5V0-41.21 VMware NSX-T Data Center 3.1 Security Exam Brain Dumps PDF

January 31, 2023 Lindsay

VMware NSX-T Data Center Security exam (5V0-41.21) which leads to VMware NSX-T Data Center Security Skills badge is a 70-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled scoring method. Candidates are given 130 minutes to complete the exam, which includes adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) understands network security concepts and can describe VMware’s Intrinsic Security vision. They can administer and troubleshoot NSX-T Data Center 3.1 security features and functions, including User and Role Management, Distributed Firewall, Gateway Firewall, IDS/IPS, and URL Analysis. The candidate should have 1 year experience working in IT, hands-on experience working with NSX-T, and basic knowledge of KVM and vSphere. The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections below.

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Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event, for further preparation, should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in this Exam
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Describe information management security
Objective 1.2 – Describe firewalls and their function
Objective 1.3 – Describe IDS/IPS
Objective 1.4 – Describe Zero-Trust Security
Objective 1.5 – Describe AAA and CIA

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Describe VMware Security portfolio
Objective 2.2 – Describe NSX Distributed Firewall
Objective 2.3 – Describe NSX Distributed IDS/IPS
Objective 2.4 – Describe NSX Intelligence
Objective 2.5 – Describe NSX Edge Security (Gateway Firewall and URL Analysis)
Objective 2.6 – Describe NSX Segmentation
Objective 2.7 – Describe North-South insertion
Objective 2.8 – Describe East-West insertion

Section 3 – There are no testable objectives for this section.

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 – Manage users and roles (LDAP, RBAC, Active Directory, etc.)
Objective 4.2 – Configure and manage distributed firewall policies and rules
Objective 4.3 – Configure manage time based firewalls rules
Objective 4.4 – Configure identity firewalls rules
Objective 4.5 – Configure gateway firewalls rules
Objective 4.6 – Configure and manage distributed IDS/IPS (signatures, profiles, rules)
Objective 4.7 – Configure and manage URL analysis
Objective 4.8 – Install and configure Guest Introspection agent components in VMTools
Objective 4.9 – Deploy NSX Intelligence appliance
Objective 4.10 – Visualize traffic flows and create security recommendations using NSX Intelligence
Objective 4.11 – Create and manage security groups
Objective 4.12 – Enable logging on hosts and Edge transport nodes
Objective 4.13 – Configure logging for specific security features (IDS, Distributed Firewall, Gateway Firewall)

Section 5 – There are no testable objectives for this section.

Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 – Validate guest introspection is operational
Objective 6.2 – Validate North-South and East-West network introspection is operational
Objective 6.3 – Verify the operation of Distributed Firewall
Objective 6.4 – Verify the operation of Gateway Firewall rules
Objective 6.5 – Verify the operation of IDS/IPS
Objective 6.6 – Verify the operation of URL analysis
Objective 6.7 – Identify and review log files and events related to firewalls, IDS/IPS, URL Analysis
Objective 6.8 – Verify logging is enabled on hosts and Edge transport nodes

Section 7 – There are no testable objectives for this section.

Recommended Courses
NSX-T Data Center Install, Config, Manage [3.X]
NSX-T Data Center Security
NSX-T Data Center Security Advanced

References*
In addition to the recommended courses, item writers used the following references for information when writing exam questions. It is recommended that you study the reference content as you prepare to take the exam, in addition to any recommended training.

QUESTION 1
Which esxcli command lists the firewall configuration on ESXi hosts?

A. esxcli network firewall ruleset list
B. vsipioct1 getrules -filter <filter-name>
C. esxcli network firewall rules
D. vsipioct1 getrules -f <filter-name>

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which three are required by URL Analysis? (Choose three.)

A. NSX Enterprise or higher license key
B. Tier-1 gateway
C. Tier-0 gateway
D. OFW rule allowing traffic OUT to Internet
E. Medium-sized edge node (or higher), or a physical form factor edge
F. Layer 7 DNS firewall rule on NSX Edge cluster

Answer: B, D, F

QUESTION 3
Which two are requirements for URL Analysis? (Choose two.)

A. The ESXi hosts require access to the Internet to download category and reputation definitions.
B. A layer 7 gateway firewall rule must be configured on the tier-0 gateway uplink to capture DNS traffic.
C. A layer 7 gateway firewall rule must be configured on the tier-1 gateway uplink to capture DNS traffic,
D. The NSX Edge nodes require access to the Internet to download category and reputation definitions.
E. The NSX Manager requires access to the Internet to download category and reputation definitions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
What is the VMware recommended number of NSX Manager Nodes to additionally deploy to form an NSX-T Manager Cluster?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In a brownfield environment with NSX-T Data Center deployed and configured, a customer is interested in Endpoint Protection integrations. What recommendation should be provided to the
customer when it comes to their existing virtual machines?

A. Virtual machine must be protected by vSphere HA.
B. Virtual machine hardware should be version 10 or higher.
C. A minimum installation of VMware tools is required.
D. A custom install of VMware tools is required to select the drivers.

Answer: D

Juniper

JN0-251 Juniper Mist AI, Associate Exam

January 30, 2023 Lindsay

Exam Code : JN0-251
Prerequisite Certification : None
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions

Exam Details : Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

The Mist AI track enables you to demonstrate a thorough understanding of WLAN technology in general and the Mist AI features and functionality. JNCIA-MistAI, the associate-level certification in this track, is designed for Wireless LAN networking professionals with introductory knowledge of wireless networking using the Mist AI. The written exam for the certification verifies your basic understanding of WLAN and Mist AI technology, features, and functionality.

This track contains two certifications:
JNCIA-MistAI: Mist AI, Associate. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIS-MistAI: Mist AI, Specialist. For details, see JNCIS-MistAI.

Exam Preparation : We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

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Recommended Training : Introduction to Juniper Mist AI (IJMA)

Exam Resources: Industry/product knowledge : Juniper TechLibrary
Additional Preparation : Juniper Learning Portal

Exam Objectives: Here is a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIA-MistAI certification exam.

Exam Objective / Description
Juniper Mist Cloud Fundamentals

Identify fundamental concepts about the Juniper Mist cloud-native architecture
AI concepts
Machine learning
Benefits of using cloud-based management
Juniper Mist capabilities and use cases

Juniper Mist Configuration Basics

Identify the concepts or functionality of Mist AI accounts
Creation and management of user accounts
Capabilities of different account roles
Juniper Mist cloud user/account authentication methods

Identify the concepts or functionality of Mist AI initial configurations
Factory default configurations and network connection prerequisites
Claiming and onboarding devices
Creation and management of Juniper Mist organizations and sites
Templates use
Labels and policies

Identify the concepts or functionality of Mist AI advanced configurations
Subscriptions (Licensing)
Certificates (Radsec, Mist)
Autoprovisioning

Juniper Mist Network Operations and Management

Identify concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist wireless network management and operations features
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist Wi-Fi Assurance
Identify concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist wired network management and operations features
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist Wired Assurance
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist WAN Assurance

Juniper Mist Monitoring and Analytics

Identify the concepts or components of Mist AI monitoring and analytics
Service-level expectations (SLEs)
Packet captures
Juniper Mist insights
Alerts
Audit logs

Marvis AI

Identify the concepts or functionality of AI in Marvis Virtual Network Assistant
Marvis actions (organization level, site level)
Marvis queries

Juniper Location Services, driven by Mist AI

Identify the concepts or components of location-based services (LBS)
Juniper Mist vBLE concepts

Juniper Mist Cloud Operations

Identify the concepts or components of Juniper Mist APIs
RESTful
Websocket
Webhook

Identify the options of the Juniper Mist help menu
Support tickets
Update information
Documentation

QUESTION 1
What is an advantage of using the Juniper Mist cloud compared to traditional on-premises WLAN controllers?

A. The ability to configure Mist cloud using any connected AP.
B. More robust AP encryption occurs.
C. Machine learning occurs through microservices.
D. Mist updates occur daily.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are inviting a new administrator into a Mist organization.
In this scenario, which two roles are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Helpdesk
B. Standard
C. Network Admin
D. System Admin

Answer: C, D

QUESTION 3
What are two valid Mist subscription status states in the Mist GUI? (Choose two.)

A. Expired
B. Perpetual
C. Staged
D. Exceeded

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 4
Which Mist AI feature would help you to troubleshoot a clientâ€™s failed authentication?

A. client dashboard
B. live view
C. dynamic packet capture
D. WLAN profile

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the minimum administrator role needed to invite a user to be an administrator of an organization?

A. network admin
B. installer
C. helpdesk
D. super user

Answer: D

HPE6-A75 Aruba Certified Edge Professional Exam Dumps

January 27, 2023 Lindsay

Exam ID : HPE6-A75
Exam type : Proctored
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Delivery languages : English

Exam Details
Ideal candidate The ideal candidate is a professional in Design, Mobility, Switching, ClearPass and Security.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Here are types of questions to expect:
Multiple choice (multiple responses) Multiple choice (single response)
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

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Candidates must select and pass three sections. Each section must be passed independently to pass the exam. Twenty items will deliver for each chosen section. You will need to score 70% in each of the selected sections in order to pass the entire exam. The passing score may differ from the new candidate exam. The questions are specifically selected to support a 70% passing score.
Percentage of Exam

Design 10%
Gather and analyze data, and document customer requirements for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network.

Given an outline of a customer’s needs, determine the information required to create a solution.

18% Evaluate the requirements for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network, and select the wired and wireless networking technologies for the design.
Given a scenario, evaluate the customer requirements to identify gaps per a gap analysis, and select components based on the analysis results.
Given a scenario, translate the business needs of the environment into technical customer requirements.

31% Plan and design an Aruba solution per the customer requirements for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network.
Given a scenario, select the appropriate products based on the customer technical requirements.
Given the customer requirements, design the high-level architecture.
Given a customer scenario, explain how a specific technology or solution would meet the customer requirements.

33% Produce a detailed design specification document for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network.
Given a customer scenario, choose the appropriate components that should be included on the BOM.
Given the customer requirements, determine the component details and document the high-level design.
Given a customer scenario, determine and document a detailed network management design.
Given a customer scenario, design and document a detailed network security solution.
Given a customer scenario, design and document the logical and physical network solutions.
Given the customer scenario and service level agreements, document the licensing and maintenance requirements.

8% Recommend the solution to the customer.
Given the customer’s requirements, explain and justify the recommended solution.

33% Mobility
20% Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and explain their uses.
Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel, split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3 clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.

20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions.
• Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.

38% Implement advanced services and security.
• Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.

10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions.
• Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.

12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions.
• Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.

Switching

15% Plan the wired network solution.
Given a scenario with a design and/or customer requirements, determine an appropriate implementation plan.

43% Install and configure the wired network solution.
Install and Configure NetEdit
Given an implementation plan, explain how to physically configure the switches.
Given the implementation plan, explain how to configure Layer 2 technologies.
Given an implementation plan, explain how to configure and validate Layer 3 interfaces, services, routing protocols and overlays.
Explain multicast features and configuration concepts.
Explain Aruba Switch security features and configuration concepts.
Explain QoS Aruba Switch features and configuration concepts.
Explain Aruba solutions integration and configuration concepts.

22% Troubleshoot the wired network solution.
Given a scenario, identify a network failure (IP mismatch, VLAN mismatch, hardware configuration or failure, port configuration).
Given an action plan to remediate an issue, determine the implications to the network state.
Given a scenario, determine the cause of the performance problem (QoS issue, Configuration issue HW and Software, end node).

20% Manage, maintain, optimize, and monitor the wired network solution.
Given a scenario, determine a strategy to implement configuration management (maintenance, auditing, backup, archiving).
Analyze data that represents the operational state of a network and determine the appropriate action.

ClearPass
5% Intro to ClearPass
25% ClearPass for AAA
6% External Authentication
23% Guest
17% Onboard
6% Endpoint Analysis
8% Posture
5% Operations and Admin Users
5% Clustering and Redundancy

76% Protect and Defend
Define security terminology
Describe PKI dependencies
Mitigate threats by using CPDI to identify traffic flows and apply tags and CPPM to take actions based on tags
Explain methods and benefits of profiling
Explain how Aruba solutions apply to different security vectors
Explain Zero Trust Security in relation to Aruba solutions
Explain WIPS and WIDS, as well as describe the Aruba 9×00 Series
Describe log types and levels and use the CPPM ingress event engine to integrate with 3rd party logging solutions
Explain dynamic segmentation, including its benefits and use cases
Explain VPN deployment types and IPsec concepts such as protocols, algorithms, certificate-based authentication with IKE, and reauth intervals
Device hardening
Set up secure authentication and authorization of network infrastructure managers
Secure L2 and L3 protocols
Secure WLAN
Deploy AAA for WLANs with ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM)”
Define and apply advanced firewall policies (appRF, PEF, WIPS, WebCC, UTM)
Set up integration between the Aruba infrastructure and CPPM, allowing CPPM to take action in response to events
Configure rogue AP detection and mitigation
Secure wired AOS-CX
Deploy AAA for wired devices with CPPM
Configure 802.1x Authentication for AP
Deploy dynamic segmentation
Deploy certificate-based authentication for users and devices
Set up integration between the Aruba infrastructure and CPPM, allowing CPPM to take action in response to events
Secure the WAN
Understand that Aruba SD-Branch automates VPN deployment for the WAN
Design and deploy remote VPN with VIA
Endpoint classification
Deploy and apply endpoint classification to the device
Define endpoint classification methodology using active and passive methods
Define, deploy, and integrate ClearPass and CPDI

23% Analyze
Threat detection
Investigate Central alerts
Interpret packet captures
Recommend action based on the analysis of the Central alerts
Evaluate endpoint posture
Troubleshooting
Deploy and analyze Network Analytic Engine (NAE) scripts for monitoring and correlation
Perform packet capture on Aruba infrastructure locally and using Central
Endpoint classification
Analyze endpoint classification data to identify risk
Analyze endpoint classification data on CPDI

1% Investigate
Forensics
Explain CPDI capabilities for showing network conversations on supported Aruba devices

QUESTION 1
A company has AOS-Switches deployed at sites with inexperienced IT staff. The main office network administrators want to track if configurations change on branch switches.
What should be set up for this purpose?

A. an SNMP trap
B. an RMON alarm
C. an auto-config server
D. an lP SLA profile

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A network administrator configures V5F settings on two Aruba 2930F switches.
The switches form two separate VSF fabrics. What should the administrator check?

A. that the domain ID matches on both switches
B. that each switch is assigned a unique VSF priority
C. that the switch with the lower priority has the lower member ID
D. that LLDP MAD is configured on both members

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?

A. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.
B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
C. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
D. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
OSPF is configured on an AOS-Switch, and the network administrator sets the router ID to 10.0.0.1.
The administrator wants to be able to reach the switch at this ID from any location throughout the
OSPF system. The administrator also needs the router ID to De stable and available,
even if some links on the switch fail.

What should the administrator do?

A. Make sure that 10.0.0.1 is the IP address on the VLAN with the lowest ID.
B. Configure 10.0.0.1 on a loopback interface, and enable OSPF on that interface.
C. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a manual OSPF neighbor on each switch in the OSPF system.
D. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a secondary IP address on the switch 00BM poet.

Answer: B

IBM

C1000-147 IBM Certified Solution Architect – Cloud Pak for Integration v2021.4 Exam Dumps PDF

January 25, 2023 Lindsay

Group: IBM Cloud – Integration and Development
Certification status: Live
Certification code: C9003800
Replaces Certification code: C0006800
Being Replaced By: N/A
Required exam: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration v2021.4 Solution Architect
Exam status: Live

Certification overview, objectives, exam preparation and registration

Certification Overview
An IBM Certified Solution Architect on IBM Cloud Pak for Integration v.2021.4 is a person who can design, plan, and create an architecture with IBM Cloud Pak for Integration capabilities. This architect can design a solution that meets the multi-style modern agile integration requirements across a hybrid cloud that help enterprises through their digital transformation journey. This architect can reference IBM’s integration Architecture Point-of-view. They can do this with limited assistance from support, documentation, or relevant subject matter experts.

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Requirements
Exam C1000-147: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration v2021.4 Solution Architect

Exam Objectives
During exam development, the Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) define all of the tasks, knowledge and experience that an individual would need in order to successfully fulfill their role with the product or solution. These are represented by the objectives below and the questions on the exam are based upon these objective.
Number of questions: 62
Number of questions to pass: 40
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Live

Describe the benefits and capabilities of IBM Cloud Paks
Understand the benefits and capabilities of IBM Cloud Pak for Integration
Articulate Cloud Pak for Integration scenarios
Understand entitlements and subscriptions

Understand supported platforms
Identify supported public Cloud environments for IBM Cloud Pak for Integration on Red Hat OpenShift
Understand HA, DR, and Backup for Red Hat OpenShift

Understand the system requirements for an IBM Cloud Pak for Integration Installation
Plan for an installation of IBM Cloud Pak for Integration
Design a highly available solution for IBM Cloud Pak for Integration and the capabilities
Scale out the IBM Cloud Pak for Integration capabilities
Design disaster recovery solution for each capability

Differentiate between traditional and agile integration architecture
Design solutions based on modern integration reference architecture
Decide on constituent architectures based on the nature of integration
Design secure Cloud Native solutions

Demonstrate knowledge of Automation assets
Demonstrate knowledge of Application Integration capabilities
Demonstrate knowledge of creating, securing, and managing APIs
Demonstrate knowledge of Event driven interactions
Demonstrate knowledge of Messaging capabilities
Demonstrate knowledge of high-speed data transfer
Demonstrate knowledge of secure gateways

Demonstrate general understanding of OpenShift storage architecture
Identify storage requirements for each Cloud Pak for Integration capability
Demonstrate knowledge of public Cloud storage solutions

Understand the IBM Cloud Pak foundational services and Automation foundation
Understand Identity and Access Control Management provided by Foundational Services
Describe the available monitoring capabilities provided by Foundational Services

Understand the platform logging capabilities for use with IBM Cloud Pak for Integration
Understand the platform monitoring capabilities for use with IBM Cloud Pak for Integration
Demonstrate knowledge of Operations Dashboard

Understand the components in the CI/CD toolchain and modern DevOps
Describe the process for deploying Cloud Pak for Integration capabilities using a CI/CD toolchain
Understanding use of supported CLI tools and managing IBM Cloud Pak for Integration cluster

Exam Resources
All IBM certification tests presume a certain amount of “on-the-job” experience which is not present in any classroom or Web presentation. The recommended courses and links will help you gain the skill and product knowledge represented in the test objectives. They do not teach the answers to the test questions and are not intended to do so. This information may not cover all subject areas in the certification test or may contain more recent information than is present in the certification test. Taking these or any classes will not guarantee that you will achieve certification.

QUESTION 1
What does Agile Integration, as defined by IBM, relate to?

A. Unlocking enterprise data securely using integration powered APIs
B. Implementing event driven architectures for real time integration
C. Adopting microservices based development for better agility and scalability
D. Rethinking the approach to integration that is based on people, architecture, and technology

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which is an IBM Cloud Pak solution advantage?

A. Full software stack support, ongoing security, compliance, and version compatibility
B. Continuous Delivery and Continuous Integration (CD/CI) tools
C. Dedicated support team for application migration to IBM Cloud
D. OpenStack integration out of the box

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the key benefit of moving away from a centralized ESB pattern to Agile Integration?

A. Faster roll out of integrations, enhanced scalability, and resilience
B. Rapid creation of integrations using no-code approach
C. API-led integration enabling agility and innovation
D. Multi-cloud deployment of integration artifacts

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Command Line interface tool provides an analyze method which validates resources configuration and print validation messages?

A. calicoctl
B. oc
C. cloudctl
D. istioctl

Answer: A

HPE2-N68 Using HPE Containers Exam Dumps Q&A Free Downloads

January 21, 2023 Lindsay

Exam ID : HPE2-N68
Exam type : Web based
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length : 40 questions
Passing score : 70%
Delivery languages : English, Japanese, Korean
Supporting resources : Using HPE Containers, Rev. 21.41
Additional study materials : Using HPE Containers Study Guide

Ideal candidateTypical candidates for this certification are HPE customers, partners, and employees who configure, implement, support, and use HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise solutions.
The minimally qualified candidate will have basic industry standard knowledge and skills related to containers. They will have some familiarity with the HPE product portfolio.

Exam contents
This exam has 40 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Read the entire question and consider all options before you answer. If the question includes an exhibit, study the exhibit and read the question again. Select the answer that fully responds to the question. If the question asks for more than one answer, select all correct answers. There is no partial credit.

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Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.

This exam validates that you can describe, recommend, demonstrate, and configure HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise
solutions.

15% Explain foundational concepts necessary for understanding how the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform works
1.1 Explain container and container orchestration technologies
1.2 Explain big data technologies
1.3 Explain basic artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) concepts

33% Explain the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise model, features, and functions
2.1 Explain the benefits of the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform
2.2 Identify use cases and deployment options for the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform
2.3 Describe the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform architecture and key features

21% Perform installation and setup processes
3.1 Plan for a successful installation
3.2 Perform the installation
3.3 Perform key setup tasks
3.4 Set up high availability

31% Configure various environments and demonstrate key capabilities
4.1 Create Kubernetes clusters and demonstrate deploying applications on them
4.2 Create EPIC clusters and demonstrate creating projects and running jobs on them
4.3 Monitoring and Alerting

QUESTION 1
What is one way that HPE Ezmeral ML Ops can help companies overcome their AI/ML challenges?

A. It enforces isolation between notebook environments and training environments.
B. It provides acceleration for machine learning algorithms to eliminate the need for CPUs.
C. It provides notebook and training environments with many AI/ML libraries and frameworks.
D. It provides a custom HPE Ezmeral library for deep learning and neural network algorithms.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company wants to use Ezmeral Data Fabric to provide storage to Kubernetes Tenants on HPE
Ezmeral Container Platform. What deployment option should you choose?

A. Enable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Create hybrid Kubernetes clusters that use Data Fabric and non-Data Fabric nodes.
B. Enable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Also create a dedicated Data Fabric Kubernetes cluster.
C. Disable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Create a dedicated Data Fabric Kubernetes cluster.
D. Disable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Create hybrid Kubernetes clusters that use Data Fabric and non-Data Fabric nodes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What Is a correct consideration for creating a Kubernetes Tenant on Ezmeral Container Platform?

A. When you select that the Tenant owns the Kubernetes namespace, Tenant Admins are given elevated access to the Kubernetes cluster.
B. When you set a quota for a resource, containers running on the Tenant are not allowed to request or use resources beyond that level.
C. You must manually create a namespace for the Tenant on the Kubernetes cluster before you create the Tenant.
D. When you set a quota for a resource, containers running on the Tenant are guaranteed up to that level.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is one requirement tor setting up Platform High Availability (HA)?

A. Gateway HA must be configured before you enable Platform HA.
B. The controller and the shadow controller must be on different subnets.
C. The controller and the gateway must be on the same subnet.
D. Any virtual clusters that have been created on EPIC workers must be deleted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
For which use case should you enable Istlo on a Kubernetes cluster?

A. Connecting a KubeDirector cluster to external Kubernetes components such as secrets and config maps
B. Converting stateful applications such as Spark into a form that can run on Kubernetes
C. Training ML algorithms to perform complex tasks such as clustering andimage recognition
D. Creating more sophisticated routing rules for services running on the cluster

Answer: B

HPE2-W07 HP Selling Aruba Products and Solutions Exam

January 20, 2023 Lindsay

Exam ID : HPE2-W07
Exam type : Web based
Exam duration : 1 hour 15 minutes
Exam length : 50 questions
Passing score : 70%
Delivery languages : Simplified Chinese, Korean, Japanese, German, Castilian Spanish, Brazilian Portuguese, English
Supporting resources : Selling Aruba Products and Solutions, Rev. 20.41 : Ideal candidateHPE Aruba channel partner sales professionals

Exam contents
This exam has 50 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

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Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

7% Industry and Technology
Describe the transformation that is occurring at the network edge
Explain why customers need flexibility in the way they consume, manage, and fund IT services
Explain how the transformation at the edge provides opportunities for customers to improve their business outcomes

13% Aruba Vision and Strategy

Explain how Aruba’s edge-to-cloud strategy helps customers of all sizes create and deliver unique experiences, innovate products and services, and drive efficient operations
Describe how Aruba ESP’s 4 attributes of AIOps, Zero Trust Security, Unified Infrastructure and As-a-Service help enterprise and mid-sized organizations drive new business outcomes

10% Financial and Consumption Flexibility
Demonstrate to your customers that you understand why organizations are moving toward as-a-Service consumption models
Describe Aruba ESP as-a-Service solutions and the benefits these services offer Aruba customers and partners
Engage your customers with a value-oriented approach to have more effective sales conversations

10% Aruba Cloud Solutions
Explain the benefits Aruba Cloud Strategy offers mid-market and enterprise customers
Explain the competitive advantages the Aruba Cloud Strategy gives you as an Aruba Partner
Explain how Aruba Central features and solutions enable the Aruba Cloud Strategy

10% Aruba AIOps
Describe how Aruba AIOps differentiates Aruba in the marketplace
Explain how Aruba AIOps helps organizations redefine outcomes so they can deliver unique user experiences and innovative products and services
Explain key use cases for Aruba AIOps and position the appropriate solutions for a particular use case

10% Aruba Zero Trust Security
Describe how Aruba Zero Trust Security differentiates Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba Zero Trust Security protects organizations from the edge to the cloud, identifying every user and device connected to the network, and implementing granular controls
Explain key use cases for Aruba Zero Trust Security and position the appropriate solutions for a particular use case

13% Aruba Unified Infrastructure—Campus Access
Describe how Aruba campus solutions differentiate Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba’s solutions are built on a single architecture that is designed to deliver a consistent experience across wired and wireless
Explain key use cases for Aruba Unified Infrastructure and position the appropriate campus solutions for a particular use case

10% Aruba Unified Infrastructure—Data Center
Describe how Aruba Data Center solutions differentiate Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba Data Center solutions automate management, monitoring, and optimization
Explain key use cases for Aruba Unified Infrastructure in the data center and position solutions for particular use cases
Describe the high-level competitive landscape and explain how Aruba partners can win with Aruba Data Center solutions

10% Aruba Unified Infrastructure—SD-Branch
Describe how Aruba SD-Branch solutions differentiate Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba Unified Infrastructure simplifies management and improves connectivity for distributed networks
Explain key use cases for Aruba Unified Infrastructure and position Aruba SD-Branch solutions for a particular use case
Describe the high-level competitive landscape and explain how Aruba Partners can win with Aruba SD-Branch solutions

7% Aruba Small Business Solutions
Describe the unique needs of customers in the small business market
Describe Aruba’s Instant On portfolio and how it meets the unique needs of small businesses
Position the appropriate Aruba solutions for a particular small business use case
Describe the high-level competitive landscape and explain how you can win with the Aruba Small Business portfolio

QUESTION 1
A customer asks what you mean when you say that Aruba Zero Trust Security provides “contextbased” access policies. What should you explain?

A. The solution can give different access rights to the same user based on additional factors, such as device type, time, and location.
B. The wizard for creating access policies shows different views based on whether a business user or technical user is creating the policy.
C. The access policies are customized through a CLl, which creates a different CU “context” per custom access control policy.
D. The solution’s access control capabilities depend on the ClearPass Policy Manager licensing level that the customer chooses.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is one business benefit that Aruba Al insights helps customers to achieve?

A. Providing location services to improve the user experience
B. Reducing help desk tickets and time spent on troubleshooting issues that can hamper a business
C. Automatically profiling loT devices for better inventory
D. Enabling BYOD with a self-service portal for device provisioning

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Where do analysts predict the majority of data will be generated by 2022?

A. The public cloud
B. On-prem data centers
C. Co-located data centers
D. The edge

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two key opportunities does Aruba recommend that you pursue to sell Aruba Unified Infrastructure in the campus?

A. 25GDE campus edge upgrades and 100GbE core upgrades
B. WI-FI 6 upgrades and transitions to Aruba ESP (Edge Services Platform)
C. Security overhauls and software-defined networking (SON) deployments
D. Firewall integrations and OWE deployments

Answer: A

Tech

ITIL-4-Transition PeopleCert ITIL 4 Managing Professional Transition Exam

January 19, 2023 Lindsay

ITIL® 4 Managing Professional Transition
Designed for candidates who have already invested in ITIL v3, the ITIL 4 Managing Professional Transition module provides a straight-forward transition path across to ITIL 4.

The Transition module enables candidates to gain the up-to-date skills and knowledge needed to navigate the digital service economy, whilst recognising their previous achievements. It consists of a mandatory 5-day training and exam at the end of the course. Successful candidates are awarded the ITIL 4 Managing Professional designation.

The Transition module covers the key concepts introduced in ITIL 4 Foundation, as well as important elements of the below modules from ITIL 4 Managing Professional:
ITIL 4 Specialist Create, Deliver and Support
ITIL 4 Specialist Drive Stakeholder Value
ITIL 4 Specialist High Velocity IT
ITIL 4 Strategist Direct Plan and Improve.

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To qualify for the transition module, candidates need to hold ITIL v3 Expert or a minimum of 17 credits from ITIL v3 qualifications.
Important Notice: Accredited training for the ITIL Managing Professional modules is mandatory to enable full understanding of the core material. Accredited training can only be purchased as part of a package that includes the exam. All modules have ITIL 4 Foundation as a pre-requisite.
NOTE: This module in English has been discontinued on 30 September 2022, and this module in German will be discontinued on 31 March 2023. After that date, this module will only be available in Japanese. Candidates who want to start their ITIL 4 journey should first ITIL 4 Foundation.

Find out more about the PeopleCert examination process
Take your exam of your comfort of exam or office. Learn more about PeopleCert Online Proctoring, the secure and stress-free way to sit your exam. Get the Step-by-Step Guidelines on how to take your online exam with PeopleCert Online Proctoring here.

What else is included in my exam purchase:
1 month free MyAxelos subscription: MyAxelos is PeopleCert’s exclusive membership programme that helps you prepare for your exam and continuously stay up to date with the ITIL and ProPath frameworks.

Inside MyAxelos, you will find:
Industry news and best practices, articles and white papers by subject-matter experts
Case studies focusing on industry leaders and best practices
Exam preparation materials, exam guidance videos, and certified expert content
Digital badges to share your achievement with the world
Tools that help you keep your certificate valid

Above all MyAxelos is a thriving and supportive community of industry professionals ready to provide networking opportunities and insightful career development advice. Learn more here.

PREREQUISITES
BOOKING AN EXAM WHERE PREREQUISITES APPLY
Please ensure that before you book an exam where a prerequisite is required, you hold verified proof of completion of that prerequisite (i.e. certificate, or letter from AXELOS or former Examination Institute confirming you hold a current certification). Your examination results will be withheld until the correct prerequisite is provided to PeopleCert. If you are unable to provide the required prerequisite, then you will need to successfully complete the prerequisite before the higher-level exam result is released.

ITIL® Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
Training through an Accredited Training Organisation
A minimum of 15 credits
Training through an Accredited Training Organisation
ITIL® Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
ITIL® Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
Training through an Accredited Training Organisation

QUESTION 1
An organization’s lead times and the flow of tasks across value streams are being impacted because tasks often sit waiting in queues.
Which technique can be used to overcome this challenge?

A. Clarifying definition of done’
B. Introducing a push system
C. Increasing batch sizes
D. Limiting work-in-progress

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which value chain activity ensures that products deliver stakeholder expectations for quality?

A. Design and transition
B. Engage
C. Obtain/build
D. Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An organization is undergoing a significant cultural change as a result of introducing Agile and DevOps practices.
How can managers use Toyota Kata to help employees adjust to these different ways of working?

A. By encouraging the practicing of routines to unlearn old habits and learn new ones
B. By creating detailed plans that predetermine how to approach large changes
C. By making hard decisions for the teams and providing step-by-step guidance
D. By encouraging widespread changes that involve the teams starting from scratch

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement about user communities is CORRECT?

A. User communities are created by service providers to investigate the cause of problems
B. Communities set up by users may be recognized and supported by service providers
C. Informal user communities should be disbanded and merged into official groups
D. Every user community should have at least one super-user

Answer: B

SAP

P_SECAUTH_21 SAP Certified Technology Professional – System Security Architect Exam

January 17, 2023 Lindsay

SAP Certified Technology Professional – System Security Architect
Sub-solution: Administration
Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Professional
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 66%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Technology Professional – System Security Architect” certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the depth of knowledge required in the areas of SAP System Security and Authorization. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Technology Consultant profile and is able to apply these skills practically and provide guidance in SAP project implementations in the role of a SAP Security Architect. Furthermore, the holder of this certification is capable to review and evaluate the security level of complex on-premise, cloud and hybrid system architectures.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test and there will be no access to online documentation or to any SAP system.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

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Authorization Concept for SAP S/4HANA > 12%
Describe and implement the authorization concept for SAP S/4HANA
ADM945
—– OR —–
TSEC10

Authorization, Security and Scenarios in SAP HANA > 12%
Explain authorization, security and scenarios in SAP HANA
HA940 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS05)

SAP Netweaver Application Server and Infrastructure Security > 12%
Describe and implement security in a SAP NetWeaver Application Server and related infrastructure components
ADM900
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)
—– OR —–
TSEC10
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)

Security Monitoring and Security Auditing > 12%
Monitor security and troubleshoot security issues using Solution Manager, security audits, traces and logs.
ADM900
ADM950 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)
—– OR —–
TSEC10
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)

Authorization Concept for SAP Business Suite 8% – 12%
Describe and implement the authorization concept for SAP Business Suite
ADM940 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
—– OR —–
TSEC10

Secure an SAP System 8% – 12%
Explain how to secure an SAP system and conduct security checks
ADM900
ADM950 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)
—– OR —–
TSEC10
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)

SAP Cloud Platform Security 8% – 12%
Explain security and scenarios in SAP Cloud platform
SECCL1 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Access Governance and Compliance in SAP < 8%
Describe the security goals, data privacy goverance, access goverance solutions and tools in SAP.
ADM900
ADM910 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
—– OR —–
TSEC10
User Administration and Identity Lifecycle Management in SAP < 8%
Manage users in SAP systems
ADM900
ADM940 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
ADM910 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
—– OR —–
TSEC10
General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

QUESTION 1
User1 grants role 1 to user2. Who can revoke role 1 role from user2?

A. The system OBA user
B. The owner of role 1
C. Only User1
D. Any user with the ‘ROLE ADMIN’ database role

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Why should you create multiple dispatchers in SAP Identity Management? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. To accommodate scalability
B. To support fail-over scenarios
C. To handle password provisioning
D. To handle special network access requirements

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 3
What is required when you configure the PFCG role for an end-user on the front-end server?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The catalog assignment for the start authorization
B. The S_RFC authorization object for the OData access
C. The Fiori Launchpad designer assignment
D. The group assignment to display it in the Fiori Launchpad

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 4
In your system, you have a program which calls transaction
A. Users with access to this program can still execute transaction A without explicit authorizations
given to this transaction. How do you prevent the access of users to the transaction A from within the program?

A. Make sure you do NOT assign transact on A to the authorization object S_TCODE in the role that you assign to the unauthorized users.
B. Maintain SE93 with authorization objects for transact on A.
C. Maintain the check indicator in table TCDCOUPLES
D. Ensure that transact on A is NOT assigned into the same program authorization group

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The SSO authentication using X.509 client certificates is configured. Users complain that they can’t
log in to the back-end system. The trace file shows the following error message: “HTTP request
[2] Reject untrusted forwarded certificate”. What is missing in the configuration? Note: There are
2 correct answers to this question.

A. On the back-end, the profile parameter icm/HTTPS/verify client must NOT be set to 0
B. On the web-dispatcher, the SAPSSLS.pse must be signed by a trusted certification authority
C. On the web-dispatcher, the profile parameter icm/HTTPS/verify_client must be set to 0
D. The web dispatcher’s SAPSSLC.PSE certificate must be added to the trusted reverse proxies list in icm/trusted_reverse_proxy_<xx>

Answer: A, B

SAP

C_MDG_1909 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP Master Data Governance Exam

January 16, 2023 Lindsay

SAP Certified Application Associate – Master Data Governance
Sub-solution: Master Data Governance
Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 59%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: German, English

Description
The SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP Master Data Governance certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the fundamental and core knowledge required of the application consultant profile. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification.

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Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

MDG Overview and Architecture > 12%
Provide an overview of the SAP Master Data Governance solution and it’s technical components. Describe the SAP Master Data Governance architecture, execute data modeling and change request capabilities.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Consolidation and Mass Processing > 12%
Implement SAP Master Data Governance consolidation by defining the usage of match groups, scoring and best records calculations, and analytics. Define mass processing scope and processing.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Domain Specific Capabilities > 12%
Use Financial domain-specifica capabilities to trigger and monitor replication of financial master data. Describe and apply the Business Partner Model. Verify and adjust the Material Data Model, configure SAP Master Data Governance-Material domain specific settings, and define multi-object processing.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

MDG Change Request process implementation 8% – 12%
Define the Change Request process including workflow setup.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Data Quality & Analytics 8% – 12%
Implement data validation through configuration of search, activation of side panel, and analytics.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Data replication and key mapping 8% – 12%
Configure, execute, and monitor data replication.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Custom Objects and Solution Extensions 8% – 12%
Extend and define your own Data Models, and use Solution Extensions by Utopia.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

MDG Project Execution < 8%
Activate SAP Master Data Governance and define customizing exchange for typical MDG landscapes.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Data Load and Import < 8%
Define data download, upload, and importing.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
What are the advantages of HANA-Based Search in MDG?

A. The user can choose their own search provider.
B. Fuzzy search is supported.
C. Duplication detection is based on SAP HANA.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION 2
What are the configuration options for search providers?

A. ES: Provider for Enterprise Search
B. AD: Provider for address search based on BAS-DES
C. DB: Provider for database search
D. The Fuzzy Search Using Addresses link is not available by default in the work center in SAP Portal or in SAP NetWeaver Business Client.
E. Free Text: Provider supports free-text search and MDG displays a corresponding field in the UI
F. Fuzzy: Provider supports error-tolerant search and MDG display

Answer: A, B, C, E, F

QUESTION 3
As the figure, Duplicate Check “ Configuration, shows, in this Customizing activity,
you configure the duplicate check for an entity type.
On the basis of a data model (for example BP or MM) you define which search mode the
system must use and which thresholds (in percentages) are to apply, which of the meets of criteria?

A. Records with a matching score lower than the low threshold are not regarded as duplicates.
B. Records with a matching score between the defined low and high thresholds are regarded as potential duplicates.
C. Records with a matching score higher than the high threshold are not allowed by the system, because they are regarded as duplicates.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION 4
What are the major enhancements in generic search?

A. The data model and entity type can be selected directly (this can also be preset by customizing or configuration).
B. For edition-based data, validity time can be used as search criteria, and is displayed in the result list.
C. The result list is more versatile. For example, you can filter by value, or personalize it.
D. FPM-based customizing and configuration are available.
E. Their visibility depends on customizing and selected entity type.

Answer: A, B, C, D

QUESTION 5
In detail in the function: Based on the generated BRF + rules, you use derivatives in MDG applications
to prefix prices based on the current state of Master Data Objects and / or change request properties.
area This prediction is made possible by what applications:

A. BRF + derivative works
B. To deal with business deviation, complex deviation and cross-unit derivatives
C. Reduction of manual correction work due to â€œFirst Time Rightâ€ data entry
D. More automation in reconciliation of charts of accounts across multiple ledgers

Answer: A, B

Cisco

500-445 Cisco Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email Exam

January 13, 2023 Lindsay

500-445 CCECE
Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email v1.0 (500-445)

Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Associated certification Advanced Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of deploying and administering Cisco Enterprise Chat and Email (ECE).

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email (CCECE)

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email (CCECE)
Exam Description: Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email v1.0 (CCECE 500-445) exam is associated with the Advanced Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization requirements for Deployment Engineers. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of deploying and administering Cisco Enterprise Chat and Email (ECE). The course Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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40% 1.0 ECE Deployment
1.1 Describe Enterprise Chat and Email Components and Deployment Model
1.2 Explain ECE Installation process
1.3 Define ECE Best Practices
1.4 Prepare PCCE for ECE and Integration

20% 2.0 ECE Administration and Configuration
2.1 Explain ECE Administration Tasks
2.2 Configure ECE
2.3 Explain ECE Queues

10% 3.0 ECE Email Administration
3.1 Explain ECE Email Administration
3.2 Describe Workflows
3.3 Explain CCE Scripting for Email and Storage Management

10% 4.0 ECE Chat Administration
4.1 Configure ECE for Chat
4.2 Describe Chat Entry Points
4.3 Explain Chat Operation and Chat Customization

20% 5.0 ECE Features and Troubleshooting
5.1 Describe ECE Report types
5.2 Explain Agent Single Sign-on for ECE
5.3 Troubleshoot ECE

QUESTION 1
How is Chat Watchdog Interval used?

A. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if an agent could not accept it
B. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if it could not get any response from UCCE
C. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if it could not be routed to UCCE
D. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if it could not be assigned to an agent

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What are two specifications for reporting templates? (Choose two.)

A. The availability of templates is controlled by licenses.
B. A user can only create ten reports per template.
C. Only one report can be created per template.
D. Any number of reports can be created from a template.
E. Templates can be deleted.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION 3
What is the limit of concurrent agents per application server?

A. 400
B. 600
C. 1200
D. 1800

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In which two ways are chats transferred? (Choose two.)

A. Only open chat activities in which the customer has not left the chat session can be transferred.
B. Chats can be transferred to departments directly.
C. Agents can transfer the chat activities based on the Maximum Task limit setting.
D. Agents have unlimited transfers of chat activity.
E. Only one chat activity can be transferred at a time.

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 5
Which LDAP URL allows configuration in the properties pane under SSO configuration?

A. Ldap://idap_server:3269
B. Ldap://idap_server:80
C. Ldap://idap_server:443
D. Ldap://idap_server:3268

Answer: B

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Monthly Archives: January 2023