systems Administrator

Data Center Technician
Server Administrator

Network Administrator
Field Service Technician or Engineer

IT Technician
Data Center Engineer

Exam Codes: SK0-005
Launch Date: May 18, 2021
Exam Description: Server+ validates the hands-on skills of IT professionals who install, manage and troubleshoot servers in data centers as well as on-premise and hybrid environments.
Number of Questions: 90 questions
Type of Questions: Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test: 90 Minutes
Passing Score: 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience: CompTIA A+ certified or equivalent knowledge Two years of hands-on experience working in a server environment
Languages: English (at launch), Japanese (at later date)
Retirement: January 7, 2022
Testing Provider: Pearson VUE , Testing Centers, Online Testing

Why is CompTIA Server+ different?
12% job growth is expected for Network & Computer Systems Administrators, 2012 – 2022, according to the latest BLS website information.

Average salary for a Server+ certified IT professionals is about $82,000.*

82% of employers recognize that certified employees are valuable to their organizations.**

Renewal
The CompTIA Server+ certification is considered good for life and does not need to be renewed.

For certifications that are part of the CompTIA Continuing Education program and that can be renewed, please go to our Continuing Education page.
CompTIA Server+ 005 Exam Domains
Server Hardware Installation and Management (18%)
Server Administration (30%)
Security and Disaster Recovery (24%)
Troubleshooting (28%)

Automation, scripting and virtualization to optimize server management
On-premises and hybrid server environments to accommodate both enterprise and small business needs
Performance-based questions that assess a candidate’s hands-on technical ability
Server administration and troubleshooting of both on-premises and remote servers
Cloud computing concepts as they apply to server administration and maintenance

Compared to SK0-004, SK0-005 contains five fewer exam objectives, which represents the changing nature of the job role into a more highly-focused and dedicated server administrator. Much of the topics are still covered in the new exam, but are consolidated into the four domains.

The refreshed objectives streamline outdated content, while ensuring a continued emphasis on the technical implementation of the job role. New content areas emerging from data security, virtualization and the impact of cloud solutions have been added.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

A. Per socket
B. Perpetual
C. Subscription-based
D. Site-based

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization.
Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)

A. Memory
B. Page file
C. Services
D. Application
E. CPU
F. Heartbeat

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
A user cannot save large files to a directory on a Linux server that was accepting smaller files a few minutes ago.
Which of the following commands should a technician use to identify the issue?

A. pvdisplay
B. mount
C. df -h
D. fdisk -l

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration.
Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server.
The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The server has a faulty power supply
B. The server has a CMOS battery failure
C. The server requires OS updates
D. The server has a malfunctioning LED panel
E. The servers do not have NTP configured
F. The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers

Answer: C,F

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Cisco

200-901 DEVASC Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC) Exam

Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
English, Japanese
DevNet Cisco Certified DevNet Associate

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability


Exam preparation Offical Cisco training
Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Core Platforms (DEVASC), Network Automation training videos, DEVASC study materials

Cisco Certified DevNet Expert v1.0 Lab Exam Registration
Registrations for the upcoming DevNet Expert v1.0 Lab Exam will be opening soon, but you can start preparing for the exam by downloading the exam topics. The first date to take the lab exam is May 2, 2022.

DevNet Associate Exam v1.0 (200-901)
Exam Description: DevNet Associate Exam v1.0 (DEVASC 200-901) is a 120-minute exam associated with the DevNet Associate – Developer Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of software development and design including understanding and using APIs, Cisco platforms and development, application development and security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Core Platforms, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

15% 1.0 Software Development and Design

1.1 Compare data formats (XML, JSON, and YAML)
1.2 Describe parsing of common data format (XML, JSON, and YAML) to Python data structures
1.3 Describe the concepts of test-driven development
1.4 Compare software development methods (agile, lean, and waterfall)
1.5 Explain the benefits of organizing code into methods / functions, classes, and modules
1.6 Identify the advantages of common design patterns (MVC and Observer)
1.7 Explain the advantages of version control
1.8 Utilize common version control operations with Git
1.8.a Clone
1.8.b Add/remove
1.8.c Commit
1.8.d Push / pull
1.8.e Branch
1.8.f Merge and handling conflicts
1.8.g diff


20% 2.0 Understanding and Using APIs

2.1 Construct a REST API request to accomplish a task given API documentation
2.2 Describe common usage patterns related to webhooks
2.3 Identify the constraints when consuming APIs
2.4 Explain common https: response codes associated with REST APIs
2.5 Troubleshoot a problem given the https: response code, request and API documentation
2.6 Identify the parts of an https: response (response code, headers, body)
2.7 Utilize common API authentication mechanisms: basic, custom token, and API keys
2.8 Compare common API styles (REST, RPC, synchronous, and asynchronous)
2.9 Construct a Python script that calls a REST API using the requests library
 

15% 3.0 Cisco Platforms and Development

3.1 Construct a Python script that uses a Cisco SDK given SDK documentation
3.2 Describe the capabilities of Cisco network management platforms and APIs (Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, ACI, Cisco SD-WAN, and NSO)
3.3 Describe the capabilities of Cisco compute management platforms and APIs (UCS Manager, UCS Director, and Intersight)
3.4 Describe the capabilities of Cisco collaboration platforms and APIs (Webex Teams, Webex devices, Cisco Unified Communication Manager including AXL and UDS interfaces, and Finesse)
3.5 Describe the capabilities of Cisco security platforms and APIs (Firepower, Umbrella, AMP, ISE, and ThreatGrid)
3.6 Describe the device level APIs and dynamic interfaces for IOS XE and NX-OS
3.7 Identify the appropriate DevNet resource for a given scenario (Sandbox, Code Exchange, support, forums, Learning Labs, and API documentation)
3.8 Apply concepts of model driven programmability (YANG, RESTCONF, and NETCONF) in a Cisco environment
3.9 Construct code to perform a specific operation based on a set of requirements and given API reference documentation such as these:
3.9.a Obtain a list of network devices by using Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, ACI, Cisco SD-WAN, or NSO
3.9.b Manage spaces, participants, and messages in Webex Teams
3.9.c Obtain a list of clients / hosts seen on a network using Meraki or Cisco DNA Center


15% 4.0 Application Deployment and Security

4.1 Describe benefits of edge computing
4.2 Identify attributes of different application deployment models (private cloud, public cloud, hybrid cloud, and edge)
4.3 Identify the attributes of these application deployment types
4.3.a Virtual machines
4.3.b Bare metal
4.3.c Containers
4.4 Describe components for a CI/CD pipeline in application deployments
4.5 Construct a Python unit test
4.6 Interpret contents of a Dockerfile
4.7 Utilize Docker images in local developer environment
4.8 Identify application security issues related to secret protection, encryption (storage and transport), and data handling
4.9 Explain how firewall, DNS, load balancers, and reverse proxy in application deployment
4.10 Describe top OWASP threats (such as XSS, SQL injections, and CSRF)
4.11 Utilize Bash commands (file management, directory navigation, and environmental variables)
4.12 Identify the principles of DevOps practices


20% 5.0 Infrastructure and Automation

5.1 Describe the value of model driven programmability for infrastructure automation
5.2 Compare controller-level to device-level management
5.3 Describe the use and roles of network simulation and test tools (such as VIRL and pyATS)
5.4 Describe the components and benefits of CI/CD pipeline in infrastructure automation
5.5 Describe principles of infrastructure as code
5.6 Describe the capabilities of automation tools such as Ansible, Puppet, Chef, and Cisco NSO
5.7 Identify the workflow being automated by a Python script that uses Cisco APIs including ACI, Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, or RESTCONF
5.8 Identify the workflow being automated by an Ansible playbook (management packages, user management related to services, basic service configuration, and start/stop)
5.9 Identify the workflow being automated by a bash script (such as file management, app install, user management, directory navigation)
5.10 Interpret the results of a RESTCONF or NETCONF query
5.11 Interpret basic YANG models
5.12 Interpret a unified diff
5.13 Describe the principles and benefits of a code review process
5.14 Interpret sequence diagram that includes API calls


15% 6.0 Network Fundamentals

6.1 Describe the purpose and usage of MAC addresses and VLANs
6.2 Describe the purpose and usage of IP addresses, routes, subnet mask / prefix, and gateways
6.3 Describe the function of common networking components (such as switches, routers, firewalls, and load balancers)
6.4 Interpret a basic network topology diagram with elements such as switches, routers, firewalls, load balancers, and port values
6.5 Describe the function of management, data, and control planes in a network device
6.6 Describe the functionality of these IP Services: DHCP, DNS, NAT, SNMP, NTP
6.7 Recognize common protocol port values (such as, SSH, Telnet, https:, HTTPS, and NETCONF)
6.8 Identify cause of application connectivity issues (NAT problem, Transport Port blocked, proxy, and VPN)
6.9 Explain the impacts of network constraints on applications


QUESTION 1
Which two concepts describe test-driven development? (Choose two.)

A. User acceptance testers develop the test requirements.
B. It enables code refactoring.
C. Tests are created when code is ready for release.
D. Implementation is driven by incremental testing of release candidates.
E. Write a test before writing code.

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Which task is performed because the test-driven development approach is being used?

A. creating test scenarios based on continuous development
B. writing code without committing any coding violations
C. refactoring code that is covered by existing tests
D. testing existing software before developing new code

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.
B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.
C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.
D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In test-driven development, what are two of the green bar patterns? (Choose two.)

A. another test
B. break
C. triangulate
D. starter test
E. fake it

Answer: C,E

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Microsoft, Microsoft 365

MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals Exam updated on October 25, 2021

The content of this exam was updated on October 25, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here.

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational-level knowledge on the considerations and benefits of adopting cloud services in general and the Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud model. Candidates should have knowledge of available options and benefits gained by implementing Microsoft 365 cloud service offerings.

Candidates should have the requisite knowledge to recommend solutions that address common organizational IT challenges and to differentiate Microsoft 365 solutions from the competition in the market. Candidates should also have fundamental knowledge of offerings, optimizing licensing for cost effectiveness, and support options for organizations.

Candidates should be able to differentiate between Microsoft’s services and products (Microsoft 365, Azure, and Dynamics 365).

You may be eligible for ACE college credit if you pass this certification exam. See ACE college credit for certification exams for details.

Exam MS-900: Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
Languages: English, Japanese, Spanish, German, Chinese (Simplified), French, Korean, Portuguese (Brazil), Arabic (Saudi Arabia), Russian, Chinese (Traditional), Italian
Retirement date: none

Prove that you understand cloud concepts; core Microsoft 365 services and concepts; security, compliance, privacy, and trust in Microsoft 365; and Microsoft 365 pricing and support.

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on October 25, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.

Describe cloud concepts (10-15%)
Describe core Microsoft 365 services and concepts (30-35%)
Explain security, compliance, privacy, and trust in Microsoft 365 (30-35%)
Describe Microsoft 365 pricing and support (20-25%)

The exam guide below shows the changes that were implemented on October 25, 2021.

Audience Profile
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational-level knowledge on the considerations and benefits of adopting cloud services in general and the Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud model. Candidates should have knowledge of available options and benefits gained by implementing Microsoft 365 cloud service offerings.

Candidates should have the requisite knowledge to recommend solutions that address common organizational IT challenges and to differentiate Microsoft 365 solutions from the competition in the market. Candidates should also have fundamental knowledge of offerings, optimizing licensing for cost effectiveness, and support options for organizations.

Candidates should be able to differentiate between Microsoft’s services and products (Microsoft 365, Azure, and Dynamics 365).

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe cloud concepts (10-15%)
Describe the different types of cloud services available
• describe Microsoft’s IaaS, and PaaS offerings
• describe where Microsoft Azure and Dynamics 365 fit in to the Microsoft ecosystem
• cloud-based productivity solutions

Describe the benefits of and considerations for using a cloud service instead of onpremises services
• describe public, private, and hybrid scenarios
• identify scenarios when usage of cloud-based services is more beneficial than onpremises services
• compare costs of cloud-based services with on-premises services
• identify factors that drive organizations to move to the cloud

Describe Core Microsoft 365 Services and Concepts (30-35%)
Identify core Microsoft 365 capabilities
• productivity and teamwork (IM and chat, online meetings, email and calendaring, Office productivity apps, file storage and sharing, intranet and team sites, enterprise social, accessibility)
• business management (simplified management, business process automation, extensibility, business voice and phone systems, forms and workflow management, business intelligence, work management, customer scheduling and booking, mileage
tracking and reporting)
• security and compliance (identity and access management, information protection and governance, threat protection, security management, insider risk management, compliance management, discover and respond)
• describe the capabilities of the Microsoft 365 Admin center and Microsoft 365 user portal

Describe options for deploying and supporting Windows and Office
• describe the deployment and release models for Windows-as-a-Service (WaaS) including deployment rings
• describe the capabilities of Windows Virtual Desktop (WVD) and when it makes sense to implement WVD
• identify deployment and servicing methods for Microsoft 365 apps

Describe analytics capabilities in Microsoft 365
• describe capabilities of Workplace Analytics and MyAnalytics
• describe the reports available in the Microsoft 365 Admin center and other admin centers

Describe Microsoft 365 collaboration solutions
• explain how collaboration solutions in Microsoft 365 can drive personal and organizational productivity
• describe the capabilities for extending Office and Microsoft Teams with Power Platform and third-party apps and services

Explain Security, Compliance, Privacy, and Trust in Microsoft 365 (30- 35%)
Explain zero-trust security principles for Microsoft 365
• identify key components that need to be protected within an organization’s cloud and on-premises infrastructure
• describe key security pillars of protection, including identity, documents, network, and devices

Explain unified endpoint management concepts
• explain device and application management
• describe bring you own device (BYOD), and application and device management
• explain the value of the Microsoft Endpoint Manager (MEM) including Microsoft Intune and System Center

Explain identity and access management concepts
• describe concepts of cloud identity, on-premises identity, and hybrid identity
• describe the purpose and value of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)
• describe the purpose and value of conditional access

Explain Threat Protection in Microsoft 365
• identify how Microsoft 365 services address the most common current threats
• describe the concepts of Cloud App Security

Describe the Service Trust portal, Microsoft 365 security center, and Compliance Manager
• identify differences between the Service Trust portal, Security center, and Compliance Manager
• explain the trust relationship between Microsoft and service locations
• describe data protection options including data segregation
• describe how compliance scores are generated and how they can be used
• describe scenarios where knowing the compliance score benefits an organization
• describe the value and capabilities of the Service Trust portal
• explain insider risk management capabilities in the compliance score
• identify eDiscovery use cases and scenarios
• explain why privacy matters to Microsoft
• demonstrate the Security Center and Secure Score benefits and capabilities

Describe information protection and governance solutions
• explain information protection and governance
• identify the types of sensitivity labels and when to use each type

Describe Microsoft 365 Pricing and Support (20-25%)
Plan, predict, and compare pricing
• describe the Cloud Solution Provider (CSP) pricing model for Windows and Microsoft cloud services
• explain available billing and bill management options including billing frequency and methods of payment
• optimize costs based on licensing options

Identify licensing options available in Microsoft 365
• describe the available licensing and management options for Microsoft 365
• describe additional capabilities available when a customer purchases Azure Active
Directory Premium P1, Azure Active Directory Premium P2, and Azure AD Free

Describe the service lifecycle in Microsoft 365
• describe private, public preview, and General Availability (GA) options
• describe the correlation between lifecycle options and pricing
• describe use cases and capabilities for the Microsoft 365 Roadmap portal

Describe support offerings for Microsoft 365 services
• describe how to create a support request for Microsoft 365 services
• describe service level agreements (SLAs) concepts, use cases for SLAs, SLA tiers, roles, and responsibilities
• determine service health status by using the Microsoft 365 dashboard or the tenant dashboard
• describe how organizations can communicate with Microsoft by using UserVoice

QUESTION 1
You need to consider the underlined segment to establish whether it is accurate.
All applications will remain in a hybrid environment after migrating to Microsoft Azure.
Select ‘No adjustment required" if the underlined segment is accurate. If the underlined segment is inaccurate,
select the accurate option.

A. No adjustment required.
B. Applications that manage sensitive information
C. Applications where access requires a USB-token device
D. All legacy applications

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However,
every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.
Your company plans to move their Server environment to the cloud.
You have been tasked with identifying a cloud model that allows for the current email environment to be
upgraded, while also reducing server and application maintenance.
You need to make sure that the requirements are met.
Solution: You recommend the Platform as a service (PaaS) model.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However,
every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.
Your company plans to move their Server environment to the cloud.
You have been tasked with identifying a cloud model that allows for the current email environment to be
upgraded, while also reducing server and application maintenance.
You need to make sure that the requirements are met.
Solution: You recommend the Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) model.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

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IBM

C1000-124 IBM Cloud Advocate v1 Exam

Group: IBM Cloud – Cloud Solutions
Status: Live
PartnerWorld code: C0010900
Replaces PW code: N/A
Required exam: IBM Cloud Advocate v1

Certification Overview
An individual certified with the IBM Cloud Advocate credential can explain the essential characteristics, history, and trends of cloud computing. They can describe the business case for and identify the services, deployment models, components, and architectures underpinning cloud computing. Further, an individual with this certification can describe the services and offerings available on the IBM Cloud.

Exam Objectives
During exam development, the Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) define all of the tasks, knowledge and experience that an individual would need in order to successfully fulfill their role with the product or solution. These are represented by the objectives below and the questions on the exam are based upon these objective.

Number of questions: 61
Number of questions to pass: 40
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Live

Section 1: Cloud computing and its essential characteristics, history, and emerging trends
List the essential characteristics of cloud computing
Recognize the factors regarding the evolution and history of the Cloud
Identify the key cloud service providers and their services

Section 2: The business case for cloud computing
Recall the various factors related to a business case for Cloud Computing
Recognize technologies supported by Cloud: AI, IoT, Blockchain, Analytics

Section 3: Service and deployment models of cloud computing
Outline cloud computing service models: IaaS, PaaS, SaaS
Differentiate between the cloud computing deployment Models: Public, Private, Hybrid

Section 4: Components of cloud architecture
Define cloud architecture and infrastructure
Define virtualization in relation to virtual machines and bare metal servers
Define Secure Cloud Networks
List the uses and functions of containers on the cloud
Differentiate the concepts of direct attached, file, block, and object storage in Cloud
Identify the function and use of Content Delivery Networks (CDN) within the cloud
Differentiate between Hybrid Multicloud, serverless, and microservice cloud solutions
Define Cloud Native and Application Modernization

Section 5: Introduction to IBM Cloud
Recognize the various Locations, Regions, and Zones and the role they play in the IBM Cloud
Differentiate between IBM Cloud Account Types and Support Plans
Indicate how Account types can impact IBM Cloud management and support
Recognize the components of the IBM Cloud Cost Estimator
List the concepts relative to Access Management (IAM) in IBM Cloud

Section 6: IBM Cloud Infrastructure
Differentiate between different compute options on IBM Cloud
Differentiate Storage Services on IBM Cloud
Define external facing network services on the IBM Cloud
Indicate the features and functionalities of Virtual Private Clouds
Define options for VMWare workloads on IBM Cloud

Section 7: Deploying IBM Cloud Applications
Identify the various features and usage of containers, Kubernetes, and Red Hat OpenShift on the IBM Cloud
Differentiate between serverless compute options on the IBM Cloud

Section 8: Service on IBM Cloud
Recognize the various IBM Cloud databases
Identify application integration services in IBM Cloud
List the uses and functions AI/ML services available on IBM Cloud
Recognize the various analytic services on IBM Cloud
Define DevOps and identify the DevOps services on the IBM Cloud
Identify the blockchain options available on the IBM Cloud
Define the basics of the Internet of Things platform on the IBM Cloud
Recognize the IBM Cloud Paks option on IBM Cloud

Exam Resources
Courses and publications are offered to help you prepare for the certification tests. The courses are recommended, but not required, before taking a certification test. When preparing for the certification test, keep in mind that real world experience is required to stand a reasonable chance of passing the certification test. Courseware does not replace the requirement for experience. Please note that course offerings are continuously being added and updated.

QUESTION 1
According to NIST, what are the five essential characteristics of the cloud?

A. On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service
B. Networks, firewalls, storage, applications, and services
C. Platform as a service, bring your own software license, ability to reply applications over the internet, software as a service, and private network
D. On-demand network access, dedicated pool of computing resources, direct attached storage, rapid provisioning, and self service

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Power Systems Virtual Servers on IBM Cloud supports which two operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. Windows Server
B. IBM ?
C. VMware ESX
D. z/OS
E. AIX

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 3
After selecting all items to be part of the total configuration in the IBM Cloud Cost Estimator, in which two file formats can the results be downloaded? (Choose two.)

A. XLSX
B. JSON
C. PDF
D. XML
E. DOCX

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 4
What is a resource group in IBM Cloud?

A. Application resources that have been placed in the same zone
B. A container for resources to which access privileges can be assigned
C. A set of provisioned services labeled with the same tag
D. A group of resources that can be created on demand using a Teraform script

Answer: D

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Tech

CAU201 CyberArk Defender Exam

– Get instant access to CAU201 practice exam questions
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The newest CyberArk Certified Delivery Engineer, Defender (Level 2) has been released a few months ago and enterprises are already upgrading from the older versions in mass scale. CyberArk holds almost 2/3 of the market share in email communication solutions and the Defender Exam is its flagship product and the cornerstone of Unified Communications for many companies.

The new CyberArk Certified Delivery Engineer, Defender (Level 2) version boasts ground breaking features and other advanced software communication features that make CAU201 one of the most powerful enterprise tools on Certkingdom .com

Defender – PAM Summary

Candidates who receive this certification demonstrate competency to maintain day-to-day operations and support the on-going performance of the CyberArk Privileged Access Management Solution.
Candidate Prerequisites
CyberArk Trustee Certification
Network+ Certification or equivalent experience
Security+ Certification or equivalent experience
Microsoft MCSE Certification or equivalent experience
Recommended Preparation Resources
Instructor-led Training CyberArk Privileged Access Management (PAM) Administration or the self-paced version.
Level 2: Defender Exam Study Guide

Exam Topics:
In preparation for the CyberArk Defender Certification it is highly recommended you review the Level 2: Defender Exam Study Guide and take the course CyberArk Privileged Access Management (PAM) Administration

The Exam
* To schedule an exam please use the following link: Schedule Exam
* The exam has 65 multiple-choice questions.
* You have 90 minutes to complete the exam.
* The exam fee is $200 USD.
* Passing score: 70%
* Please use your business email upon Pearson VUE account registration

Audience
The Defender- PAM Certification is designed for:
IT Personnel who will work with the CyberArk Privileged Account Security Solution daily
IT Personnel who will provide first level support for the products
IT Personnel who will make basic configuration changes to the system

Disclaimers
The ultimate authority for answers to exam questions is the CyberArk online documentation. We require that all questions on the exam be supported by references from docs.cyberark.com and nothing else. Product Documentation is the sole authority for all doubts about exam content.

QUESTION 1
If a user is a member of more than one group that has authorizations on a safe, by default that user is granted____________________.

A. the vault will not allow this situation to occur.
B. only those permissions that exist on the group added to the safe first.
C. only those permissions that exist in all groups to which the user belongs.
D. the cumulative permissions of all the groups to which that user belongs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
It is possible to control the hours of the day during which a user may long into the vault.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
VAULT authorizations may be granted to ____________________. (Choose all that apply.)

A. Vault Users
B. Vault Groups
C. LDAP Users
D. LDAP Groups

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Interval setting in a CPM policy?

A. To control how often the CPM looks for System Initiated CPM work.
B. To control how often the CPM looks for User Initiated CPM work.
C. To control how long the CPM rests between password changes.
D. To control the maximum amount of time the CPM will wait for a password change to complete.

Answer: A

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IBM

S1000-002 IBM Cloud Pak for Data Systems V1.x Administrator Specialty Exam

Group: IBM Data and AI – Data and AI
Status: Live
PartnerWorld code: S0010100
Replaces PW code: N/A
Required exam: IBM Cloud Pak for Data Systems V1.x Administrator Specialty

Certification Overview
An IBM Cloud Pak for Data System Administrator has knowledge and experience of IBM Cloud Pak for Data Systems. This administrator is capable of performing tasks related to the daily management and operation, configuration, security and patch management, upgrades of the environment and problem determination.

PartnerWorld Skill Code: S0010100
Requirements
Exam S1000-002: IBM Cloud Pak for Data Systems V1.x Administrator Specialty

Exam Objectives
During exam development, the Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) define all of the tasks, knowledge and experience that an individual would need in order to successfully fulfill their role with the product or solution. These are represented by the objectives below and the questions on the certification exam are based upon these objective.

Number of questions: 40
Number of questions to pass: 28
Time allowed: 75 minutes
Status: Live
Time allowed: 75 minutes
Status: Live

Explain the system architecture of Cloud Pak for Data System and the components
Define the various roles and privileges of users in Cloud Pak for Data System
Define internal vs external user authentication
Define the structure of call home

Define the steps required for common network configuration changes
Configure external user authentication
Configure call home
Configure system alerts
Perform scaling of the Cloud Pak for Data System environment
Set up log forwarding to a remote server

Define the methods to access the system
Define the methods to stop and start the system
Manage platform user management
Manage apps provided with Cloud Pak for Data System
Perform backups using Cloud Pak for Data System volume backup
Perform upgrades of Cloud Pak for Data System

Assess the system health
Manage and managing alerts and notifications
Perform system monitoring from the Cloud Pak for Data System web console

Perform a vulnerability scan
Manage STIG compliance
Configure & Manage storage encryption

Define routine problem management actions
Identify severity of event
Identify component with issues
Gather logs for event

Exam Resources
Courses and publications are offered to help you prepare for the certification tests. The courses are recommended, but not required, before taking a certification test. Please note that course offerings are continuously being added and updated.

QUESTION 1
Which two user groups can be managed when only connecting Cloud Pak for Data Systems to an external LDAP directory? (Choose two.)

A. platform admins
B. platform users
C. DB users
D. OS users
E. application users

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 2
Which two Cloud Pak for Data System prerequisites must be met in order to forward logs to a remote log server? (Choose two.)

A. The worker nodes should be set to logging.
B. The control nodes must to be enabled with the external IP address configured.
C. The remote logging server must have at least 100 GB of storage.
D. The unset nodes should be set to logging.
E. The remote logging server must be enabled to accept forwarding messages form control nodes.

Answer: D,E

QUESTION 3
Which command displays the severity of an alert in Cloud Pak for Data System?

A. ap issues detail
B. ap issues
C. ap show detail
D. ap info -d

Answer: B

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