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Tech

Salesforce Data Cloud Accredited Professional Exam

Data Cloud Accredited Professional
Earners of the Data Cloud Accredited Professional have demonstrated skills and knowledge in designing, configuring, building, and implementing Data Cloud, using the declarative customization capabilities of Data Cloud.

1. ABOUT THE MARKETING CLOUD CUSTOMER DATA
PLATFORM (CDP) ACCREDITED PROFESSIONAL The Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) Accredited Professional exam guide is ideal for consultants who have experience implementing and consulting on customer data
platforms in a customer-facing role. It prepares you for the CDP Accredited Professional exam, which demonstrates your skills in designing, configuring, building, and implementing Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP).
The Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) Accredited Professional meets maintainable and scalable customer business requirements, and contributes to a customer’s long-term success. Any registered Salesforce partner who’s interested in demonstrating competence with Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) can take this exam. The Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) Accredited Professional Exam is up to date as of 26 May 2022.

2. AUDIENCE DESCRIPTION
The Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) Accredited Professional exam is for those who want broad knowledge of the Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) and its capabilities and terminology. You’ll get hands-on experience positioning and implementing Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP).

3. THE PURPOSE OF THIS EXAM GUIDE
This exam guide helps you evaluate if you’re ready to successfully complete the Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) Accredited Professional exam. It provides information about the target audience for the exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives, all aimed to help you get a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, completion of relevant Partner Learning Camp (PLC) curriculum, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.

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4. ABOUT THE EXAM
Content: 50 multiple-choice or multiple-select questions
Time allotted to complete the exam: 75 minutes

Passing score: 68%
Registration fee: USD $0, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered in an online, proctored environment that can be
accessed through Partner Learning Camp
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
Prerequisites: None

5. RECOMMENDED TRAINING AND REFERENCES
As preparation for this exam, Salesforce recommends a combination of hands-on experience, training courses in Partner Learning Camp, and self-study in the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.
The Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) self-paced guided learning courses in Partner Learning Camp prepares the learner for this exam. The courses have direct links to required Trailhead trails, documentation, tip sheets, and user guides. The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:

● Complete the Get to Know Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) curriculum in Partner Learning Camp10 hands-on courses to learn the base foundations of Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) to help you complete successful implementations

● Review Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) Help documentation

6. EXAM OUTLINE
The exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following topics.

Topics Weighting
Solution Overview 10%
Setup & Administration 14%
Data Ingestion & Modeling 24%
Identity Resolution 11%
Segmentation and Insights 22%
Activation 13%
API & Integrations 6%

QUESTION 1
How can attribute names be modified to match a naming convention in Cloud File Storage target?

A. Update attribute names in the data stream configuration
B. Update field names in the data model
C. Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
D. Use a formula field to update the field name in an activation

Answer: B

Explanation:
You can modify the attribute names in the data model by editing the field label or API name of the corresponding field. This will change how the attribute name appears in the Cloud File Storage target.

QUESTION 2
Which two applications automatically create activation targets at the time the application is connected to Data Cloud?

A. Personalization powered by Interaction Studio
B. Amazon S3
C. B2C Commerce
D. Marketing Cloud Engagement

Answer: AC

Explanation:
These two applications automatically create activation targets when they are connected to Data
Cloud. You can use these targets to activate segments or calculated insights to these applications.

QUESTION 3
To import campaign members into a campaign in CRM a user wants to export the segment to Amazon S3. The resulting file needs to include CRM Campaign ID in the name. How can this outcome be achieved?

A. Include campaign identifier into the activation name
B. Hard-code the campaign identifier as a new attribute in the campaign activation
C. Include campaign identifier into the filename specification
D. Include campaign identifier into the segment name

Answer: C

Explanation:
You can use the filename specification option in the Amazon S3 activation to customize the name of the file that is exported. You can use variables such as {campaignId} to include the CRM campaign ID
in the file name.

QUESTION 4
Which two steps are required when configuring a Marketing Cloud activation?

A. Set an Activation Schedule
B. Select an Activation Target
C. Add Additional Attributes
D. Select Contact Points

Answer: BD

Explanation:
These two steps are required when configuring a Marketing Cloud activation. You need to select an activation target that represents a Marketing Cloud business unit and a contact point that represents a Marketing Cloud data extension.

QUESTION 5
What component of Calculated Insights can be included as attribute data in an activation?

A. Metrics and Dimensions
B. Dimensions
C. Metrics
D. Filters

Answer: B

Explanation:
Dimensions are attributes that can be used to group or filter data in calculated insights.
You can include dimensions as attribute data in an activation by selecting them from the available attributes list.

Tech

SPLK-2003 Splunk SOAR Certified Automation Developer Exam


1. Splunk certifications in general. Splunk offers a range of certifications that validate your expertise in using their software for data analysis, security, and administration. Here are some of the Splunk certifications available as of my knowledge cutoff:

2. These topics can give you a general idea of what to expect when preparing for a Splunk certification exam. Here are some common themes found in Splunk exams:

3. Splunk Fundamentals: Basic concepts and terminology related to Splunk, including data input, search processing, search commands, and search optimization.

4. Splunk Searching and Reporting: Techniques for searching and analyzing data in Splunk, including using search commands, creating reports and visualizations, and understanding search syntax.

5. Splunk Data Knowledge: Understanding different data types, fields, event types, data models, and data normalization in Splunk.

6. Splunk Administration: Managing and configuring a Splunk deployment, including user and role management, authentication, and authorization, indexing, forwarder management, and system monitoring.

7. Splunk Alerting and Monitoring: Configuring and managing alerts, creating scheduled reports, and monitoring the health and performance of a Splunk environment.

8. Splunk Dashboards and Visualizations: Creating and customizing dashboards, visualizations, and interactive reports to gain insights from data.

9. Splunk Advanced Topics: Advanced search techniques, data models and pivoting, using Splunk apps and add-ons, knowledge management, and troubleshooting common issues.

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Remember, the specific topics covered in a particular exam, such as SPLK-2003, may vary, so it’s always recommended to consult the official exam documentation or resources provided by Splunk for the most accurate and up-to-date information on exam topics.

10. Splunk SOAR Platform Overview: Familiarity with the Splunk SOAR platform, its components, architecture, and key features.

11. Workflow Creation and Customization: Understanding how to create, customize, and manage automation workflows using the Splunk SOAR platform. This includes knowledge of workflow design principles, integration with external systems, and utilizing SOAR’s capabilities for automation and orchestration.

12. Scripting and Development: Proficiency in scripting languages, such as Python, JavaScript, or other languages used within the Splunk SOAR platform for developing automation actions, rules, and connectors.

13. Integration Framework: Knowledge of integrating the Splunk SOAR platform with other systems and tools commonly used in security operations, such as ticketing systems, threat intelligence platforms, and endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions.

14. Incident Response Automation: Understanding the process of automating incident response tasks and activities using the Splunk SOAR platform. This may include topics such as incident triaging, enrichment, investigation, and response.

15. Workflow Testing and Troubleshooting: Skills in testing, debugging, and troubleshooting automation workflows within the Splunk SOAR platform, including identifying and resolving common issues and errors.

It’s important to note that the exam topics and their specific details may have changed or been updated since my knowledge cutoff date. For the most accurate and up-to-date information, I recommend visiting the official Splunk website or consulting Splunk’s certification resources to get the latest details on the Splunk SOAR Certified Automation Developer exam.

QUESTION 1
Configuring Phantom search to use an external Splunk server provides which of the following benefits?

A. The ability to run more complex reports on Phantom activities.
B. The ability to ingest Splunk notable events into Phantom.
C. The ability to automate Splunk searches within Phantom.
D. The ability to display results as Splunk dashboards within Phantom.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Within the 12A2 design methodology, which of the following most accurately describes the last step?

A. List of the apps used by the playbook.
B. List of the actions of the playbook design.
C. List of the outputs of the playbook design.
D. List of the data needed to run the playbook.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the steps required to complete a full backup of a Splunk Phantom
deployment’ Assume the commands are executed from /opt/phantom/bin and that no other backups have been made.

A. On the command line enter: rode sudo python ibackup.pyc –setup, then audo phenv python ibackup.pyc –backup.
B. On the command line enter: sudo phenv python ibackup.pyc –backup —backup-type full, then sudo phenv python ibackup.pyc –setup.
C. Within the UI: Select from the main menu Administration > System Health > Backup.
D. Within the UI: Select from the main menu Administration > Product Settings > Backup.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An active playbook can be configured to operate on all containers that share which attribute?

A. Artifact
B. Label
C. Tag
D. Severity

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following applies to filter blocks?

A. Can select which blocks have access to container data.
B. Can select assets by tenant, approver, or app.
C. Can be used to select data for use by other blocks.
D. Can select containers by seventy or status.

Answer: A

Tech

PEGAPCBA87V1 Pegasystems Certified Pega Business Architect (PCBA) 87V1 Exam Dumps

The Pegasystems Certified Pega Business Architect (PCBA) 87V1 Exam is a certification exam offered by Pegasystems Inc., a leading provider of business process management and customer relationship management software. This exam is designed for individuals who are seeking to validate their knowledge and skills in Pega business architecture.

Here are some general details about the Pegasystems PCBA 87V1 Exam:

Exam Name: Pegasystems Certified Pega Business Architect (PCBA) 87V1 Exam
Exam Code: PCBA 87V1
Exam Duration: The exam typically lasts around 90 minutes.
Exam Format: The exam consists of multiple-choice questions.
Passing Score: The passing score required to obtain certification may vary and is determined by Pegasystems Inc.
Prerequisites: There may be prerequisites or recommended training courses associated with this exam. It’s advisable to check the official Pegasystems website or exam documentation for specific requirements.
Exam Content: The exam content focuses on various aspects of Pega business architecture, including understanding business requirements, designing solution strategies, and applying Pega best practices.

To get the most accurate and up-to-date information about the Pegasystems PCBA 87V1 Exam, including exam objectives, registration process, and study resources, I recommend visiting the official Pegasystems website or contacting their certification support team directly.

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1. Pega Platform Overview: Understanding the key features, components, and capabilities of the Pega Platform, including the rules engine, user interface, data model, and integration options.

2. Pega Application Design: Knowledge of designing and configuring applications in Pega, including case management, process flows, data model design, and user interface development.

3. Business Architecture and Requirements Gathering: Understanding business architecture concepts, identifying and documenting business requirements, conducting stakeholder interviews, and translating business requirements into technical specifications.

4. Application Testing and Deployment: Knowledge of various testing techniques, creating test cases, and ensuring quality assurance for Pega applications. Understanding the deployment process and best practices for deploying Pega applications.

5. Application Integration: Understanding integration concepts, techniques, and tools available in Pega for integrating with external systems, such as databases, web services, and enterprise systems.

6. Business Rule Management: Knowledge of Pega’s business rules engine, including rule types, rule resolution, rule governance, and best practices for managing and organizing business rules.

5. User Experience and User Interface Design: Understanding user experience design principles, creating intuitive and user-friendly interfaces using Pega’s UI components and features.

6. Security and Access Control: Knowledge of Pega’s security features, including authentication, authorization, access control policies, and data privacy considerations.

7. Application Performance and Monitoring: Understanding performance optimization techniques, identifying and resolving performance bottlenecks, and monitoring application performance using Pega tools and features.

These topics are meant to provide a general guideline, and the actual exam content may vary. It’s essential to refer to official Pegasystems documentation, study guides, or training materials specific to the PCBA 87V1 Exam for a comprehensive and accurate understanding of the exam topics.

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A developer configures a button with the action set as shown in the following image.
Place the events in the order they occur.

Answer:

QUESTION 2
An order form provides four options from which customers select one option.
According to best practice, which of the following two UI control types can be used to minimize clutter on the order form? (Choose Two)

A. Autocomplete
B. Checkbox
C. Radio buttons
D. Dropdown
Answer: C, D

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
All managers need to view the Employee vacation requests report in their Manager portal dashboards. Only managers have access to this report. Which configuration do you perform to fulfill these requirements?

A. Create a new landing page on the Manager portal with the new report saved in a public category.
B. Add a report widget to the Manager portal dashboard, and then click Publish.
C. Add the report to a public category, and then add the out-of-the-box Reports landing page to the Manager portal.
D. Add a report widget to the Manager portal dashboard, and then click Publish to default.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A reservation process allows customers to reserve a flight, hotel room, and rental car as part of a
travel Itinerary. Which configuration displays the Select hotel amenities section only if a user selects the Add amenities check box?
A. A disable condition (when rule) applied to the Add amenities check box
B. A disable condition (when rule) applied to the Select hotel amenities section
C. A required condition (when rule) applied to the Add amenities check box
D. A visibility condition (when rule) applied to the Select hotel amenities section

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
How do you guide users through an application form without requiring user training?

A. Send a notification to the assigned user.
B. Add an instruction to the assignment.
C. Add an optional action to the case to explain the task.
D. Add the corresponding step to an appropriate stage.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Hospital staff members enter appointment details including relevant patient information, diagnoses,
lab orders, and prescribed medication. This information is aggregated in the Patient visit summary view. The patient receives a copy of this view through email.
Which two configurations, when applied in combination, achieve this behavior? (Choose Two)

A. Add a Create PDF automation that references the Patient visit summary view.
B. Add a Send Email step and enable the option to include attachments.
C. Enable email notifications on the case type.
D. Add a Send Email step and compose the message to reference the relevant properties.

Answer: A, B

Tech

Salesforce Certified Sales Representative Exam

ABOUT THE EXAM
The Salesforce Certified Sales Representative should have broad knowledge of the sales process and be proficient in planning, customer and prospect research, deal management, pipeline management, forecasting, and closing deals with value. Candidates should also have a detailed understanding of their customers, putting them at the center with a commitment to their success, leading with empathy.

Congratulations on taking the next step to prepare for your Salesforce Sales Representative credential. This exam guide has the information you need to help you study and prepare for your exam. Let’s get started!

Contents
About the Salesforce Sales Representative Credential
Audience Description: Salesforce Sales Representative
Purpose of This Exam Guide
About the Exam
Recommended Training and References
Exam Outline
Candidate Code of Conduct
Maintaining Your Certification
About the Sales Representative Credential
The Salesforce Certified Sales Representative certification exam is for individuals who want to demonstrate their knowledge, skills, and experience in the following areas:

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Guiding discovery and research to create a sales plan.
Fostering key business relationships for customer engagement.
Engaging customers through each stage of the sales process.
Demonstrating thought leadership during all customer engagement.
Formulating and presenting solutions based on customers’ needs.
Handling objections and negotiations.
Gaining commitment to close deals.
Identifying pipeline generation and pipeline progression.
Applying knowledge of forecasting to drive opportunities and renewals.
Achieving customer success through order management and fulfillment, service and support, and customer value.

Audience Description: Salesforce Sales Representative
Salesforce Certified Sales Representative candidates exemplify sales excellence using a customer-centric methodology. The Salesforce Certified Sales Representative develops trusted relationships with their customers, ensures deal success by aligning with entire account teams, executive sponsors, and stakeholders, and takes full ownership of the sales process by planning, managing, and analyzing their business.

Salesforce Certified Sales Representatives’ skills span customer communication, research, discovery, team selling, value selling, and account planning and strategy. Candidates consistently manage their time and priorities, control personal development, create better team alignment, and grow confidently in their role as sales representatives. The Salesforce Certified Sales Representative has a detailed understanding of their customers, putting them at the center with a commitment to their success, leading with empathy.

Candidates for this exam should have 6 months to 3 years experience as a sales representative.

Purpose of This Exam Guide
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to successfully complete the Salesforce Certified Sales Representative exam. This guide provides information about the target audience for the certification exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.

About the Exam
Read on for details about the Salesforce Certified Sales Representative exam.

Content: 60 multiple-choice questions and up to 5 non-scored questions
Time allotted to complete the exam: 105 minutes
Passing score: 70%
Registration fee: USD  plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Retake fee: USD  plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
Prerequisite: None

Recommended Training and References
As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience, training course completion, Trailhead Trails, and self-study in the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.

The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:

Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Certified Sales Representative Credential
Coming May 4th!
Module: Cert Prep: Salesforce Certified Sales Representative

To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides can also be accessed through Salesforce Help.

To continue developing your Salesforce skill set, visit Trailhead Academy to enroll in expert-led courses.
Exam Outline

The Salesforce Certified Sales Representative exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. Candidates should have sales knowledge and expertise in each of the areas below.

Planning: 21%
Describe the elements of territory planning.
Create an approach to engage key accounts.
Calculate sales quota attainability based on account, territory, and prospect insights.
Develop business relationships and build partnerships with key roles and personas.

Customer Engagement: 15%
Demonstrate thought leadership and build credibility to shift the customer’s thinking.
Leverage multiple touchpoints to build prospect interest and align on why a solution meets their needs.
Nurture relationships and drive product adoption to maximize value for the customer.

Deal Management: 37%
Identify how to qualify a prospect and when to move to the next stage of the sales process.
Determine customer’s business strategies, goals, initiatives, and challenges to define the scope of the solution.
Develop and present the value proposition of a solution based on customer needs.
Identify and remove all challenges to finalize the deal.
Gain customer commitment and close formal contract.

Pipeline Management: 12%
Identify and generate new pipeline.
Analyze pipeline health insights ensuring data integrity to improve customer relevance.
Explain pipe progression and stage velocity.

Forecasting: 6%
Assess forecast accuracy to drive opportunity consistency.
Measure the risks and opportunities associated with a business deal.
Explain key inputs that drive the forecasting process.

Customer Success: 9%
Identify the actions needed to book and fulfill orders.
Identify the post-sales customer journey.
Assess customer realized and expected value.

Exam Candidate Code of Conduct
At Salesforce, trust is our #1 value. Protecting the security of Salesforce Credentials is up to all of us. As a participant in the Salesforce Credentialing program, you’re required to accept the terms of the Salesforce Credential and Certification Program Agreement.
Participants in the Salesforce Credentialing Program should:

Use Salesforce-approved study materials available on Trailhead to prepare for your certification exam, including: certification exam guides, trailmixes/trails, Trailhead Academy courses, and Trailhead LIVE sessions

Collaborate with other Trailblazers in the Trailblazer Community by joining a Community group and finding a study buddy and/or mentor
Review and abide by the guidelines for online proctored and in-person certification exams
Submit a case with the Credential Security Team if you see any activity that undermines credential security

Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification
One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to complete the Sales Representative certification maintenance module on Trailhead one time a year.

Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.

QUESTION 1
A sales representative presents a solution and the customer is interested in moving forward.
How can the sales rep gain the customer’s commitment and close the deal?

A. Negotiate to finalize the contract.
B. Propose and schedule an additional demo.
C. Develop a roadmap with complementary products.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Negotiating is the final stage of the sales process, where the sales rep and the customer agree on the
terms and conditions of the deal. Negotiating helps to overcome any remaining objections, address
any concerns, and close the deal with mutual satisfaction. Reference:

QUESTION 2
A sales representative is fulfilling an order using the step-by-step instructions for that specific customer
What are these instructions known as?

A. Fulfilment procedures
B. Standard operating procedures
C. Standard engagement steps

Answer: B

Explanation:
Standard operating procedures (SOPs) are detailed instructions that describe how to perform a
specific task or process. SOPs help to ensure consistency, quality, and compliance in fulfilling orders
for different customers. Reference: process

QUESTION 3
In which way should a sales representative drive trust through professional competency?

A. Asking questions to look for common interests, personal motivators, and hesitation
B. Collecting and processing information on products, competitors, and industries
C. Understanding the buyer’s experience in the market and years of service

Answer: B

Explanation:
Professional competency is the ability to demonstrate knowledge and skills that are relevant and
valuable to the customer. By collecting and processing information on products, competitors, and
Salesforce-Sales-Representative Exam

QUESTION 4
A sales representative is preparing a presentation to showcase the value proposition of their solution to a prospect.
What should be the main objective of this presentation?

A. To provide an in-depth analysis of the prospect’s competitors and market trends
B. To build credibility with the prospect using their public speaking skills and professional appearance
C. To communicate how the solution addresses the prospect’s pain points and needs, and delivers tangible return on investment (ROI)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The main objective of a value proposition presentation is to show the prospect how the solution can
solve their problems, fulfill their needs, and provide them with benefits that outweigh the costs. A
value proposition presentation should highlight the unique features and advantages of the solution,
as well as quantify the expected outcomes and ROI for the prospect. Reference:

QUESTION 5
A sales representative closed a deal with a customer 6 months ago. The customer is now
experiencing issues with the solution and the sales rep is trying to assess the customer’s realized value.
What should the sales rep do?

A. Acknowledge the customer’s concerns while trying to find easier customers.
B. Reassess the customer’s expected value based on the current situation.
C. Try to sell additional products or services to increase the realized value.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Realized value is the difference between the expected value and the actual value that the customer
receives from using the solution. If the customer is experiencing issues with the solution, the sales
rep should reassess the customer’s expected value based on the current situation, identify any gaps
or discrepancies, and work with the customer to resolve them and ensure their satisfaction.

Tech

PEGACPSA88V1 Pegasystems Certified Pega System Architect 8.8 Exam

About Pegasystems
Pega is the leader in cloud software for customer engagement and operational excellence. The world’s most recognized and successful brands rely on Pega’s AI-powered software to optimize every customer interaction on any channel while ensuring their brand promises are kept. Pega’s low-code application development platform allows enterprises to quickly build and evolve apps to meet their customer and employee needs and drive digital transformation on a global scale. For more than 35 years, Pega has enabled higher customer satisfaction, lower costs, and increased customer lifetime value.

Exam Code: PEGACPSA88V1
Certification Exam Certified Pega System Architect
Q&A : 60 Questions
Time : 1 hr 30 mins
Passing Score: 65%
Languages: English
Retirement date: N/A
Prerequisites System Architect

The Certified Pega System Architect version 8.8 certification is for developers and technical staff members who want to learn how to develop Pega applications. This certification is the first level in the System Architect certification path and provides a baseline measurement on your knowledge of Pega applications.

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Exam topics (% of exam)

Case Management (33%)
Design a case lifecycle, stages, set case statuses, add instructions to tasks
Add a service level agreement; configure urgency, goals, deadlines, passed deadlines
Route assignments to users and work queues
Configure approval processes: cascading approvals, reporting structure, authority matrix
Configure and send email correspondence
Identify duplicate cases
Identify and add optional actions
Automate workflow decisions using conditions
Pause and resume case processing; wait steps
Skip a stage or process
Configure child cases
Understand when to use automation shapes
Automate decisions using decision tables and decision trees
Create and manage teams of users

Data and Integration (23%)
Configure data types, create data objects, data relationships, and field types
Identify and create calculated values
Validate data; create and configure data validation rules by using business logic
Manipulate application data, set default property values, configure data transforms
Access sourced data in a case; refresh strategies; populate user interface controls
Save data to a system of record
Simulate and add external data sources
Capture and present data: fields and views
View data in memory: clipboard tool, pyWorkPage
Configure field values
Create and set application settings

Security (5%)
Manage user and role assignments
Configure security policies

DevOps (5%)
Record a unit test
Create and execute scenario-based test cases
Identify best practices for configuring unit tests

User Experience (12%)
Customize user interface elements: dashboards, portal content
Configure action sets
Customize form appearance, visibility settings, controls
Add and remove fields
Group fields in views
Display list data in views; configure repeating dynamic layouts
Localize application content
Enable accessibility features in an application

Application Development (12%)
Manage application development: user stories, feedback, bugs
Use the Estimator tool to scope a Pega Platform project
Create and maintain rules, rulesets, classes, inheritance
Debug application errors

Reporting (5%)
Create business reports
Identify types of reports
Use columns and filters
Describe the benefits of using Insights
Mobility (5%)
Configure mobile app channels
Use of Pega Mobile Preview
Retirement date: N/A
Prerequisites
System Architect

QUESTION 1
You notice that the scope of your project exceeds the original estimates, and the Minimum Lovable
Product (MLP) might not be delivered on time. Which team member do you contact to verify the
project plan and manage expectations for the release schedule?
Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

A. Project delivery leader
B. Lead business architect
C. Citizen developer
D. Deployment architect

Answer: A

The project delivery leader is responsible for managing the project plan, scope, budget, and timeline,
as well as communicating with stakeholders and resolving issues. The project delivery leader should
be contacted to verify the project plan and manage expectations for the release schedule when the
scope of the project exceeds the original estimates. Reference:

QUESTION 2
During testing you notice that the Send case status email step does not send an email Which work
Item do you create in Agile Workbench to address this issue?

A. Bug
B. Scenario test
C. Feedback
D. User story

Answer: A

A bug is a work item that describes an error or defect in the application that prevents it from
functioning as expected. A bug should be created in Agile Workbench to address the issue of the
Send case status email step not sending an email. Reference:

QUESTION 3
What do you configure in the Context section of a data transform rule that you create in Pega Platform?
Choices (select all choices that are correct)

A. The application layer, class, and ruleset version that the rule applies to
B. The rule types that you previously marked as relevant records
C. The case types, user portals, and personas that use the rule
D. The application name rule type label, and rule identifier

Answer: A
The context section of a data transform rule defines the scope and applicability of the rule. It
specifies the application layer, such as framework or implementation, the class that the rule applies
to, and the ruleset version that contains the rule. Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about the Constellation design system are true? (Choose two.)
Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

A. Constellation design system components are not available in the Traditional Ul architecture
B. Constellation design system is a section-based architecture
C. Constellation design system improves context switching or multitasking.
D. Constellation design system uses a modular design

Answer: C, D

The Constellation design system is a set of UI/UX templates, patterns, and components that enable
faster and easier development of Pega applications. It improves context switching or multitasking by
allowing users to work on multiple tasks in parallel using dynamic containers and tabs. It also uses a
modular design that enables reuse and customization of UI elements across applications. Reference:

QUESTION 5
An order fulfillment case type allows a customer to update user profile information during the order
placement stage The user profile consists of the following three pages
Account ID and password
Customer contact information
A list of open orders with the status of each order
How do you configure the case type to allow customers to update any of the user profile pages individually?
Available Choices (select all choices that are correct1
A. Add an alternate stage to the case life cycle.

Tech

PSE-StrataDC Palo Alto Networks System Engineer – Strata Data Center Exam Dumps

The PSE-StrataDC (Palo Alto Networks System Engineer – Strata Data Center) certification exam focuses on testing the knowledge and skills of individuals in deploying, configuring, and troubleshooting Palo Alto Networks’ Strata Data Center products and solutions. While I don’t have access to the specific details of the exam after my knowledge cutoff in September 2021, I can provide you with a general overview of the topics that are typically covered in the PSE-StrataDC exam. It’s important to note that the exam content may evolve over time, so it’s always a good idea to consult the official Palo Alto Networks website or the exam guide for the most up-to-date information. Here are some of the key topics that might be covered:

1. Strata Data Center Architecture: Understanding the architecture, components, and features of Palo Alto Networks’ Strata Data Center solutions.

2. Virtualization Technologies: Knowledge of virtualization technologies such as VMware vSphere and NSX, Citrix XenServer, Microsoft Hyper-V, and KVM.

3. Networking Concepts: Understanding fundamental networking concepts, including IP addressing, VLANs, routing, switching, and network protocols (TCP/IP, UDP, etc.).

4. Security Concepts: Familiarity with security concepts, such as firewalls, VPNs, NAT, IDS/IPS, threat prevention, and security policies.

5. Palo Alto Networks Products: Knowledge of Palo Alto Networks’ data center products, including the Panorama management platform, VM-Series virtual firewalls, and the integration with other Palo Alto Networks solutions.

6. Deployment and Configuration: Understanding how to deploy, configure, and manage Palo Alto Networks’ Strata Data Center solutions in a virtualized environment.

7. High Availability and Redundancy: Knowledge of implementing high availability and redundancy for Palo Alto Networks’ data center solutions, including active/active and active/passive configurations.

8. Troubleshooting and Maintenance: Ability to troubleshoot common issues, perform log analysis, and use debugging tools to identify and resolve problems in a Strata Data Center deployment.

9. Integration with Third-Party Solutions: Understanding the integration of Palo Alto Networks’ Strata Data Center solutions with other third-party products and solutions commonly found in data center environments.

It’s essential to consult the official Palo Alto Networks documentation, study guides, and training resources to obtain the most accurate and up-to-date information on the exam topics and objectives.

The PSE-StrataDC certification exam focuses on testing individuals’ knowledge and skills in deploying, configuring, and troubleshooting Palo Alto Networks’ Strata Data Center solutions. This comprehensive exam covers various crucial topics such as the architecture of Strata Data Center, virtualization technologies, networking concepts, security principles, and Palo Alto Networks products. Candidates are expected to demonstrate their understanding of deploying and configuring Strata Data Center solutions in virtualized environments, implementing high availability and redundancy, troubleshooting common issues, and integrating with third-party solutions. The exam aims to validate professionals’ expertise in effectively managing and securing data centers using Palo Alto Networks’ solutions, equipping them with the necessary skills to address challenges in modern data center environments.

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QUESTION 1
What is the default session distribution policy in the PA-7000 Series?

A. Hash
B. Egress-Slot
C. Round Robin
D. Ingress-Slot

Answer: D

Explanation:
(
PA-7000 Series firewalls only
) New sessions are assigned to a DP on the same NPC on which the first packet of the session arrived.
The selection of the DP is based on the session-load algorithm but, in this case, sessions are limited to the DPs on the ingress NPC.
Depending on the traffic and network topology, this policy generally decreases the odds that traffic will need to traverse the switch fabric.
Use this policy to reduce latency if both ingress and egress are on the same NPC. If the firewall has a mix of NPCs (PA-7000 20G and PA-7000 20GXM for example), this policy can isolate the increased
capacity to the corresponding NPCs and help to isolate the impact of NPC failures.

QUESTION 2
Which three deployment modes of VM-Series firewalls are supported across NSX-T? (Choose three )

A. Partner Service
B. Boot Strap
C. Prism Central
D. Tier-1 insertion
E. Tier-0 insertion

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
Which configuration is required to share NSX security groups as tags to be used by Dynamic Address Groups in a non-NSX firewall?

A. notify device groups within VMware Services Manager
B. a User-ID agent on a Windows domain server
C. VMware Information Sources
D. none, sharing happens by default

SAP, Tech

E_HANAAW_18 SAP Certified Development Specialist – ABAP for SAP HANA 2.0 Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Specialist
Exam: 40 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 56%
Duration: 90 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Development Specialist – ABAP for SAP HANA 2.0” certification exam verifies that the candidate has the knowledge of programming ABAP for SAP HANA required by the profile of an SAP ABAP development consultant. This certificate builds on both the basic knowledge gained in related ABAP-for-HANA training and documentation, as well as on practical experience gained as a member of a SAP HANA team, where the candidate would apply this knowledge practically in projects. It is highly recommended that you have passed one of these certification exams for the “SAP Certified Development Associate – ABAP with SAP NetWeaver” (C_TAW12_70, C_TAW12_71, C_TAW12_731, C_TAW12_74, C_TAW12_750). The certificate issued for passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

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Implications of SAP HANA on ABAP Programming > 12%
Realize implications of SAP HANA on ABAP Programming.
HA400 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)

SAP HANA Information Models and Database Procedures > 12%
Apply SAP HANA Information Models & Database Procedures.
HA300 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)

Guided Performance Analysis > 12%
Operate Guided Performance Analysis.
HA400 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)

Integration of SAP HANA Coding into ABAP Programs > 12%
Operate integration of SAP HANA Coding into ABAP Programs.
HA400 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)

SAP HANA Basics and Technical Concepts 8% – 12%
Identify SAP HANA Basics and Technical Concepts.
HA100 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)

SAP Development Tools for SAP NetWeaver 8% – 12%
Describe SAP Development Tools for SAP NetWeaver.
HA400 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)
BC404 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.50 SP10)

ABAP Programming based on SAP HANA Artefacts 8% – 12%
Apply ABAP Programming based on SAP HANA Artefacts.
HA400 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS06)

General Information
Exam Preparation

All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.
Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
You import an ABAP workbench request into an SAP system P81. The ABAP workbench request
contains a single SAP HANA view CA_CUSTOMER that belongs to SAP HANA content package
ZHA400_00. Which prerequisites are mandatory for an implicit deployment of the SAP HANA
view onto the database? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. View CA_CUSTOMER has deployment mode A.
B. Package ZHA400_00 has deployment mode A.
C. Package ZHA400_00 is listed in table SNHI_DUP_PREWORK.
D. System P81 has SAP HANA as primary database.

Answer: C, D

QUESTION 2
You analyze SQL Monitor data in transaction SQLMD. You know that program X accesses database table Y.
You made sure that program X was executed while the SQL Monitor collected its data.
But the relevant database access is NOT listed in SQLMD. What could be the reason? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. The data has NOT yet been transferred to the SQL Monitor database tables.
B. Program X was executed in the background.
C. Database table Y is a buffered table.
D. SQL Monitor was activated with a filter that excludes database table Y.
E. SQL Monitor was activated for a specific application server.

Answer: A, B, E

QUESTION 3
Which task can you perform with the SQL Monitor (transaction SQLM)?

A. Capture the SQL profile of an application.
B. Search for problematic SELECT * statements.
C. Display the execution plan of an SQL statement.
D. Combine static and dynamic performance analysis results.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are debugging in ABAP Development Tools in Eclipse. What features are available? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Memory usage analysis
B. Watchpoints
C. Conditional breakpoints
D. Debugger scripting

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
You are using a calculated column COUNTS within your Dimension Calculation View and an
aggregation node. See Picture…This is the data that goes into the aggregation node: What does the
result of the aggregation look like? See Pictures

A. Image 1
B. Image 2
C. Image 3
D. N/A

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is the main benefit of the SQL Performance Tuning Worklist?

A. It establishes a governance process for performance optimizations.
B. It automatically translates ABAP coding to SQLScript.
C. It allows you to correlate the results of an ABAP source code analysis with SQL runtime data.
D. It allows you to simulate the impact of performance optimization patterns.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which TADIR object type is used for the definition of a Core Data Services (CDS) view?

A. R3TR TABL
B. R3TR VIEW
C. R3TR DDLS
D. R3TR DDIC

Answer: C

Tech

156-835 Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam

The Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam (156-835) is intended for IT professionals who have experience with Check Point’s Hyperscale Network Security solution, Check Point Maestro. This exam is designed for individuals who are responsible for deploying, managing, and troubleshooting large-scale network security environments using Check Point Maestro.

Typical candidates for this exam may include network administrators, security administrators, security engineers, and network architects who are responsible for designing, implementing, and managing large and complex network security infrastructures. To take the exam, candidates should have a strong understanding of networking concepts, network security principles, and Check Point Maestro architecture and functionality.

If you are interested in pursuing a career in network security or you are responsible for managing large-scale network security environments using Check Point Maestro, the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam may be a good fit for you.

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However, Certkingdom can give you an idea of the topics and concepts that are covered on the exam. According to Check Point, the exam covers the following topics:
Check Point Maestro Overview
Planning and Deployment of Check Point Maestro
Check Point Maestro Architecture and Components
Check Point Maestro Management and Operations
Check Point Maestro High Availability and Disaster Recovery
Check Point Maestro Security Management

To prepare for the exam, you should study these topics in-depth and review official Check Point training materials and study guides. You can also take practice exams and participate in online forums to test your knowledge and connect with other professionals.

The Check Point Certified Maestro Expert (156-835) exam is designed to validate the skills and knowledge of candidates in deploying, managing, and troubleshooting Check Point Maestro, a Hyperscale Network Security solution.

Here are some key details about the 156-835 exam:
Exam format: The exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions and is administered online through Pearson VUE.
Time limit: Candidates have 120 minutes (2 hours) to complete the exam.
Passing score: To pass the exam, candidates must score at least 70%.
Prerequisites: Candidates must have a valid Check Point Certified Maestro Administrator certification before taking the exam.

Exam objectives:
The exam covers a range of topics related to Check Point Maestro, including architecture and deployment, management and administration, monitoring and troubleshooting, and advanced features and optimization.

Exam preparation: To prepare for the exam, Check Point recommends attending the Check Point Maestro Expert Training course, which covers the exam objectives in detail. Additionally, candidates can use the official Check Point study guide and practice exams, as well as other training resources and online forums.

Certification validity: The Check Point Certified Maestro Expert certification is valid for two years. Candidates must recertify by passing a relevant exam or completing continuing education credits before the certification expiration date.

To prepare for the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam (156-835), you can use a variety of resources, including official Check Point training courses, study guides, practice exams, and online forums. Here are some options:

Check Point Maestro Expert Training: Check Point offers an official training course designed to prepare candidates for the exam. This course covers the exam objectives in detail and provides hands-on practice with Check Point Maestro. You can attend this training either in-person or online.

Check Point Certification Study Guides: Check Point also offers official study guides that cover the exam objectives in detail. These guides include practice questions and answers to help you prepare for the exam.

Practice Exams: Check Point offers official practice exams that simulate the actual exam experience. These exams include questions and answers that are similar to what you can expect on the actual exam.

Online Forums: You can also find online forums where you can connect with other Check Point professionals and discuss exam preparation strategies, ask questions, and share experiences.

By using a combination of these resources, you can increase your chances of passing the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam and gaining valuable skills and knowledge in Check Point Maestro.

 

QUESTION 1
For a VSX configuration -“ Which statement is wrong?

A. All Virtual Systems exist on the SMO
B. All Virtual Systems exist on all Appliances
C. VSX configuration is the same on all Appliances within the same Security Group
D. Each Appliance owns different Virtual Systems

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
There are two 10Gbps dual-port NIC installed on a 6800 appliance. Which interfaces should be connected to Orchestrator 1 for downlinks’ intra-orchestrator redundancy when using two Orchestrators?

A. Port 1 in Slot 1 and Port 2 in Slot 1
B. Port 1 in Slot 2 and Port 2 in Slot 1
C. Any pair of available ports
D. Port 1 in Slot 1 and Port 1 in Slot 2

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of RJ-45 connectors located at the front panel of the Orchestrator MHO-170?

A. Two Out-of-band interfaces for access to Orchestrator itself
B. Out-of-band interface for access to Orchestrator itself and Serial Console connector
C. 1Gbps connectivity for Security Groups
D. Reserved for internal purposes. Not in use

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Splitter cannot be used __________.

A. To connect single port on orchestrator to multiple Appliances
B. To connect single port on Appliance to multiple ports on the orchestrator
C. To connect single port on orchestrator to the same Appliance
D. To connect single port on orchestrator to multiple port on external switch

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What will happen in case of NAT of the traffic passing through Management network?

A. This traffic will not pass correction, since it will be dropped
B. This traffic will pass with no inspection
C. Since Management traffic is always going to SMO, it will take a care for Correction Layer and will re-distribute traffic to other Appliances
D. Orchestrator will disable NAT and traffic will pass with no issue

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
One single Appliance supports 1M concurrent connections. How many concurrent connections will support Security Group of 2 Appliances?

A. 2M
B. 500K
C. 4M
D. 1M

Answer: A

Tech

NSE7_EFW-7.0 Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 7.0 Exam Dumps

Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 7.0

Exam series: NSE7_EFW-7.0
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 7.0.1, FortiManager 7.0.1, FortiAnalyzer 7.0.1
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 7 Certification
The Fortinet Network Security Architect designation identifies your advanced skills in deploying, administering, and troubleshooting Fortinet security solutions. Fortinet recommends this certification for network and security
professionals who are involved in the advanced administration and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0
The Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 7 Network Security Architect program, and recognizes the Successful candidate’s knowledge and expertise with Fortinet solutions in enterprise security
infrastructure environments.

The exam tests applied knowledge of the integration, administration, troubleshooting, and central management of an enterprise Firewall solution composed of FortiOS 7.0.1, FortiManager 7.0.1, and FortiAnalyzer 7.0.1.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0 exam is intended for network and security professionals who are responsible for the design, administration, and support of an enterprise security infrastructure composed of many

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FortiGate devices.
Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0
Exam series NSE7_EFW-7.0
Time allowed 60 minutes
Exam questions 35 multiple-choice questions
Language English and Japanese
Product version FortiOS 7.0.1, FortiManager 7.0.1, FortiAnalyzer 7.0.1

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
* System and session troubleshooting
* Implement the Fortinet Security Fabric
* Diagnose and troubleshoot resource problems using built-in tools
* Diagnose and troubleshoot connectivity problems using built-in tools
* Troubleshoot different operation modes for a FGCP HA cluster
* central management
* Troubleshoot central management issues
* Content inspection
* Troubleshoot FortiGuard issues
* Troubleshoot web filtering issues
* Troubleshoot the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
* Routing
* Troubleshoot routing packets using static routes
* Troubleshoot Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing for enterprise traffic
* Troubleshoot OSPF routing for enterprise traffic
* VPN
* Implement a meshed or partially redundant IPsec VPN
* Troubleshoot Autodiscovery VPN (ADVPN) to enable on-demand VPN tunnels between sites

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 7 Enterprise Firewall
* NSE 4 FortiGate Security
* NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure
* NSE 5 FortiManager
* NSE 5 FortiAnalyzer

Other Resources
* Fortinet Technical Documentation
* Fortinet Knowledge Base

Experience
You should be familiar with the design, administration, and support of an enterprise security infrastructure using FortiGate devices.

Exam Sample Questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit, which contains partial output from an IKE real-time debug.
The administrator does not have access to the remote gateway.
Based on the debug output, which configuration change can the administrator make to the local gateway to resolve the phase 1 negotiation error?

A. In the phase 1 network configuration, set the IKE version to 2.
B. In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AES128-SHA128 to the list of encryption algorithms.
C. In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AESCBC-SHA2 to the list of encryption algorithms.
D. In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AES256-SHA256 to the list of encryption algorithms.

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit, which shows the output of a web filtering diagnose command.
Which configuration change would result in non-zero results in the cache statistics section?

A. set server-type rating under config system central-management
B. set webfilter-cache enable under config system fortiguard
C. set webfilter-force-off disable under config system fortiguard
D. set ngfw-mode policy-based under config system settings

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibits, which show the configuration on FortiGate and partial session information for
internet traffic from a user on the internal network.
If the priority on route ID 2 were changed from 10 to 0, what would happen to traffic matching that user session?

A. The session would remain in the session table, but its traffic would now egress from both port1 and port2.
B. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port2.
C. The session would be deleted, and the client would need to start a new session.
D. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibits, which show the configuration on FortiGate and partial internet session information from a user on the internal network.
An administrator would like to test session failover between the two service provider connections.
What changes must the administrator make to force this existing session to immediately start using
the other interface? (Choose two.)

A. Configure set snat-route-change enable.
B. Change the priority of the port2 static route to 5.
C. Change the priority of the port1 static route to 11.
D. unset snat-route-change to return it to the default setting.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
What are two functions of automation stitches? (Choose two.)

A. Automation stitches can be configured on any FortiGate device in a Security Fabric environment.
B. An automation stitch configured to execute actions sequentially can take parameters from previous actions as input for the current action.
C. Automation stitches can be created to run diagnostic commands and attach the results to an email message when CPU or memory usage exceeds specified thresholds.
D. An automation stitch configured to execute actions in parallel can be set to insert a specific delay between actions.

Answer: BC

Cloud, Google, Tech

Google Professional Cloud Database Engineer Exam

Google Cloud Platform GCP is Fastest growing Public cloud. Professional Cloud Database engineer certification is the one which help you to advance your career in Cloud Computing & learn about different offering by GCP in database.

Do you want to learn about the how to store terabyte to petabytes scale data in a structured or semi structured manner inside GCP environment .
You want to learn where YouTube & Gmail kind of billion user app store their data.
Do you want to learn about database which can handle billion of request in a second.
Do you want to learn about different Google cloud database product like cloud SQL, spanner, datastore, firestore, bigtable, alloydb.
If yes, You are at right place.
Cloud is the future and GCP is Fastest growing Public cloud.
87 percentage of Google Cloud certified individuals are more confident about their cloud skills.
More than 1 in 4 of Google Cloud certified individuals took on more responsibility or leadership roles at work.
Google Cloud Professional Database Engineer Certification is the best to invest time and energy to enhance your knowledge about GCP Database.

Professional Cloud Database Engineer
A Professional Cloud Database Engineer is a database professional with two years of Google Cloud experience and five years of overall database and IT experience. The Professional Cloud Database Engineer designs, creates, manages, and troubleshoots Google Cloud databases used by applications to store and retrieve data. The Professional Cloud Database Engineer should be comfortable translating business and technical requirements into scalable and cost-effective database solutions.

The Professional Cloud Database Engineer exam assesses your ability to:
Design scalable and highly available cloud database solutions
Manage a solution that can span multiple database solutions
Migrate data solutions
Deploy scalable and highly available databases in Google Cloud

About this certification exam
Length: 2 hours
Registration fee: $200 (plus tax where applicable)
Language: English
Exam format: 50-60 multiple choice and multiple select questions

Exam Delivery Method:
a. Take the online-proctored exam from a remote location.
b. Take the onsite-proctored exam at a testing center.
Prerequisites: None

Recommended experience: 5+ years of overall database and IT experience, including 2 years of hands-on experience working with Google Cloud database solutions

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Exam overview
1. Get real world experience
Before attempting the Cloud Database Engineer exam, it’s recommended that you have 2+ years of hands-on experience working with Google Cloud database solutions. Ready to start building? Explore the Google Cloud Free Tier for free usage (up to monthly limits) of select products.

Try Google Cloud Free Tier

2. Understand what’s on the exam
The exam guide contains a complete list of topics that may be included on the exam, helping you determine if your skills align with the exam.

3. Review the sample questions
Review the sample questions to familiarize yourself with the format of exam questions and example content that may be covered on the Cloud Database Engineer exam.

4. Round out your skills with training
Follow the learning path

Prepare for the exam by following the Cloud Database Engineer learning path. Explore online training, in-person classes, hands-on labs, and other resources from Google Cloud.

Additional resources
Your Google Cloud database options, explained
Database modernization solutions
Database migration solutions
In-depth discussions on the concepts and critical components of Google Cloud
Google Cloud documentation
Google Cloud solutions

5. Schedule an exam
Register and select whether to take the exam remotely or at a nearby testing center.
Review exam terms and conditions and data sharing policies.

QUESTION 1
You are developing a new application on a VM that is on your corporate network. The application will
use Java Database Connectivity (JDBC) to connect to Cloud SQL for PostgreSQL. Your Cloud SQL
instance is configured with IP address 192.168.3.48, and SSL is disabled. You want to ensure that your
application can access your database instance without requiring configuration changes to your
database. What should you do?

A. Define a connection string using your Google username and password to point to the external
(public) IP address of your Cloud SQL instance.

B. Define a connection string using a database username and password to point to the internal
(private) IP address of your Cloud SQL instance.

C. Define a connection string using Cloud SQL Auth proxy configured with a service account to point
to the internal (private) IP address of your Cloud SQL instance.

D. Define a connection string using Cloud SQL Auth proxy configured with a service account to point
to the external (public) IP address of your Cloud SQL instance.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your digital-native business runs its database workloads on Cloud SQL. Your website must be globally
accessible 24. You need to prepare your Cloud SQL instance for high availability (HA). You want to
follow Google-recommended practices. What should you do? (Choose two.)

A. Set up manual backups.
B. Create a PostgreSQL database on-premises as the HA option.
C. Configure single zone availability for automated backups.
D. Enable point-in-time recovery.
E. Schedule automated backups.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION 3
Your company wants to move to Google Cloud. Your current data center is closing in six months.
You are running a large, highly transactional Oracle application footprint on VMWare.
You need to design a solution with minimal disruption to the current architecture and provide ease of migration to
Google Cloud. What should you do?

A. Migrate applications and Oracle databases to Google Cloud VMware Engine (VMware Engine).
B. Migrate applications and Oracle databases to Compute Engine.
C. Migrate applications to Cloud SQL.
D. Migrate applications and Oracle databases to Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE).

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your customer has a global chat application that uses a multi-regional Cloud Spanner instance.
The application has recently experienced degraded performance after a new version of the application
was launched. Your customer asked you for assistance. During initial troubleshooting, you observed
high read latency.
What should you do?

A. Use query parameters to speed up frequently executed queries.
B. Change the Cloud Spanner configuration from multi-region to single region.
C. Use SQL statements to analyze SPANNER_SYS.READ_STATS* tables.
D. Use SQL statements to analyze SPANNER_SYS.QUERY_STATS* tables.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has PostgreSQL databases on-premises and on Amazon Web Services (AWS). You are
planning multiple database migrations to Cloud SQL in an effort to reduce costs and downtime. You
want to follow Google-recommended practices and use Google native data migration tools. You also
want to closely monitor the migrations as part of the cutover strategy. What should you do?

A. Use Database Migration Service to migrate all databases to Cloud SQL.
B. Use Database Migration Service for one-time migrations, and use third-party or partner tools for change data capture (CDC) style migrations.
C. Use data replication tools and CDC tools to enable migration.
D. Use a combination of Database Migration Service and partner tools to support the data migration strategy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are setting up a Bare Metal Solution environment. You need to update the operating system to
the latest version. You need to connect the Bare Metal Solution environment to the internet so you
can receive software updates. What should you do?

A. Setup a static external IP address in your VPC network.
B. Set up bring your own IP (BYOIP) in your VPC.
C. Set up a Cloud NAT gateway on the Compute Engine VM.
D. Set up Cloud NAT service.

Answer: C