E20-598 Backup and Recovery – Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators Exam


QUESTION 1
Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?

A. Atomic
B. Root
C. Composite
D. Metadata

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file cache?

A. 20
B. 24
C. 40
D. 44

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation/Reference:
The most important thing to do on a client with so many files is to make sure that the file cache is sized
appropriately. The file cache is responsible for the vast majority (>90%) of the performance of the vamar
client. If there’s a file cache miss, the client has to go and thrash your disk for a while chunking up a file that
may already be on the server.
So how to tune the file cache size?
The file cache starts at 22MB in size and doubles in size each time it grows. Each file on a client will use 44
bytes of space in the file cache (two SHA-1 hashes consuming 20 bytes each and 4 bytes of metadata). For 25
million files, the client will generate just over 1GB of cache data.
http://jslabonte.blogspot.com/2013/08/avamar-and-large-dataset-with-multiples.html


QUESTION 3
What are three types of EMC Avamar hashes?

A. Composite, Root, and Atomic
B. Root, Atomic, and Index
C. Composite, Atomic, and Stripe
D. Root, Atomic, and Parity

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 4
What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?

A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication
B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check
C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints
D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 5
The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This results in the
following:
Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%
Four (4) that will compress at 23%
Two (2) chunks at 50% compression
How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?

A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation/Reference:
vamar, has a rather nifty technology called Sticky Byte Factoring which allows it to identify the changed
information inside a file by breaking the file into variable length objects, this leads to much greater efficiency
than fixed size approaches as changes made early in a fixed length sequence affect all subsequent blocks/
chunks/objects/whatever in that sequence. This in turn changes all the fingerprints taken following the changed
data which means you end up with a lot of new blocks/chunks/objects/whatever even if the data really hasn’t
changed all that much. Sticky Byte Factoring on the other hand can tell what exactly has changed, not just that things have changed.

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1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations

We are committed to helping you clear your Citrix 1Y0-402 Certification exam. You can easily pass Citrix Certified Expert Virtualization (CCE-V) using our online preparation platform which provides 1Y0-402 practice exam. Our team of experts has designed this practice exam based on their 10+ years of experience in the Virtualization domain and expertise in Citrix Technology. We have carefully maintained weights of CCE-V syllabus topics, exam pattern, timed exam environment, and scoring system same as the actual Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment Design and Advanced Configurations (1Y0-402) exam. Our experts have included practical and scenario-based questions in Citrix CCE-V practice exam; such questions are the most frequently asked in the actual 1Y0-402 Certification exam.

All the questions covered in the sample Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment Design and Advanced Configurations simulation exam are basic Citrix 1Y0-402 Certification exam questions. However, we strongly recommend practicing with our premium Citrix CCE-V practice exam, because you may get more practical and real time scenario based questions in your actual Citrix 1Y0-402 Certification exam.
 


QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the
environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery
Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been
published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with
one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent
(VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site.
The following access requirements have been identified:
Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites.
Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location.
Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different
Sites.
Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler.
No duplication of applications published from different Sites.
Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A.
The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations
to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. While designing
Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle
500 simultaneous print jobs per minute.
What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?

A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing

Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the
following user groups and requirements.
Product Managers – Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home.
They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications.
Field Sales Engineers – They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment
externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database.
Web Developers – Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to
handle resource-intensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?

A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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1Z0-931 Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist

Exam Title: Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist
Exam Number: 1Z0-931
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 63%
Validated Against: Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Certified Specialist

Autonomous Database Technical Overview
Describe the architectural components of Autonomous Database (ADB)
Describe how ADB integrates with the Oracle Cloud Platform
Articulate the key features of Autonomous Database
Describe a typical workflow for using ADB
Understand the OCI Infrastructure
Describe how database security is leveraged in ADB

Migration and Data Loading into Autonomous Database
Describe the options and considerations for migrating to ADB
Using SQL Developer to test data loading scenarios
Migrate to ADB using Data Pump
Migrate to ADB using Golden Gate
Supporting business users with Data Sync
Load data using DBMS_CLOUD

Monitoring Autonomous Database
Monitor ADB performance
Use services in ADB

Provisioning and Connectivity
Provision an Autonomous Database service
Find and download database credentials
Connect to an ADB service
Navigate the OCI console

Managing and Maintaining Autonomous Database
Manage users and user privileges in ADB
Start, stop and scale ADB
Use rest APIs to manage ADB
Use the OCI command line to manage ADB
Manage ADB Backups and Restores
Explore ADB using SQL Developer
Understand ADB for Experienced Users

Tools, Reporting and Analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)
Describe how to use ADW with 3rd party software
Describe how to use Machine Learning algorithms with ADW
Describe how to build analytic views
Explain how to use Oracle Machine Learning notebooks with ADW
Explain how to use the Oracle Analytics Cloud with ADW
Explain how to use Data Visualization Desktop with ADW
Build visualizations using Data Visualization Desktop and ADW

 


QUESTION: 1
Which is the correct subset of services offered via OCI-CLI (command line interface) for Autonomous
Database (ABD) via calls made to the OCI API’s?

A. Create, Query, Update, List, Start
B. Create, Query, List, Stop, Restore
C. Create, Get, List, Stop, Restore
D. Start, Delete, Update, Query, Stop

Answer: B


QUESTION: 2
Which three tasks by default are taken care of by the Autonomous Database?

A. Database Upgrades
B. Application User Creation
C. Backups
D. Firmware Patching
E. Data Loading

Answer: A,C,E


QUESTION: 3
Which three data dictionary views contain information about analytic view objects?

A. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_PATHS
B. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_DIM_CLASS
C. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_ID_ATTRS
D. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_LVLGRPS
E. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_KEYS

Answer: B,D,E


QUESTION: 4
What are three methods to load data into the Autonomous Database?

A. Transportable Tablespace
B. Oracle Data Pump
C. RMAN Restore
D. Oracle GoldenGate
E. SQL*Loader

Answer: B,D,E


QUESTION: 5
Which of these database features is NOT part of the Autonomous Database?

A. Flashback Database
B. Java in the Database
C. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
D. Online Indexing

Answer: C

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1Z0-1003 Oracle Field Service Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials Exam

Exam Title: Oracle Field Service Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1003
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 67%
Validated Against: Oracle Field Service Cloud 2019 Implementation Specialist

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Resources and Resource Types
Describe Resource Types and Roles
Configure Resource Types
Configure resources for Routing

Time Windows
Describe Time Slots, Service Windows, SLAs, and Delivery Windows

Inventory Types
Describe Inventory Types, consumption and management


Business Rules

Configure Business Rules settings

Work Zones

Describe the concepts of Work Zones

Display Settings

Configure OFSC Core Application display settings

Activity Link Templates

Create an Activity Link Template

OFSC APIs

Explain OFSC API capabilities
Create a Core REST API request

Routing

Describe Run Schedule, Assignment Parameters, and filtering options
Describe routing reoptimization
Configure a Routing Plan

Notification Engine

Describe the various launch conditions
Configure a Message Scenario

Service Requests

Configure a Service Request

User Types

Configure OFSC Core Application Screens
Configure User Types

Activity Types

Describe Activity Type Features
Configure Activity Types

Fields and Custom Properties

Describe the four types of custom properties and native system fields
Create a custom property

Work Skills

Describe the concepts of Work Skills and Work Skill Conditions
Configure a Work Skill and associated Conditions

Resource Calendars

Configure resource calendars

Outbound Integration Channels

Explain the options available within Outbound Integration Channels

Filters

Explain the usage of filters within OFSC
Create a filter

Statistics Parameters

Explain Duration and Travel Statistics and their parameters

Quota, Capacity and Booking

Describe Quota, Capacity and Booking Options
Configure Quota Management for Capacity Areas

Collaboration

Describe Collaboration features and usage

Plug-in Framework

Understand the capabilities of the mobility framework

QUESTION: 1
Which two default attributes serve as stand-alone keys for work zones?

A. Service Code
B. Completion Code
C. Fault code
D. Zip code
E. Travel area
F. City

Answer: D,E

QUESTION: 2
A customer wants to configure the OFSC GUI to show when a resource has not activated their route
by the exact planned shift start time and send an email to the resource’s supervisor.
Which two options are true regarding how this requirement is supported?

A. Configuring a message scenario using the launch condition “Route is not activated” will also
enable the Alert Setting “Route has not been started x minutes after the start time of resource work day”.

B. The Alert Setting “Route has not been started x minutes after the start time of resource work day”
should be configured for 1 minute(s).

C. The Alert Setting “Route has not been started x minutes after the start time of resource work day”
should be configured for 0 minute(s).

D. The configuration related to email notification must be performed in the Message Scenarios.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION: 3
A utility company sees several “New Connect” activities being dropped into the routing bucket during the day.
They want “Meter Read” activities to be removed from the technician’s route so that the “New
Connect” activities can be assigned if the technician qualifies for the activity
They enabled reoptimization in their route plan and created a reoptimization filter targeting the
“Meter Read” activities.
What additional settings are required in the route plan to meet the desired behavior?

A. Set the reoptimization goal to “Assign high priority activities”. Then set cost of not assigning an
activity for “Meter Read” on activities in existing routes to “High”, whereas cost of not assigning an
activity for “New Connect” in activities in the routing bucket to “Low”.

B. Set the reoptimization goal to “Reduce Overdue”. Then set cost of not assigning an activity for
“Meter Read” on activities in existing routes to “High”, whereas cost of not assigning an activity for
“New Connect” in activities in the routing bucket to “Normal”.

C. Set the reoptimization goal to “Assign high priority activities”. Then set cost of not assigning an act
or “Meter Read” on activities in existing routes to “Low”, whereas cost of not assigning an activity for
“New Connect” in activities in the routing bucket to “High”.

D. Set the reoptimization goal to “Assign high priority activities”. Then set cost of not assigning an
activity for “Meter Read” on activities in existing routes to “Highest”, whereas cost of not assigning
an / for “New Connect” in activities in the routing bucket to “Normal”.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
A technician has been assigned a scheduled activity that he or she needs to perform later in the day.
Their company has a policy that their technicians perform some advance testing as an administrative task prior to the activity.
Which option would enable them to account for their time performing these tasks?

A. selecting “Prework” from within the activity In OFSC Mobility
B. adding a new “Prework” custom property to the “Edit/View activity” context in OFSC Mobility
C. creating a “start-after” link template between the preliminary work and the scheduled work
D. creating a “start-before” link template between the preliminary work and the scheduled work

Answer: B

QUESTION: 5
A customer has found that there are some instances where their technicians have recorded either
exceptionally short (for example, “one-minute-wonders”) or long (for example, they forgot to set the
status to “complete”) activity durations.
Given the importance of accurate data in a time-based self-learning system, which two constraints
are in place and can be modified to ensure that outlier circumstances such as these do not affect
future activity duration estimations?

A. “Minimum relevant duration time in minutes” and “Maximum relevant duration time in minutes”
B. “Personalize the estimation of activity duration” and “Initial ratio of activity duration”
C. “Lower limit for personal ratio to calculate duration” and “Upper limit for personal ratio to calculate duration”
D. “Minimum relevant travel time in minutes” and “Maximum relevant travel time in minutes”

Answer: A
 

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NS0-002 NetApp Certified Technology Associate – NCSA – HC Exam

You demonstrate a foundational understanding of NetApp® data storage systems and the products and technologies specifically designed for managing data in today’s growing hybrid cloud market. You understand technologies in storage and data management, both on-premise and in a hybrid cloud environment and have an in-depth knowledge of NetApp products and technologies used in managing data in the cloud.

NCSA-HC certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Storage Associate-HC (NS0-146) exam.

NCTA will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Technology Associate (NS0-002) exam.

To learn more about the NCSA-HC certification, please download the NCSA-HC Data Sheet or contact:

Recommended Training and Resources:
NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud curriculum
Practice Exam for NS0-002
Practice Exam for NS0-146
Reference Document (PDF)
Introduction to NetApp Porftolio
Industry Essentials: Cloud Computing
Cloud Volumes ONTAP Fundamentals
Be Prepared to know Cloud Data Services Fundamentals
Be Prepared to know OnCommand Insight Fundamentals
Reference Technical Overview of SaaS Backup for MS Office365
Insight Sessions:

1250-1 Introduction to Data Transport with NetApp Cloud Sync
1232-1 Intelligent Operations Using NetApp Cloud Insights

Industry Essentials: HCI
NetApp HCI Fundamentals
Element Fundamentals

To enroll in NetApp University training, you will need a NetApp Support Site account.

Take Your Exam
The NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud (NCSA-HC) exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days after you complete your exam.

The NetApp Certified Technology Associate (NS0-002) exam includes the following topics:

Infrastructure Concepts
Identify basic infrastructure, governance and virtualization concepts

NetApp Data Storage Software
Identify NetApp Element, NetApp ONTAP, NetApp StorageGRID, NetApp SANtricity

NetApp Cloud Solutions
Describe NetApp administration tools
Describe NetApp data mobility solutions
Identify NetApp cloud data protection
Describe NetApp Cloud Storage


NetApp Hybrid Cloud Value Proposition

Describe the business benefits of the NetApp Data Fabric
Identify the consumption model options for NetApp Hybrid Cloud solutions


Have a question? Contact us.

The NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud (NS0-146) exam includes the following topics:

Flash Fundamentals
Storage Fundamentals
Network Fundamentals
Virtualization Technology Fundamentals
Cloud Fundamentals
NetApp Products
ONTAP Fundamentals (including NAS and SAN)
Technical overview knowledge of:
AltaVault
StorageGRID
OnCommand Management Solutions

Configuration and Administration basic knowledge for:
Cloud storage solutions
ONTAP Cloud or Cloud Manager
AltaVault

QUESTION: 1
Your existing virtual environment is stored on a NetApp AFF array. You want to reduce the capacity
utilization on this array while taking advantage of highly scalable cloud storage.
Which ONTAP feature should you enable to satisfy these requirements?

A. FlexClone
B. StorageGRID
C. FlexCache
D. FabricPool

Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
What are three benefits of using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP? (Choose three.)

A. storage efficiencies
B. serverless compute
C. automatic backup
D. automatic tiering
E. SnapMirror capabilities

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION: 3
Which statement is true regarding application containerization?

A. Application containerization is designed for massive data sets.
B. Application containerization increases performance of virtual machines.
C. Application containerization requires the Linux operating system.
D. Application containerization provides increased portability.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
Which type of service is an Amazon EC2 instance?

A. networking
B. storage
C. compute
D. switch

Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
Which service does Cloud Volumes ONTAP tiering use?

A. Azure Stack
B. Azure Queue Storage
C. Azure Data Lake Storage
D. Azure Blob

Answer: D

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1Z0-1042 Oracle Cloud Platform Application Integration 2019 Associate Exam

Exam Title: Oracle Cloud Platform Application Integration 2019 Associate
Exam Number: 1Z0-1042
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 105 Minutes
Number of Questions: 50
Passing Score: 66%
Validated Against:
Associated Certification Paths Oracle Cloud Platform Application Integration 2019 Certified Associate

Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Oracle Application Development Cloud Services Learning Subscription

Unlimited Cloud Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Our certification exams are revised regularly to align with training and product release updates. Information about exam revisions and new topics are found on this page under ‘Validated Statement’ and within the exam topics below. Certifications reflect validated skills for the year and product release version date of achievement. If you are preparing for this exam, we recommend you check these topics periodically to ensure your exam prep covers any new topics that may be added based on regular exam revision.

Getting Started with Oracle Cloud Application Integration
Describe the key features & components of Application Integration
Explain Application Integration concepts
Describe Application Integration Architecture
Explain WSDL, XML/SOAP, WS, and REST/JSON functionality

Working with Service-Oriented Architecture Cloud Service (SOACS)
Describe Concepts of Service orchestration, Adapters, Routing, and Security Policy
Manage Events processing
Explain Enterprise Service Bus
Describe Mediatiors
Manage ESS – Enterprise Scheduler Services
Perform Administration and Deployment
Describe the concepts of SOA adapters and Cloud Adapters for SOA Cloud
Perform actions on user interfaces of Oracle SOA Cloud and manage the life cycle of SOA Cloud instances
Build and deploy composite applications to Oracle SOA Cloud
Understand Oracle Managed File Transfer on OCI

Process Cloud Service
Explain how to develop business processes
Create Human Tasks and Web Forms
Manage Application Data
Create Decisions
Create Business Rules
Integrate with Applications and Services

Working with application integration (Oracle Integration Cloud – OIC)
Explain how to configure OIC Environment, perform ICS administration tasks, and manage security certificates
Create connections (to external systems)
Create Integrations/Orchestrations
Map Data (and Import mappings from Jdeveloper)
Create Lookups and Packages
Monitor/Manage Integrations (to include importing Prebuilt Integrations)
Explain On-Prem agents / configuration (to include: Scheduling, Configuring Adapter Endpoints, debug, On Prem integration, and deploying/publishing an Integration to API Platform Cloud Service.)
Describe orchestration view options and new OIC capabilities
Explore Oracle Integration Cloud best practices

Working with Integration API Platform Cloud Service
Explain how to Stand up a Service Instance (fulfill prerequisites, create and access service instances, follow best practices)
Manage Users (user management concepts and personas, create users and groups, assign roles to users and groups)
Manage Gateways (install and configure gateway nodes, issue gateway grants, configure OAuth 2.0 Providers)
Manage APIs (implement an API, deploy to a gateway, add documentation, publish to the Developer Portal, issue API grants, apply policies)
Manage Services and Service Accounts
Use the Developer Portal (discover and register to APIs)

QUESTION: 1
What Mapper function can you use to get the lookup value in Mapping Builder?

A. GetLookupValue
B. FindLookupValue
C. LookupValue
D. SearchLookupValue

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION: 2
You provision an Oracle SOA Cloud Service instance and specify a compute shape so that the JVM
heap size for WebLogic Serve, and Load Balancer processes are determined automatically.
Which statement is correct after provisioning the instance in this scenario?

A. You can change the heap size to a maximum of 32GB.
B. You can change the heap size by logging a Oracle Cloud Support Service Request.
C. You can change the heap size by using the Weblogic Server Administration Console.
D. You cannot change the heap size once the Service Instance is provisioned.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION: 3
What policy is required to be in an API if that API is to be used under a Plan?

A. Application Rate Limiting
B. Basic Auth
C. Key Validation
D. Interface Filtering

Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
Which two statements are true about implementing an API-First strategy?

A. The API is to be developed first before any UI or new business logic are created.
B. It generally is assumed that SOAP/WSDL are the key specifications for defining the API.
C. The code to execute business logic needs to exist and be exposed as an API first before you build a strategy around it.
D. You define the API definition/contract first before any work on its implementation or any applications that use it, allowing to work in parallel.

Answer: A,B

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1Z0-1059 Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials Exam

Exam Title: Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1059
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 105 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2019 Certified Implementation Specialist

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Revenue Management Overview
Explain Revenue Principles (including new revenue recognition guidance under ASC 606 and IFRS 15)
Explain Revenue Management Integration Requirements

Standalone Selling Prices
Setup Revenue Management and configure standalone pricing

Revenue Management Reporting
Explain how to create OTBI reporting objects
Explain delivered reports uses and processes

Revenue Management Setup and Configuration
Configure Revenue Management Cloud Services

Revenue Contracts
Manage contracts and Revenue


 

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HP2-H88 Selling HP Business Personal Systems Hardware 2019 Exam

HP2-H88 Selling HP Business Personal Systems Hardware 2019 Exam

QUESTION: 1
What is the major security concern associated with company employees working to public areas offices, and how does HP address it?

A. phishing attacks, which can be available with HP Sure Click
B. visual hacking which can be prevented with HP sure View
C. virus attacks, which can be lessened with HP Sure Run
D. malware attacks, which can be mitigate with HP Sure Start

Answer: D

QUESTION: 2
How does HP meet the “everything as a service” demand of rapid urbanization?

A. with HP DaaS (Device as a Service)
B. with HP STS (Smart Technologies Service)
C. with HP CPaaS (Computing Power as a Service)
D. with HP CSaaS (Cloud Solutions as a Service)

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
What does the HP Image Assistant Gen3 do?

A. It updates and maintains software and security settings across a fileet of PCs and HP Enterprise printers.
B. It monitors key processes, alerts both users and IT of any changes, and restarts them automatically.
C. It helps with real-time malware protection using deep neural nets.
D. It helps develop and maintain an up-to-date software image that has the latest patches and upgrades.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
Your healthcare customer has overburdened IT staff and inadequate IT resources, but they have a
growing need to migrate their devices from Microsoft Windows 7 to Windows 10. Which

A. HP DaaS explanation is correct and relevant to this customer?
B. HP DaaS. which is a solution that combines hardware and premium same day support, proactive management, and services for every stage of the device lifecycle
C. HP DaaS. which is a complete solution that includes migrating from Microsoft Windows 7 to Windows 10 on all existing PCs
D. HP DaaS, which provides security and additional software to monitor the health of your PC. with reduced costs as all reporting is done automatically
E. HP DaaS. which is a complete solution that combines hardware, support, proactive management, and services for every stage of the device lifecycle to optimize IT assets and resources

Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
Which HP product has HP Sure View Gen3 as an option?

A. HP ProBook 400 G6 series Notebook PC
B. HPPro0ne600G4Ai0PC
C. HPEliteOne800G5AiOPC
D. HPChromebook14G5

Answer: C

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HP5-C07D Selling HP Workstations 2019 delta Exam

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QUESTION: 1
Which customers might be interested in an HP 4K UHD display? (Select two.)

A. film editors who need consistent color accuracy
B. high school biology students
C. business power users
D. architects creating life-like renderings of planned buildings
E. software developers working with long lines of code

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION: 2

Why is a Z mobile solution the correct solution for a photographer? (Select two.)

A. It offers intuitive interaction using pen and touch input.
B. It comes with the Solidwork ISV certification, which is required by photographers.
C. It delivers the filexibility to edit anywhere, without compromising full performance.
D. It looks nice and gives a prestigious appearance needed to attract new clients.
E. Its performance meets the 3D requirements.

Answer: D,E

QUESTION: 3

Which use cases apply to VR for primary education segment?

A. concept visualization, experimentation, computer programming, history lessons
B. social context, field trips, experimentation, concept visualization
C. dissections, cultural lessons, space exploration, computer programming
D. game development, social context, experimentation, anatomy

Answer: A

QUESTION: 4
Which statement is incorrect?

A. Multi-core memory stores frequently used program instructions to increase the general speed of a system.
B. A multi-core processor allows users to process multiple commands or work simultaneously.
C. Non-ECC memory corrects most common types of internal data corruption.
D. Professional GPUs accelerate graphics with a boost of processing power to accompany the CPU.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
Which product is correct to recommend to a professional who needs a performance and precision inking solution that tackles editing, color grading, and retouching on the go?

A. ZBook X360
B. ZBookZ15
C. ZBook15U
D. ZBook15V

Answer: D

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HP2-H91 Selling HP Workstations 2019 Exam

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Question: 1
Can you put a professional graphics card in a non-Z system?

A. Maybe it will work.
B. Yes, but performance will not be optimized.
C. Yes, and the performance will be the same.
D. No, it will not work.

Answer: D

Question: 2
Who are HP’s healthcare VR solutions partners?

A. Periopsim, DiSTI, Enduvo, Surgical Theater
B. Periopsim, PixoVR, Enduvo, Surgical Theater
C. Firsthand Technology, DiSTI, Enduvo, PixoVR
D. Periopsim, Surgical Theater, Firsthand Technology, Enduvo

Answer: C

Question: 3
How does VR help the AEC/PD with development workflows? (Select three.)

A. move from 2D to 3D
B. better match customers to designs
C. achieve better spatial awareness
D. design and develop in real-time
E. create more detailed designs

Answer: ACD

Question: 4
Which Z customers typically work most of the time, if not constantly, at their desks? (Select two.)

A. engineering students
B. oil and gas project managers
C. freelance graphic designers
D. finance traders
E. film editors

Answer: BC