1Z0-958 Oracle Risk Management Cloud 2018 Implementation Essentials


Exam Title: Oracle Risk Management Cloud 2018 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-958
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 75
Passing Score: 65%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against 18B. (Previous version of this exam was validated against R13, and originally R12 in 2017)

Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Risk Management Cloud 2018 Certified Implementation Specialist

Take Recommended Training Courses

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Financials Cloud Learning Subscription
Unlimited Cloud Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Gather Requirements for Risk Management Implementation (fka Gather Requirements for Financial Reporting Compliance Implementation)
Describe Risk Management (fka Describe Financial Reporting Compliance)
Implement the Best Practice Process
Plan to gather information for the implementation
Describe Objects
Design Perspectives, both as it relates to security and reporting

Data Migration
Assemble existing risk control matrix data
Explain the steps to import and export data
Populate an import template
Validate an import template prior to import
Troubleshoot errors during an import

Manage Objects
Describe how to create objects
Create Control Test Plans
Relate objects to one another
Create Review and Approve workflows for objects

Manage Issues
Describe an Issue lifecycle
Create and manage issues
Manage the issue resolution process
Explain security for Issues

Advanced Access Controls (fka Application Access Controls Governor)
Explain Entitlements
Create and manage Models and Controls
Configure Conditions
Explain Simulation and Remediation

Initial Financial Reporting Compliance Configuration (fka Initial Configuration)
Configure a pod for Financial Reporting Compliance Implementation
Configure Module Objects
Configure and manage Lookups

Security
Describe Job roles, Duty roles, and Data Security policies
Configure and assign Job and Duty roles
Configure and create Perspective-based Data Security policies
Describe jobs and processes related to security

Manage Assessments
Explain planned and ad-hoc assessments
Initiate ad-hoc assessments
Create assessment templates and plans
Initiate planned assessments
Complete assessments

Initial Advanced Controls Configuration (fka Fusion GRC Set Up and Administration)
Create and manage Perspectives
Configure security
Describe modules
Explain reporting

Advanced Financial Controls (fka Transaction Controls Governor)
Describe Models and Controls
Configure Filters
Configure Functions
Configure Patterns
Explain Result Management

QUESTION 1
Which three steps can be performed by using the Configure Module Objects pages? (Choose three.)

A. Choose display (or hide) configurable options for: results, events, consequences and treatments.
B. Set “object-perspective” association.
C. Create object data import templates.
D. Edit the assessment activity question and guidance text for all assessment types.
E. View assessment response details for all assessment types.

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
Which three are true about implementing a best practice solution for Financial Reporting Compliance?
(Choose three.)

A. Large scope of project requires high effort for maintenance and administration.
B. It promotes rapid implementation and go-live.
C. It promotes go-live with minimal acceptance testing and user training.
D. It provides maximum return on investment with minimum project risk.
E. It promotes successful adoption and minimizes on-going cost of operation.

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
How do you populate the Control Method field with a new custom value, such as a third-party application’?

A. Enter the new value directly in the Control method field.
B. Use Lookup Meaning of the new lookup value.
C. Use Lookup Code of the new lookup value.
D. Use Lookup Type of the new lookup value.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three risk assessment activity types are available in Financial Reporting Compliance? (Choose three.)

A. Design Review
B. Qualitative Analysis
C. Quantitative Analysis
D. Certify
E. Audit
F. Assess Risk

Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 5
You are implementing Advanced Access Controls and there is a requirement for a control to monitor user
access to specific, client-defined access points which give users the ability to both initiate a purchase order
and approve payments on that purchase order.
Which is a valid option to implement the control?

A. From the “Access Entitlements” page create two entitlements containing the respective client-defined
access points. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, based on the entitlements you created.
B. Select Actions > Create Access Control from the “Controls” tab of Advanced Controls.
C. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, and then define an access point filter
for each individual client-defined access point.
D. From the “Access Entitlements” page create two entitlements containing the respective client-defined
access points. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, based on the
entitlements you created. Finally, deploy an access control in the “Controls” tab of Advanced Controls, and
select the access model you created.
E. Create an access entitlement from the “Access Entitlements” page, then select Actions > Create Access
Control from the “Controls” tab of Advanced Controls, and select the entitlement you created.

Correct Answer: D
 

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Exam AZ-500 Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure security engineers who implement security controls, maintain the security posture, manages identity and access, and protects data, applications, and networks. Candidates identify and remediate vulnerabilities by using a variety of security tools, implements threat protection, and responds to security incident escalations. As a Microsoft Azure security engineer, candidates often serve as part of a larger team dedicated to cloud-based management and security and may also secure hybrid environments as part of an end-to-end infrastructure.

Candidates for this exam should have strong skills in scripting and automation, a deep understanding of networking, virtualization, and cloud N-tier architecture, and a strong familiarity with cloud capabilities, Microsoft Azure products and services, and other Microsoft products and services. Less

Fulfills requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer Associate

Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: manage identity and access; implement platform protection; manage security operations; and secure data and applications.


Manage identity and access (20-25%)

Configure Microsoft Azure Active Directory for workloads

create App registration
configure App registration permission scopes
manage App registration permission consent
configure multi-factor authentication settings
manage Microsoft Azure AD directory groups
manage Microsoft Azure AD users
install and configure Microsoft Azure AD Connect
configure authentication methods
implement conditional access policies
configure Microsoft Azure AD identity protection

Configure Microsoft Azure AD Privileged Identity Management

monitor privileged access
configure access reviews
activate Privileged Identity Management

Configure Microsoft Azure tenant security

transfer Microsoft Azure subscriptions between Microsoft Azure AD tenants
manage API access to Microsoft Azure subscriptions and resources

Implement platform protection (35-40%)

Implement network security

configure virtual network connectivity
configure Network Security Groups (NSGs)
create and configure Microsoft Azure firewall
create and configure application security groups
configure remote access management
configure baseline
configure resource firewall

Implement host security

configure endpoint security within the VM
configure VM security
harden VMs in Microsoft Azure
configure system updates for VMs in Microsoft Azure
configure baseline

Configure container security

configure network
configure authentication
configure container isolation
configure AKS security
configure container registry
configure container instance security
implement vulnerability management

Implement Microsoft Azure Resource management security

create Microsoft Azure resource locks
manage resource group security
configure Microsoft Azure policies
configure custom RBAC roles
configure subscription and resource permissions

Manage security operations (15-20%)

Configure security services

configure Microsoft Azure monitor
configure Microsoft Azure log analytics
configure diagnostic logging and log retention
configure vulnerability scanning

Configure security policies

configure centralized policy management by using Microsoft Azure Security Center
configure Just in Time VM access by using Microsoft Azure Security Center

Manage security alerts

create and customize alerts
review and respond to alerts and recommendations
configure a playbook for a security event by using Microsoft Azure Security Center
investigate escalated security incidents
Secure data and applications (30-35%)

Configure security policies to manage data

configure data classification
configure data retention
configure data sovereignty

Configure security for data infrastructure

enable database authentication
enable database auditing
configure Microsoft Azure SQL Database threat detection
configure access control for storage accounts
configure key management for storage accounts
create and manage Shared Access Signatures (SAS)
configure security for HDInsights
configure security for Cosmos DB
configure security for Microsoft Azure Data Lake

Configure encryption for data at rest

implement Microsoft Azure SQL Database Always Encrypted
implement database encryption
implement Storage Service Encryption
implement disk encryption
implement backup encryption

Implement security for application delivery

implement security validations for application development
configure synthetic security transactions

Configure application security

configure SSL/TLS certs
configure Microsoft Azure services to protect web apps
create an application security baseline

Configure and manage Key Vault

manage access to Key Vault
manage permissions to secrets, certificates, and keys
manage certificates
manage secrets
configure key rotation

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QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that User2 can implement PIM.
What should you do first?

A. Assign User2 the Global administrator role.
B. Configure authentication methods for contoso.com.
C. Configure the identity secure score for contoso.com.
D. Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for User2.

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
To start using PIM in your directory, you must first enable PIM.
1. Sign in to the Azure portal as a Global Administrator of your directory.
You must be a Global Administrator with an organizational account (for example, @yourdomain.com), not a
Microsoft account (for example, @outlook.com), to enable PIM for a directory.
Scenario: Technical requirements include: Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) for
contoso.com
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-gettingstarted


QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access
signatures (SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You generate new SASs.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Instead you should create a new stored access policy.
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier.
Changing the signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access
policy. Deleting or renaming the stored access policy immediately affects all of the shared access signatures
associated with it.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy


QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access
signatures (SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You create a new stored access policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier.
Changing the signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access
policy. Deleting or renaming the stored access policy immediately effects all of the shared access signatures
associated with it.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy


QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a hybrid configuration of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You have an Azure HDInsight cluster on a virtual network.
You plan to allow users to authenticate to the cluster by using their on-premises Active Directory credentials.
You need to configure the environment to support the planned authentication.
Solution: You deploy the On-premises data gateway to the on-premises network.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Instead, you connect HDInsight to your on-premises network by using Azure Virtual Networks and a VPN
gateway.
Note: To allow HDInsight and resources in the joined network to communicate by name, you must perform the
following actions:
Create Azure Virtual Network.
Create a custom DNS server in the Azure Virtual Network.
Configure the virtual network to use the custom DNS server instead of the default Azure Recursive
Resolver.
Configure forwarding between the custom DNS server and your on-premises DNS server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/connect-on-premises-network

HPE0-J58 HPE Master ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V3

Exam description
This Master ASE level exam tests knowledge and skills required for Storage Architects and Storage Consultants. The exam tests the ability to design and deliver a complete and supported multi-site, multi-array and/or complex storage solution that meets customer requirements.

Exam ID HPE0-J58
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 2 hours
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 66%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Related certifications  HPE Master ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V3

Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

01120594: Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions, Rev. 18.41

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

HPE Master ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V3

This certification verifies that you can
Identify enterprise storage and backup opportunities and then plan, design, and size the right solution for multi-site environments.
Design solutions that include requirements to manage, monitor, administer, and operate HPE Storage Enterprise and Backup Solutions including the ability to install, configure, and demo proof-of-concepts.
Optimize, performance-tune, and upgrade your customer’s HPE Storage solutions.
Recommend, explain, and use HPE Nimble storage solutions.

Why earn this certification?
To differentiate yourself as a master storage technologist by holding one of HPE’s most distinguished certifications.
To maximize your credibility as a knowledgeable expert in the latest storage technologies including Flash and Nimble Storage, Software-Defined Storage (SDS), and HyperConverged Appliances.
To demonstrate your ability to design enterprise, multi-site complex storage solutions that reduce cost and risk while increasing performance and value.
To establish a competitive advantage with HPE’s highest storage credential that sets you apart as an IT trusted advisor who optimally deploys complex storage solutions.
To advance your career and enhance your job satisfaction as an HPE Master Accredited Solutions Expert.
To become a part of the elite community of Master ASE Storage professionals with access to HPE technical experts and exclusive special events.

Candidate
Typical candidates for this certification are experienced Storage Architects who lead a team that designs multiple site, enterprise storage solutions. These architects leverage HPE Converged Storage solutions for various customer environments. Successful candidates should have a minimum of three to five years experience.
Skill level
Master
Steps to acquire this certification
Before you begin:

Acquire access to The Learning Center and get an HPE Learner ID. Then create a profile with Pearson VUE, our exam delivery vendor.
Learn how in the Learning Center Assist Kit.

Step 1: Do you qualify for an upgrade path?
HPE Master ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V3 – upgrade from HPE Master ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V2

Step 2: Register or apply for this certification
Register for this certification in The Learning Center

Step 3: Verify or complete prerequisites
You must have 1 of these:

HPE ASE – Hybrid IT Solutions Architect V1
HPE ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V3
HPE ASE – Storage Solutions Integrator V2

Step 4: Complete recommended training
Training is highly recommended. Training helps you pass the exam. Training is not required for most certifications.
Course # Course Name Format – Typical duration Register for course
Training for Exam HPE0-J58: Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions
01120594 01120594: Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions, Rev. 18.41 VILT – 5 days
ILT – 5 days Register
WBT = Web Based ILT = Instructor Led VILT = Virtual Instructor Led VCR – Virtual Class Recorded SCA = Special Course or Activity

Step 5: Pass the required exams
Complete:
Exam # Exam name Register for exam
HPE0-J58 Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions Register
Certification achieved
Three to five days after you complete all requirements, you receive an email notification. Then your status in The Learning Center becomes “acquired”. If you achieved this certification through an upgrade path, you also achieve:

HPE ATP – Storage Solutions V3
HPE ASE – Storage Solutions Architect V3

Track your training and certification progress through your transcripts in the Learning Center.
Digital Badge
Based on the Open Badges Standard, digital badges are online representations of your HPE certifications. Each badge is unique to you. Once you accept and place your badge online—in LinkedIn, Twitter, your email signature, for example—clicking on the badge sends the viewer to a custom verification page that includes your name, HPE certification(s) held, and the skills and capabilities required of the certification. Click here for more information on HPE digital badges.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Sections/Objectives

10% Describe, evaluate, and apply advanced storage architectures and technologies
Describe technologies and typical use cases for SAN technologies related to multi-site solutions
Describe technologies and typical use cases for multi-site storage network management
Evaluate and recommend advanced backup systems technology
Describe technologies and typical use cases for multi-site data protection and business continuity
Describe technologies and typical use cases for unified block, file, and object storage architecture for multi-site solutions

25% Describe and evaluate HPE Storage portfolio and associated service offerings and apply to complex customer use cases
Describe the HPE enterprise storage strategy for multi-site and multi-array solutions
Given a set of business requirements, position HPE Storage solutions for complex storage configurations
Identify and recommend HPE storage tools and resources to address complex storage configurations

10% Present the strengths of the HPE storage portfolio relative to market and competitive trends
Evaluate the storage market and identify the strengths of HPE Storage Solutions in multi-site and/or multi-vendor environments
Illustrate how HPE Storage solutions provide a differentiated competitive advantage and business value in multi-site and/or multi-vendor environments

35% Plan and design complex HPE Storage solutions
Recognize opportunities and identify customer requirements for multi-site and/or complex storage solutions
Given a scenario, size multi-site and/or complex storage solutions
Given a scenario, plan and design multi-site and/or complex storage solutions
Given a scenario, develop a proposal with business value statement and bill of materials
Present multi-site and/or complex solutions to the customer

5% Validate the installation, configuration, and setup of complex HPE Storage solutions
validate data replication and transparent failover features specific to 3PAR and Nimble
validate HPE integrations and recommended performance tuning (RAs) for specific hypervisors and applications
Configure an HPE storage solution for a multi-vendor environment

5% Performance-tune, optimize, and upgrade HPE storage solutions
Identify and compare the existing solution design to the best-practices documentation
Recommend performance-tuning optimizations to the storage solution

5% Troubleshooting multi-site or complex HPE Storage solutions
Identify system issues and failures in HPE Storage solutions
Create and propose an action plan to resolve the issue/failure in a HPE storage solution
Recommend preventative measures on HPE storage solutions

5% Manage, monitor, administer, and operate multi-site or complex HPE storage solutions
Manage and administer storage in an HPE Storage solution
Manage and administer data protection (backup and replication) in an HPE Storage solution
Manage and administer FC and IP storage network in an HPE Storage solution
Develop and manage customer’s policy for compliance in an HPE Storage solution
Test and Implement a site failover and recovery plan in response to an outage
Sections/Objectives
Sample questions
Sample questions are provided only as examples of question style, format and complexity/difficulty. They do not represent all question
types and do not reflect all topic areas. These sample questions do not represent a practice test.
1. A customer wants to take advantage of ISL Trunking within their B-series SN6000B switch configuration. They have ordered the
necessary trunking license to allow the forming of trunks in their configuration. They inform you that they have in-flight encryption enabled.

What do you need to consider for this customer?
a. Trunking is disabled by default, it must be enabled before the trunk can be activated
b. Place the trunking capable switches at the edge of the fabric
c. Trunking license must be installed on the principal switch
d. No more than two ports on one ASIC can be configured with encryption

2. A customer has a multi-vendor storage environment with Oracle and SQL both running on VMware.
They need application consistent online backups using tapes
Which solution should you recommend?

a. Data Protector
b. RMC-V
c. RMC-O
d. RMC-S

3. A customer has recently fallen victim to a ransomware attack against their file serving environment.
What should you recommend to help them protect and recover data from any future attacks?
a. Configure synchronous array replication
b. Create SAN based snapshots
c. Configure streaming asynchronous array replication
d. Setup a firewall rule to block all traffic on port 445

Answers

This section provides answers to and references for the sample questions.

1. A customer wants to take advantage of ISL Trunking within their B-series SN6000B switch configuration. They have ordered the
necessary trunking license to allow the forming of trunks in their configuration. They inform you that they have in-flight encryption enabled.
What do you need to consider for this customer?

a. Trunking is disabled by default, it must be enabled before the trunk can be activated
b. Place the trunking capable switches at the edge of the fabric
c. Trunking license must be installed on the principal switch
d. No more than two ports on one ASIC can be configured with encryption

2. A customer has a multi-vendor storage environment with Oracle and SQL both running on VMware.
They need application consistent online backups using tapes
Which solution should you recommend?

a. Data Protector
b. RMC-V
c. RMC-O
d. RMC-S

3. A customer has recently fallen victim to a ransomware attack against their file serving environment.
What should you recommend to help them protect and recover data from any future attacks?

a. Configure synchronous array replication
b. Create SAN based snapshots
c. Configure streaming asynchronous array replication
d. Setup a firewall rule to block all traffic on port 445

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Oracle 1Z0-1048 Exam Oracle Time and Labor Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials Exam

Exam Title: Oracle Time and Labor Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1048
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 71
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: Oracle Time and Labor Cloud 2019 Certified Implementation Specialist

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Overview
Describe primary Time and Labor business processes
Configure general system settings
Describe how workers and managers use workforce scheduling to plan and manage leave time, shifts, and schedules

Time Attributes
Design a collection of properties that enables different user groups to report time against different time attribute values

Time Categories, Layout Sets, Time Consumer Sets, and Groups
Build a collection of time entry layouts for entering, reviewing, and approving time
Create groupings of time attributes as categories, and use them to group time entries for summarizing, validating, and transferring time; and for processing time rules
Build time consumer sets that specify approval periods, validation rules, and time transfer rules for each time consumer
Set up group definitions that are used by Time and Labor
Configure mass time card creation and mass time entry

Time Processing and Time Entry Profiles
Configure worker time processing profiles that associate rule sets, a time consumer set, and time card periods to report, validate, approve, and transfer time
Build worker time entry profiles that associate a layout set and time entry actions to control access to any time entries

Approvals
Define approval periods for each time consumer
Configure approval groups
Configure time card approval tasks and rules
Set up approval rules to override the normal approval flow of a timecard
Explain Mass submit and approve Timecards processes

Repeating Time Periods
Create time period definitions that produce repeating periods for use in time card entry, approvals, time rules processing, and absence accruals

Integrations with Absence Management, Payroll, and Projects
Describe the setup required to validate, approve, and transfer reported time from Time and Labor to Payroll for payment
Describe how to manage value sets and time card fields to set up Project Time Entry
Describe time attributes, time card fields, and time entry formats required to enable workers to report absences
Describe how to set up time collection device integration to reduce administration and time entry errors

Time Rules
Configure templates that enable the reuse of a formula to define multiple rules
Configure time entry and time calculation rules based on rule templates
Build sets of time entry and time calculation rules that can be assigned to a group of workers using the worker time processing profile
Describe the fast formulas to include in rules in various rule templates in Time and Labor

Scheduling
Manage shift properties
Define scheduler profiles

Time Devices
Explain Time Device Setup, Time Device Processing, Time Device Rules, and Time Entry Rules
Explain Increased Time Management efficiency and Timecard search enhancements

Question: 1
Your customer has implemented Fusion Payroll and defined a set of elements and CIRs (Calculation
Information Repository) with restricted element eligibility.
How should you restrict the displayed payroll time types to match the payroll element eligibility?

A. The payroll elements are placed in one multiple-attribute time card field and the layout set is assigned by using the time entry profile.
B. The payroll elements are placed in one multiple-attribute time card field and restricted by using the enabled value.
C. The payroll element eligibility definition is automatically used to restrict the displayed values on the time card.
D. The payroll elements are placed in several multiple-attribute time card fields and the layout set is assigned by using the time entry profile.

Answer: A

Question: 2
You have 10 different Legislative Data Groups (LDG) defined. Each LDG has a different set of Payroll
Time Types and Absence Types.
How should you configure a Layout Component to display the proper values in one single list on the
Time Entry Layout?

A. Create a Multiple Attribute Time Card Field, filtering the list using Assignment ID.
B. Create a Multiple Attribute Time Card field, filtering the displayed values based on the LDG Filtering function.
C. Create a Multiple Attribute Time Card Field, filtering the list using Element Eligibility.
D. Cannot be done in one list. This requires two separate selection lists (Time Card fields), placed on the Time Entry Layout.

Answer: B

Question: 3
Which is not a predefined approval task and task rule for payroll and project costing time entry approvals?

A. a Payroll Time Card Approval task that automatically approves the time card if the total hours for time entries is 40 hours or less.
B. a Project Time Card Approval task that routes time cards that contain time entries with a reported project, task, and expenditure type to the appropriate Project Manager
C. a Payroll Time Card Approval task that routes payroll time entries to the Line Manager if the total hours for a time card exceed 40 hours
D. a Payroll Time Card Approval task that automatically approves the time card unless it contains absences

Answer: D

Question: 4
What determines the validation and approval of payroll time types for Fusion Payroll?

A. Use of the delivered payroll time attributes and payroll time card fields.
B. Assignment of the customer-defined Time and Labor – Time Entry Rules (TER).
C. Assignment of a properly defined payroll time consumer set.
D. Assignment of the delivered payroll layout set and time entry options.

Answer: A

 

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Oracle 1Z0-1053 Oracle Benefits Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials Exam

Exam Title: Oracle Benefits Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1053
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 105 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 70%
Validated Against: Oracle Benefits Cloud 2019 Certified Implementation Specialist

Take Recommended Training Courses

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Configuring Benefits
Configure life events
Create benefits groups
Create eligibility profiles
Manage benefit year periods, plan types, and options
Create benefit plans and programs
Configure enrollment display

Reporting on Benefits
Explain benefit reports
View enrollment results
Set up benefits extracts, extract and transmit data to plan carriers

Administering Benefits
Explain common administrative tasks
Explain collapsing rules
Prepare for an open enrollment period
Manage an open enrollment period
Configure flex credits
Manage benefit coverage and rates

Question: 1
Which is NOT a valid type of life event?

A. Explicit
B. Temporal
C. Scheduled
D. Unrestricted

E. Restricted

Answer: E

Question: 2
XX Life insurance plan has two options: Option 1 enrolls a dependent of age 21 or above and Option
2 enrolls a dependent aged 18 or less.
How do you define a benefit configuration for these two options?

A. Create two derived factors, one with age as 21 or above and a second with age 18 or less. Create an eligibility profile and configure these two derived factors under the eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility profile to XX Life Insurance Plan

B. Create one derived factor. Create an eligibility profile and configure the derived factor under the eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility profile to XX Life Insurance plan at Option 1, and then attach the same eligibility profile at Option 2.

C. Create one derived factor. Create an eligibility profile and configure the derived factor under the eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility profile to XX Life Insurance Plan.

D. Create two eligibility profiles. One with age as 21 or above and a second with age 18 or less. Then attach these eligibility profiles to XX Life Insurance Plan.

Answer: D

Question: 3
An organization has a scheduled open period for Life Insurance plan from January 1st to the 31st. The important dates defined while configuring the scheduled open life event are:

1) Enrollment Period Start Date – January 1, 201/
2) Enrollment Period End Date – January 31, 2017
3) Assign Defaults Date – January 31, 2017
4) Assigned Life Event Date – January 15, 2017
5) Coverage Start Date – Latest of elections, event or notified
The batch process to assign the open life event was run effective December 28, 2016. An employee makes an election on January 22, 2017.
What is the coverage start date for this employee?

A. January 15, 2017
B. December 28, 2016
C. January 31, 2017
D. January 22, 2017

Answer: C

Question: 4
What are the number of train stops available in the Benefits Enrollment self-service page for plan/program enrollment?

A. 5
B. 7
C. The number of train stops can be configured.
D. 6

Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is NOT a derived factor type?

A. Hours Worked
B. Full-Time Equivalent
C. Compensation
D. Grade

Answer: D
 

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1Z0-1046 Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials

Exam Title: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1046
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 76
Passing Score: 71%
Validated Against:

Validated against version 19B of the product

Associated Certification Paths

Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2019 Certified Implementation Specialist
Exam Preparation
Recommended Training
Take Recommended Training Courses

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

People Management
Explain the Fusion Person Model
Plan workforce deployment
Analyze workforce deployment
Manage the workforce lifecycle
Maintain worker directories
Create workforce records
Configure Person Gallery Keyword Searches

Workforce Structures
Create organizations and divisions
Use effective dating and action types
Explain foundation tables
Set Up Enterprise HCM Information
Create Legal Entities for HCM
Define Workforce Structures
Define Grades
Define Jobs
Define Positions
Define Geographies
Define Enterprise Structures

Workflow, Approvals, and Notifications
Explain Approval Policies
Manage Approval Groups
Deploy Notifications
Manage Approval Transactions

Profile Management
Explain profile types
Configure workforce profiles
Create custom content types

Checklists and Actions
Create Checklists
Set Up Actions and Action Reasons
Define Schedules
Configure Profile Options and Lookups
Define Calendar Events and Geography Trees
Configure Geography Trees

Question: 1
A manager returned from US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his source location of UK Subsidiary.
Which is the option a Human Resource representative should exercise to re-instate the manager’s records in the source legal employer?

A. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.
B. Entering the return will automatically re-instate the record on the return date.
C. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfiled to capture the return date. Update this segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.
D. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignment’s in the source legal employer are reinstated automatically on the return date.

Answer: D

Question: 2
As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals under Manage
Employment tasks as Auto Approve.
Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for auto-approval? (Choose two.)

A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
B. Set up dynamic approval rule.
C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.
E. Select Number of Levels as 0.

Answer: A,D

Question: 3
Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose three.)

A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a basic enterprise structure.
B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units and reference data sets.
C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the administrator.
D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job / position structures, the administrator can review them, make any necessary changes and then load / rollback the final configuration.
E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units and departments.

Answer: A, B, D

Question: 4
A static approval group named “Trio” comprises three members – Jacob, Susan, and Dia (in the
mentioned order). For all the Manage Employment transactions, the approval should be routed to
the “Trio” approval group. When the assignment change transaction is submitted, what is the order
in which these members receive the assignment change approval notification?

A. System decides the approval route by randomly selecting approvers who are a part of the approval group.
B. First Approver – Dia, Second Approver – Susan, Third Approval – Jacob
C. All three get the notification at the same time.
D. First Approver – Jacob, Second Approver – Susan, Third Approver – Dia
E. The approval is routed alphabetically.

Answer: D

Question: 5
Identify three correct statements about Workforce Life Cycle. (Choose three.)

A. HR specialists can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for the workers to whim they have security access.
B. The Add Person tasks include creating a new person’s first work relationship with the enterprise.
C. Line Managers can transfer their direct and indirect reports only.
D. HR specialists and line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for all the workers.
E. Line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for all workers.

Answer: A,B,C

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E_S4HCON2019 SAP Certified Technology Specialist – SAP S/4HANA Conversion and SAP System Upgrade

Delivery Methods: Certification
Level: Specialist
Exam: 40 questions
Sample Questions:
Cut Score: 68%
Duration: 90 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Technology Specialist – SAP S/4HANA Conversion and SAP System Upgrade” certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the required level of knowledge to perform a technical SAP S/4HANA conversion and an SAP system upgrade. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and the in‐depth technical skills required. Armed with an understanding of SAP system administration, the candidate can implement this knowledge practically in SAP projects. The enablement for this exam is being provided by the course “ADM328 – SAP S/4HANA Conversion and SAP System Upgrade”. It is highly recommended that you have passed the exam C_TADM55_74 or C_TADM55_75 or C_TADM55A_75 prior to taking this exam.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

SAP S/4HANA Conversion Prepare Phase > 12%
Describe and perform the actions necessary during the SAP S/4HANA conversion prepare phase

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

SUM Prepare Part > 12%

SUM Execution Part > 12%
Perform the SUM execution part, including DMO

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Manual Activities for SUM 8% – 12%
Describe the necessary manual preparation and follow-on activities for SUM

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

SUM Monitoring and Troubleshooting 8% – 12%
Monitor and troubleshoot the SUM procedure

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Modification Adjustment 8% – 12%
Perform the modification adjustment with SPDD and SPAU

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Downtime 8% – 12%

Describe the factors influencing downtime and techniques to reduce downtime

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Handling of an SAP System Landscape 8% – 12%
Describe the handling of the SAP system landscape during SAP S/4HANA conversion and SAP system upgrade

ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

General Information

Exam Preparation
IMPORTANT: All SAP consultant certifications are now available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.Those of you who prefer to get certified on-site at an SAP training center instead can still do so. Official dates for the certification tests are listed on the right.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.

• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Overview

• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Exam Process

• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Question: 1
During a SUM run you vivant to check if the phase SHADOW_IMPORT_INC is still running properly.
Where can you find information about this?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Check for running batch jobs in the shadow system via Job Overview (SM37)
B. Check for running R3trans processes on the host of the primary application server
C. Check for running R31oad processes on the host of the primary application server
D. Check for the latest log files in the SUM directory, subdirectory ABAP, subdirectory tmp

Answer: B, D

Question: 2
During the configuration of the DMO for SUM, how does the tool behave if option “Do not compare
table contents” is selected regarding table comparison?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. It performs a comparison on selected tables using check sum.
B. It performs a comparison on all tables using row counts.
C. It performs a comparison of all tables using check sum.
D. It does NOT perform any table comparison.

Answer: B

Question: 3
You performed a custom code check for an SAP S/4HANA conversion. In which transactions can you
review the results?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. SYCM (Simplification Database Content)
B. SAT (Runtime Analysis)
C. ATC (ABAP Test Cockpit)
D. SE80 (Object Navigator)

Answer: C, D

Question: 4
You downloaded content from the SAP note 1000009 (“ASU Toolbox 2008”). Which transaction needs
to be executed to use that content in the ASU Toolbox?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. /ASU/UPGRADE (Start ASU Toolbox in Upgrade Mode)
B. /ASU/SSM (ASU Simple Schedule Manager)
C. /ASU/SHOW_NOTE (Show SAP Note via Web-Browser)
D. /ASU/START (Start ASU Toolbox)

Answer: D
 

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Salesforce Integration Architecture Designer Salesforce Certified Integration Architecture Designer (SP19) Exam

The Salesforce architect exams are some of the most rewarding and interesting exams to get. I really enjoy them because they offer a rare chance to dive very deep into a specific area of the platform. These can expand your capabilities within Salesforce, and provide you valuable understanding as you progress your career towards Technical Architect. This is the study guide for the Integration Architecture Designer certification exam.

Each of these exams has a study guide (like all other certifications), as well as a resource guide which has linked articles, Trailhead modules, documentation and more. To get the most out of those guides, I have written down some important areas to study and understand. If you understand the concepts below, you’ll do well on your exam.
Integration Architecture Designer

The Salesforce Integration Architecture Designer exam focuses on your understanding of the architectural decisions necessary to facilitate integrations with external systems, options available for integration, and key considerations for developing integrations. This was one of my favorite exams because I was able to learn a lot of new concepts, all of which I have found very applicable. Understanding those items has made me a better consultant.

Key Topics

Integration Architecture Patterns
What patterns are available, and why would you recommend one over another? This PDF references the five main patterns we see in Salesforce, as well as the benefits and considerations to each. In the exam, you will be presented with sample scenarios, and you will be asked to recommend a pattern based on the requirements.

APIs
Salesforce provides several APIs, you will need to know which one to recommend given a situation. Also, you need to understand the limitations and considerations around them (record limits, call limits, timeouts, etc.). There are learning modules on each type:

Web Service API
REST-Based APIs
Bulk API

Mashups and Composite Apps
When a full integration is not recommended, you may want a mashup or composite app. Understand the limitations of this option, and when you would recommend it to an organization.

WSDL Files
There are two types of WSDL available. Learn which is preferred given a situation.

Salesforce-to-Salesforce
When two Salesforce orgs will be sharing data, you may recommend Salesforce-to-Salesforce. Make sure you understand what is required to use this, and key considerations behind the recommendation.

Hands-On Work
Understanding the concepts is important, but this certification is difficult to get without some good study combined with hands-on experience. The Trailhead superbadge around integration is a great place to start.

Question: 1
Universal Containers has decided that they will be using the bulk API to migrate the existing data into
Salesforce as they will be importing a total of 80 million records.
While planning for the data migration, what techniques should the Architect recommend to make sure the load go according to schedule?
Choose 2 answers

A. Pre-process data that the triggers and workflows can be deactivated.
B. Perform a test load using a full Sandbox prior to the Production load.
C. Perform loads over a weekend server resource availability.
D. Leverage several workstations, loading different objects simultaneously.

Answer: A, B

Question: 2
Universal containers are building an integration between Salesforce and their data warehouse. The
architect has the following requirements

1. Salesforce users need the ability to CRUD (create,read,update and delete) data from their data warehouse without leaving the Salesforce user interface
2.The integration to the data warehouse should maintain the same look and feel as the existing Salesforce user interface
3.The use of custom development Should be minimized

Which two solutions should the architect consider?
Choose two options

A. Utilizelightning connect with custom ApexAdapter to provided CRUD access to the data warehouse
B. Utilize a canvas application to render the data warehouse data from within Salesforce
C. Utilize a visual force page from 3rd party JavaScript library that will provide CRUD capabilities to the data warehouse.
D. Utilize a 3rd party tool from the App-Exchange that will provide CRUD capabilities between the data warehouse and salesforce

Answer: A, B

Question: 3
Universal containers decided to use Salesforce sales cloud for their sales processes won
Opportunities must be sent to external ERP system for order fulfillment. All the line items must also
be sent along with Opportunities. The ERP system supports only SOAP- based messages for receiving orders
What limitation of outbound messages might present a problem in this scenario?

A. Outbound messaging does not support multiple objects
B. Outbound messaging does not support SOAP
C. Outbound messaging cannot be made secure
D. Outbound messaging does not offer any reliability.

Answer: A

Question: 4
Universal containers(UC) leverages the standard opportunity and opportunity product objects to
manage their orders in Salesforce. When a deal is closed, all opportunity information, including
products and billing contacts, must be send to their ERP application for order fulfillment. As UC has
an “express shipping” guarantee, leadership would like order information sent to ERP as quickly as
possible after the deal is closed?
How should an Architect fulfill this requirement?

A. Write a nightly batch job to send customer information to ERP.
B. Write a visualforce page to send order information to ERP.
C. Write an opportunity trigger to send order information to ERP.
D. Write an outbound message to send order information to ERP.

Answer: C

Question: 5
Universal containers has a simple co -premise web app that is unauthenticated.
What capability should an integration Architect recommend to make the app accessible from within Salesforce?

A. Apex callout
B. Visualforce
C. Custom Web tab
D. Lightning connect

Answer: C

 

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C1000-012 IBM Watson Application Developer V3.1

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 44
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live This exam consists of 5 sections described below.

Section 1 – Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence (AI) Computing
Define the main characteristics of an AI system.
Explain neural nets.
Explain Machine Learning technologies (supervised, unsupervised, reinforcement learning approaches).
Define a common set of use cases for AI systems.
Define Precision, Recall, and Accuracy
Explain the importance of separating training, validation and test data.
Measure accuracy of a Watson AI service.
Perform Domain Adaption using Watson Knowledge Studio (WKS).
Define Intents and Classes.
Identify the difference between the user question and the user intent.

Section 2 – Use Cases for Artificial Intelligence
Select an appropriate combination of AI technologies based on use-case and data format.
Explain the uses of the Watson AI services in the Starter Kits.
Describe the Watson Conversational Agent.
Explain use cases for integrating external systems (such as Twitter, Weather API).
Describe the IBM Watson Discovery Service

Section 3 – Fundamentals of IBM Watson AI services
Distinguish the Watson AI services on IBM Cloud for which training is required.
Provide examples of text classification using the NLC.
Explain the Watson SDKs available as part of the Watson AI services on IBM Cloud.
Explain the Watson REST APIs available as part of the Watson AI services on IBM Cloud.
Explain and configure the Natural Language Classification service.
Explain and configure the Visual Recognition service.
Explain how the Personality Insights service works.
Explain how the Tone Analyzer service works.
Explain and execute IBM Watson Natural Language Understanding service.
Explain, setup, configure and query the IBM Watson Discovery service.
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Assistant service

Section 4 – Developing AI applications using IBM Watson AI Services on IBM Cloud
Call a Watson API to analyze content.
Describe the tasks required to implement the Conversational Agent / Digital Bot.
Transform service outputs for consumption by other services.
Define common design patterns for composing multiple Watson services together (across APIs).
Design and execute a use case driven service choreography (within an API).
Explain the process to provision and use an instance of an IBM Watson AI service instance on IBM Cloud.
Explain the advantages of using IBM Cloud as the cloud platform for AI application development and deployment.

Section 5 �?? Administration & DevOps for applications using IBM Watson AI services on IBM Cloud

Describe the process of obtaining credentials for Watson AI services on IBM Cloud.

Examine application logs provided on IBM Cloud.
Use the study guide to help pass this exam. A study guide is an easy to follow document that will help you prepare for this exam. The guide is free and can be downloaded immediately.

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A1000-012 Assessment: IBM Watson Application Developer V3.1

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.

This assessment exam is available in: English

Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

Courses and publications are offered to help you prepare for the certification tests. The courses are recommended, but not required, before taking a certification test. When preparing for the certification test, keep in mind that real world experience is required to stand a reasonable chance of passing the certification test. Courseware does not replace the requirement for experience. Please note that course offerings are continuously being added and updated. If you want to purchase a training course, feel free to contact an IBM Global Training Provider.
1 Web Resource

Course Title: IBM Watson Application Developer Certification Bootcamp
Course Duration: 24 hours
Course Number: U66971G
Course Abstract: This course provides a basic understanding of AI technologies, practical knowledge of the core Watson APIs, and how your application can use these services. You will also review additional concepts included in the IBM
Derivative Works Courses are developed by an IBM authorized Global Training Provider. The content of the course is based on IBM products and services. It offers skills or services that IBM does not offer in the course catalog today an are intended to compliment our existing portfolio. The course is developed by the Training Provider. IBM solely provides a market place to advertise the courses on our external websites, ibm.com/training and lists the Global Training Provider who owns the content.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 60000101
Replaces PW Code: 60000101

Status: Live
This intermediate level technical professional is an individual who understands concepts essential to the development of applications using IBM Watson AI services. They will have experience using the IBM Cloud and are able to consume IBM Watson AI services in an application. This individual is able to perform these tasks with little to no assistance from product documentation, support or peers.

Key Areas of Competency:
Fundamentals of IBM Watson AI services on IBM Cloud
Use cases of Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
Developing AI applications using IBM Watson AI services
Administering applications using IBM Watson AI services

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working knowledge of developing an application using IBM Watson AI services
Working knowledge of core IBM Cloud services (monitoring, logging, scaling), and security
Working knowledge with designing, developing and deploying RESTful APIs
Working knowledge of use cases using IBM Watson AI services
Working knowledge of AI concepts such as intent, relationships, entities, and ground truth
Working knowledge of the application starter kits and demos available on the IBM Cloud
Working knowledge of open technologies like Cloud Foundry and Git like repositories
Basic knowledge of application development using common web technologies such as Node.js, Javascript, HTML, and CSS
Basic knowledge of machine learning methods and technologies

Question: 1
What Watson solution can answer common support questions typically handled by a live agent?

A. Tone Analyzer
B. Watson Assistant
C. Natural Language Understanding
D. Language Translator

Answer: C

Question: 2
An AI solution is implemented to detect what the user wants to do. The user mentions that he wants to buy a ski jacket for an upcoming vacation in Colorado.
How can the entities be derived from the conversation using IBM Watson services?

A. Upload training data to the Discovery service and use the Discovery API to query the results
B. Use the Tone Analyzer service to retrieve the level of openness in the utterance
C. Pass the utterance from the user to the Natural Language Understanding service Entities API
D. Pass the utterance from the user through Speech to Text then apply Tradeoff Analytics

Answer: C

Question: 3
What are examples of the information the IBM Watson Natural Language Understanding service extract from html, or web-based content when it analyzes entities?

A. text and title information
B. people, companies, organizations
C. subject-action-object relations
D. topic keywords

Answer: C

Question: 4
Built into the IBM Watson Discovery service is the Watson Discovery News data set. How is this collection different from other collections?

A. The Watson Discovery News configuration and documents cannot be adjusted
B. Documents from the Watson Discovery News collection can be ingested as sample documents to better configure a private collection
C. The Watson Discovery News collection is specific to the company news domain, whereas a collection is specific to a domain.
D. The Watson Discovery News data set and a private collection can be queried with a single query call

Answer: B
 

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PCCSA Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Associate Exam

A Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Associate (PCCSA) possesses knowledge of cutting-edge technology available today to manage the cyber threats of tomorrow.

Palo Alto Networks Professional Certification Program
The Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Associate (PCCSA) possesses knowledge of cutting-edge technology available today to manage the cyber threats of tomorrow. The PCCSA certification should be pursued by students and individuals new to cybersecurity to validate up-to-date knowledge on cyber-threats and cyber-security.

The Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator (PCNSA) recognizes individuals with the knowledge to operate Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewalls to protect networks from cutting edge cyber threats.

The Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer (PCNSE) recognizes individuals with in-depth knowledge and abilities to design, install, configure, maintain and troubleshoot the vast majority of implementations based on the Palo Alto Networks platform. The PCNSE exam should be taken by anyone who wishes to demonstrate a deep understanding of Palo Alto Networks technologies, including customers who use Palo Alto Networks products, value-added resellers, pre-sales system engineers, system integrators, and support staff.

Question: 1
Which type of adversary would commit cybercrimes with the authorization of their country’s government?

A. state-sponsored
B. hacktivist
C. gray hat
D. white hat

Answer: A

Question: 2
When a company chooses to deploy a branch location with antivirus software, which risk model are they using to manage risk?

A. limiting
B. assuming
C. trasnferring
D. avoiding

Answer: A

Question: 3
Which option describes a characteristic of a distributed denial-of-service attack?

A. uses multiple types of malware to corrupt system services
B. uses a single remote host to delete data from multiple target servers
C. uses a single remote host to flood a target network with traffic
D. uses a botnet to flood traffic to a target network

Answer: D

Question: 4
What is a component of a public key infrastructure?

A. Key Distribution Center
B. KDC ticket
C. SSH key
D. certificate authority

Answer: D

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