Salesforce Certified Process Automation Accredited Professional Exam

Process Automation Accredited Professional Exam covers Process Automation capabilities of Salesforce. (Process Builder, Approval Process, Flow, Workflow, Einstein Next Best Action)

About the Exam
Content: 60 multiple-choice / multi-select questions
Passing Score: 41 out of 60 questions

Process Automation Accredited Professional Exam Outline

Flow Basics:
Given a scenario, choose the right automation tool
Describe how and when to use Flow Builder and Process Builder

Describe how and when to use Approvals 17%
Tools and Best Practices:
Elaborate on the capabilities, limitations, components, and elements of process automation tools
Explain the options and steps involved in creating Flows, Processes, and Approvals

Describe automation best practices 34%

**Testing, Distribution, and Monitoring: **

Identify test cases
Describe declarative distribution options

Describe monitoring capabilities including Flow Interviews 22%
**Use Cases: **


Map process automation capabilities to specific requirements for various use cases including sales, service, and portals 27%

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Exam Study Course
Exam curriculum is available on Salesforce Partner Learning Camp. Please refer to Accredited Professional Partner Community Page for details.
Process Automation Accredited Professional Exam Important Topics

Given a scenario identify the recommended process automation to be used. (Workflow vs Process Builder vs Flow)

Given a scenario identify where flow should be run is User Mode Vs System Mode

Different Screen Flow Components
How can Experience cloud users be assigned approvers

Given a scenario identify use of Apex vs Automation Tools (Flow, Process Builder)
General Flow Limits
Versions per flow: 50
Executed elements at runtime per flow: 2,000

Per Transaction Flow Limits
Flow Interviews
A flow interview is an instance of a flow, much like a record is an instance of an object. The flow interview can do many things, including look up and manipulate Salesforce data. In an interview, you can pass data into variables and other resources. The data can come from a variety of sources, such as Salesforce records that the flow queries, information that a user enters in a screen input field, or something that you manually enter.

Testing/Debug Options in Flow Builder (Run Flow as another User, Run & Debug Buttons)
Where can flows be accessed on screen
Lightning pages
Flow actions
Utility bar
Experience Builder page
Custom Lightning components
Visualforce pages
Web tabs
Custom Buttons and links
Monitor Flow & Processes
Path and Kanban
Flow Best Practices
Flow vs Workflow Rule

What automated actions can be added to an Approval Process
Automated Actions
When can a process be triggered
A record change process starts when a record is created or updated
An event process starts when a platform event message is received
An invocable process starts when something else, like another process, invokes it

Different Action Types available Process builder
Apex (Apex Method with @InvocableMethod Annotation)
@InvocableMethod(label=’yourLabel’ description=’yourDescription’)
Only one method in a class can have the @InvocableMethod annotation.
The invocable method must be static and public or global, and its class must be an outer class.
Other annotations CAN NOT be used with the InvocableMethod annotation.
Invocable methods can have 0 OR 1 AND ONLY 1 parameter.
These methods can accept only a list of X or list-of-lists of X.
primitive data types
sObject type
generic sObject type

Create a Record
Email Alerts
Flows (Autolaunched Flow)
Post to Chatter
Processes (Invocable Process)
Quick Actions
Quip
Send Custom Notification
Submit for Approval
Update Records (Any related record)
Set Time options for Scheduled Actions
Set Time for Action to Execute

X Days(Hours) After(Before) Date(Now)
Flow Types
Screen Flow
Record-Triggered Flow
Schedule-Triggered Flow
Start DateStart Date
Start TimeStart Time
FrequencyFrequency
Platform Event-Triggered Flow
Autolaunched Flow
Flow Types

Steps to use Logic Elements in a Flow (Assignment, Decision, Loop, Collection Sort)
Approval Process Actions (Initial Submission, Final Approval, Final Rejection, Recall)
Options for responding to Approval Requests (Approve / Reject Button on UI, Email, Chatter)
 


QUESTION 1
Can Formula fields be rolled up with Rollup-Summary Field?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What are Connectors in the Flow Builder?

A. Are containers that hold data values. Like variables.
B. It is the start element which can in some flows be programed to regulate when the Flow should trigger.
C. They Define the behaviour of the flow, they are the building bocks for defining various actions.
D. Are the paths defined between the various elements that represent the order of execution.

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Process Builder, Workflow and Flow: Which of them CAN’T invoke apex code?

A. Flow
B. Workflow
C. Process Builder

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the first to execute in the automation execution order?

A. Duplication Rules
B. After Triggers
C. Workflow Rules
D. Validation Rules

Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Who are the only users that in an approval post would be able to see the Approver Names and the
approval action button?

A. The members of the Team
B. The Approver
C. The Manager
D. The Owner

Answer: B

5V0-41.20 VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot Exam

Exam 5V0-41.20 : VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot
Language English
Number of Questions 36
Format Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Duration 90 Minutes
Passing Score 300

Passing Score –
VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300. Your exam may contain unscored questions in addition to the scored questions, this is a standard testing practice. You will not know which questions are unscored, your exam results will reflect your performance on the scored questions only.

VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot
The VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot badge is intended for individuals who are Technical Support Engineers at Level 1 or Level 2 and are a part of a Managed Service Provider. It is also intended for general customers who already have a solid understanding of deploying and designing the VMware SD-WAN solution and, need to be able to leverage diagnostic capabilities of the solution to do immediate troubleshooting of issues.

Product: VMware SD-WAN™ by VeloCloud®

Associated Certification: VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 2022

Exam Details
The VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot (5V0-41.20) exam which leads to the VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 2022 badge is a 36-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Exam time is 90 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Badge Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot badge is intended for individuals who are Technical Support Engineers at Level 1 or Level 2 and are a part of a Managed Service Provider. The badge is additionally intended for general customers who already have a solid understanding of deploying and designing the VMware SD-WAN solution and, need to be able to leverage diagnostic capabilities of the solution to do immediate troubleshooting of issues. Candidates who are interested in taking this badge should already have deployed VMware SD-WAN and have had experience operating a VMware SD-WAN
environment. The MOC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
Objective 1 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot profile-related issues.
Objective 2 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot connectivity issues.
Objective 3 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot underlay and overlay routing issues.
Objective 4 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot application performance leveraging the DMPO capabilities.
Objective 5 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot security and service insertion
Objective 6 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot branch activation issues.
Objective 7 Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot availability and scale issues.
Objective 8 Given a scenano, Identify and leverage diagnostic capabilities around SD-WAN Edges,
Objective 9 Given a scenario, identify licensing issues. (Not evaluated)
Objective 10 Given a scenario, identify the appropriate Edge model and appliances.(Not evaluated)

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: 1
A network administrator is tasked with enabling SD-WAN at three branch locations, A topology has been provided for reference. For each site, the administrator is having issues bringing edges online,
as another administrator has gone ahead and created a configuration ahead of time. The organization has several branch sites. One is an Internet-only site and two are Hybrid locations with both internet and MPLS. The last location is MPLS only. There are hub data center in this environment as well. Please refer to the topology.
One of the Edges at the Chicago site is unable to activate. The Edge has a red LED. What is the next troubleshooting step?

A. If the Edge is connected to its HA peer, determine if there is a link-light on the HA peer-link.
B. If the Edge is connected to the MPLS circuit, determine if the Hub is advertising gateway routes.
C. If the Edge is connected to the MPLS circuit which does not have DHCP, determine if there is a static IP configuration that needs to be applied upon activation.
D. If the Edge is connected to its HA peer, determine if underlay BGP peering is present between the two Edges.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expect. A
group of users from a few sites have reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.

A network engineer is configuring an Internet Backhaul Policy for the Chicago Branch to utilize NY’s hub as a much better source for Internet for certain SaaS applications. For an unknown reason, the network engineer is not able to select the hubs in the Internet Backhaul Policy.
What could be the reason?

A. The Dynamic Branch to Branch has not been enabled.
B. The hub is not configured with the proper IP address.
C. Dynamic Branch to Branch using gateways has not been enabled.
D. The Edge’s profile does not include Backhaul hubs as an option.

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Scenario: 2
After completing the branch activation for all required branches, the network administrator attempts
to test connectivity between the various branches and between hubs and branches. The
administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been
complete. The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity
to some of the some applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these
applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.
The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and all resources are
accessible.
Exhibit.

A technician has added Edges to an East Coast Profile. These Edges are not able to communicate via
dynamic tunnels to Edges in the West_Coast profile. The technician has noticed that some Edges are
able to establish dynamic tunnels.
What could be preventing Edges from being able to establish dynamic tunnels?

A. The profiles are not configured to allow dynamic branch to branch VPNs.
B. The profiles are configured to only allow dynamic branch to branch for Edges within the same profile.
C. None of the existing profiles have Cloud VPN enabled thus preventing dynamic tunnels.
D. Neither profile has been configured to utilize cloud gateways.

Answer: A

PEGAPCSSA86V1 Pegasystems Pega Certified Senior System Architect (PCSSA) 86V1 Exam

Exam Name Pega Certified System Architect
Exam Code PCSA
Exam Fee USD $25
Exam Duration 90 Minutes
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 65%
Format Multiple Choice Questions

About Pegasystems
Pega is the leader in cloud software for customer engagement and operational excellence. The world’s most recognized and successful brands rely on Pega’s AI-powered software to optimize every customer interaction on any channel while ensuring their brand promises are kept. Pega’s low-code application development platform allows enterprises to quickly build and evolve apps to meet their customer and employee needs and drive digital transformation on a global scale. For more than 35 years, Pega has enabled higher customer satisfaction, lower costs, and increased customer lifetime value.

Certified Pega System Architect
The Certified Pega System Architect version 8.6 certification is for developers and technical staff members who want to learn how to develop Pega applications. This certification is the first level in the System Architect certification path and provides a baseline measurement on your knowledge of Pega applications. The PCSA Version 8.6 exam includes scenario questions, multiple choice questions and drag/drop items.

Exam Code: PEGAPCSA86V1
Languages: English | French | German | Japanese | Portuguese-Brazilian | Spanish

Retirement date: September 30, 2022
Prerequisites : System Architect

Case Management (28%)

Design a case lifecycle, stages, set case statuses, add instructions to tasks
Add a service level agreement; configure urgency, goals, deadlines, passed deadlines
Route assignments to users, work groups, work queues
Configure approval processes; cascading approvals, authority matrix
Configure and send email correspondence
Identify duplicate cases
Identify and add optional actions
Automate workflow decisions using conditions
Pause and resume case processing; wait steps
Skip a stage or process
Configure child cases
Understand when to use automation shapes
Automate decisions using decision tables and decision trees
Create and manage teams of users

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Data and Integration (18%)
Configure data types, create data objects, data relationships, and field types
Identify and create calculated values
Validate data; create and configure data validation rules by using business logic
Manipulate application data, set default property values, configure data transforms
Access sourced data in a case; refresh strategies; populate user interface controls
Save data to a system of record
Simulate and add external data sources
Capture and present data; fields and views
View data in memory; clipboard tool, pyWorkPage

Security (7%)

Manage user and role assignments
Configure security policies
Track and audit changes to data

DevOps (7%)
Use unit test rules
Create and execute scenario-based test cases
Identify best practices for configuring unit tests

User Experience (16%)
Customize user interface elements, dashboards, portal content, configure action sets
Customize form appearance, visibility settings, controls
Add and remove fields
Group fields in views
Display list data in views; configure repeating dynamic layouts
Localize application content
Enable accessibility features in an application

Application Development (12%)

Manage application development; user stories, feedback, bugs
Use the Estimator to scope a Pega Platform project
Create and maintain rules, rulesets, classes, inheritance
Debug application errors

Reporting (7%)

Create business reports
Identify types of reports
Use columns and filters
Describe the benefits of using Insights

Mobility (5%)
Configure mobile app channels
Use of Pega Mobile Preview


QUESTION 1
Which two factors do you inspect to assess the general health of the adaptive models in Prediction Studio? (Choose Two.)

A. Model transparency
B. Insights
C. Performance of the models
D. Number of decisions

Answer: A,C


QUESTION 2
To enable an assessment of its reliability, the Adaptive Model produces three outputs:  Propensity. Performance and Evidence.
The performance of an Adaptive Model that has not collected any evidence is.

A. 1-0
B. null
C. 0.5
D. 0.0

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
When defining outcomes for an Adaptive Model you must define.

A. only negative behavior values
B. positive, negative and neutral behavior values
C. one or more positive behavior values
D. behavior values to be ignored

Answer: A


QUESTION 4
evidence an assessment of its viability, the Adaptive Model produces three outputs: Propensity, Performance and What is evidence in the context of an Adaptive Model?

A. The likelihood of a statistically similar behavior
B. The number of customers who exhibited statistically similar behavior
C. The number of statistical bins used to evaluate the response
D. The number of customers who have responded to the modeled offer

Answer: D


QUESTION 5
A company wants to simulate decisions that requires large amounts of data. However, the organisation’s live data is inaccessible. Your advice is to use a Monte Carlo data set. The Monte Carlo method

A. enables the company to generate random data for most of its application needs
B. generates data that the company can use as input for adaptive decisioning
C. combines external data sets into a larger data set
D. makes the organisation’s live data accessible

Answer: A

1Z0-1050-22 Oracle Payroll Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 64%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Payroll Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1050-22
An Oracle Payroll Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated a strong foundation and expertise in implementing Oracle Global Payroll. Individuals who earn this certification are able to identify key concepts of Oracle Global Payroll that determine a successful implementation, the ability to setup Global Payroll by entering data and performing common payroll processes, and use Functional Setup Manager to implement payroll.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

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Review exam topics

Payroll Concepts
Describe cloud Human Resources and the cloud payroll person models
Describe legislative data groups
Describe payroll statutory units
Create payroll users and roles

Payroll and Balance Definitions
Configure a payroll definition
Configure a balance definition
Edit payment dates

Earnings and Deduction Definitions
Create an earnings or deduction element
Explain the behavior of an element
Create element entry business rules
Configure an absence element
Add eligibility rules for an element
Create rules for retroactive changes

Payroll Payment Details
Add company payment details
Explain how to configure a payslip report
Add third-party payment details

Payroll Costing Rules
Payroll Cost Flexfield Setup
Configure various types of costing
Perform a transfer to subledger accounting and a posting to GL

Employee Level Payroll Information

Add a standard earnings entry earning or deduction to an employee
Add bank account details for an employee
Enter payroll frequency details for an employee
Manage absences for an employee
Explain how to initialize payroll balances
Manage costing for a person

Payroll Flows
Maintain Payroll Flows
Submit a payroll flow

Calculate, Validate and Correct Payroll Processes
Calculate and Verify Payroll
Confirm the status of the payroll flow
Verify the results of the costing process
Describe how to reconcile the payroll


QUESTION 1
A customer is implementing the two-tier employment model. At what level are payroll run results captured in cloud payroll?

A. Work Relationship and Assignment.
B. Assignment only.
C. Payroll Relationship and Assignment.
D. Payroll Relationship only.


Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Your customer’s bonus payments are based on a percentage of salary. Therefore, salary must be calculated before bonus in the payroll run. How do you determine the element processing sequence within a payroll run?

A. Use the default priority of the primary classification of the element.
B. Set the effective process priority within the element entries page.
C. Set the priority of the element on the element definition page.
D. Alter the sequence of the elements on the element entries page.


Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which two delivered reports can be used to view the results of a payroll run immediately after running the Calculate Payroll process? (Choose two.)

A. Payroll Activity Report.
B. Payroll Balance Report.
C. Payment Register Report.
D. Payroll Register Report.


Answer: A,B


QUESTION 4
Which two statements regarding the relationship between legal entities, legal employers, and payroll statutory units (PSU) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. PSUs are legal entities responsible for payroll tax and social insurance reporting.
B. Legal employers are legal entities responsible for paying workers.
C. A legal employer can be associated with multiple PSUs.
D. A legal entity cannot be both a legal employee and a PSU.


Answer: A,B

DEP-3CR1 PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Exam

Part 1:
Duration 90 Minutes (54 Questions)
Pass Score 63%

Part 2:
Duration 30 Minutes (6 Simulations)
Pass Score 66%

A passing score is required on both parts of this exam.

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Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:

Pass the following Product/Technology exam on or after 11/25/20:
• DEP-3CR1 PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of January 10, 2022.

Dell Technologies Partners: Achieving a certification validates capability; however, it does not imply authorization to deliver services. Services Delivery Competencies provide partners with the ability to deliver services under their own brand or co-deliver with Dell Technologies. Tiered partners are eligible to obtain services delivery competencies upon completing the specific requirements outlined in the enablement matrix. Only partners that have met these requirements should be delivering
their own services in lieu of Dell Technologies Services.

The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the PowerProtect Cyber Recovery (DC) track.
The exam assesses the knowledge and skills to deploy and manage PowerProtect Cyber Recovery and covers the concepts, features, implementation and administration, and integration with other products.

Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• PowerProtect Cyber Recovery 19.8

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Concepts (10%)
• Identify types of attacks and the importance of problem and technology limitations
• Identify the PowerProtect Cyber Recovery solution, benefits, components, and architecture
• Identify PowerProtect Cyber Recovery documentation and how to access it

PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Features (17%)
• Define the functionality of PowerProtect Cyber Recovery and management tools
• Define storage, applications, and vCenter objects in a PowerProtect Cyber Recovery environment
• Contrast the functionalities of policies and copies and how to monitor them
• Recognize the different components supported by PowerProtect Cyber Recovery (including CyberSense)

PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Implementation (27%)
• Add assets such as storage, applications, and vCenters to the Cyber Recovery UI
• Understand the requirements for production storage, and backup and recovery application
• Understand the CR Vault requirements for firewall, Docker, management host, virtual appliance, storage, and applications
• Install, upgrade, and patch the Cyber Recovery software in a vSphere and AWS environment
• Deploy CyberSense and configure to work with the Cyber Recovery software

PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Administration (20%)
• Manage assets such as storage, applications, and vCenters on the Cyber Recovery UI
• Manage, run, and schedule policies and copies
• Prepare and perform a recovery with PowerProtect Data Manager, NetWorker, and Avamar in PowerProtect Cyber Recovery
• Evaluate post-recovery operations for PowerProtect Data Manager, NetWorker, and Avamar with PowerProtect Cyber Recovery
• Define CyberSense features and benefits
• Demonstrate basic administration and CR Vault tasks in PowerProtect Cyber Recovery
• Identify and distinguish between Cyber Recovery alerts, events, jobs, users, and roles

PowerProtect Cyber Recovery Design and Integration (26%)
• Illustrate PowerProtect Cyber Recovery architecture
• Assess PowerProtect Cyber Recovery software design requirements
• Compare design considerations for Data Domain, PowerProtect Data Manager, NetWorker, and CyberSense with PowerProtect Cyber Recovery
• Recognize PowerProtect Cyber Recovery security design considerations
• Compare integration considerations for Data Domain, PowerProtect Data Manager, NetWorker, and CyberSense with PowerProtect Cyber Recovery

The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.


QUESTION 1
Which combination of objects and jobs are within a policy?

A. PowerProtect DD storage and applications, synchronization, copy, and lock
B. PowerProtect applications and DD storage, synchronization, and lock
C. PowerProtect DD storage and applications, synchronization, copy, lock, and analysis
D. PowerProtect Data Manager and applications, synchronization, and copy

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which appliance is supported as the replication target in the CR Vault?

A. DP4400
B. DP5300
C. DP8300
D. DP8800

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
What must be considered when planning and implementing a secure Cyber Recovery Vault solution?

A. Production environment can use resources from Vault environment
B. Production environment is used to run the Cyber Recovery Management Host
C. Vault and Production infrastructure must be managed by NOC
D. Vault infrastructure is completely isolated from the Production infrastructure

Answer: A


QUESTION 4
When is the lockbox passphrase required after the installation?

A. To reset the security officer’s password and the root user password
B. To perform upgrades and recoveries from the vault
C. To perform recoveries from the vault and reset the root user password
D. To perform upgrades and reset the security officer’s password

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A customer wants to use the service of an external network operation center (NOC) / security operation center (SOC) to monitor the CR Vault environment.
What is the most secure solution if the customer wants to ensure that communication is only possible to the NOC/SOC?

A. Firewall
B. Dedicated Network Link
C. Data Diode
D. VPN Tunnel

Answer: B

DES-4122 Dell EMC Specialist – Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge Exam

Certification Overview
This certification validates the ability to perform intermediate skill level tasks in installing, configuring, maintaining, and troubleshooting Dell EMC PowerEdge Server products.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:

1. Achieve one of the following certifications
• Dell Certified Professional – PowerEdge (Existing valid credentials only. Not available to earn anymore)
• Associate – PowerEdge Version 1.0
• Associate – PowerEdge Version 2.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge Version 1.0

2. Pass the following Implementation Exam
• DES-4122 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge Exam

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Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of February 18, 2022.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. *Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist – Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge track.
This exam focuses installing, administering, and troubleshooting Dell EMC PowerEdge server products.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to further study and train. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products

Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• PowerEdge Rack Servers
• PowerEdge Tower Servers

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Server Platforms (7%)
• Define chassis form factors and numbering protocol, plus Tags
• Identify server features, specifications, and their roles, and FRUs

Server Components (25%)

• Define the different processor and memory modes, memory options, and memory configurations
• Identify power options and redundancy features, thermal features, and Liquid cooling
• Explain how expansion cards are connected and the features of the GPU, NDC and OCP options
• Define storage options, RAID levels, PERC, IDSDM, and BOSS

Server Management and Configuration Tools (18%)
• Define the function of the iDRAC, login procedures, licensing, and connection methods
• Explain configuration options and Virtual Console/Media in iDRAC9
• Define the function of the LCC, access methods, and options
• Explain the role and features of the System Setup Utility and the iDRAC BIOS settings
• Explain Configuration Validation

Server Troubleshooting and Maintenance (27%)
• Explain troubleshooting guidelines, and identify LCD/LEDs and indicators
• Identify issues using the iDRAC dashboard, logs, the iDRAC troubleshooting section, and LCC options
• Explain Easy Restore, diagnostic utilities, and hardware diagnostic options
• Explain at-the-box management options

Server Security (10%)

• Define the role and function of the Trusted Platform Module
• Identify the iDRAC9 security options
• Define the role of Root of Trust, Boot Guard and Automatic BIOS recovery
• Explain the features and uses of BIOS/UEFI Recovery and the Secure Boot Certificate

Systems Management (13%)
• Describe server maintenance and update in PowerEdge system
• Identify the function of OpenManage Server Administrator
• Identify the function of the iDRAC Service Module
• Define the role of SupportAssist Enterprise and explain how to run a collection and examine the contents
• Define the role of OpenManage Enterprise, its architecture and UI
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

Recommended Training

The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take this exam.
Dell Technologies Employees, Partner and Customer audiences:
Please complete one of the following courses


QUESTION 1
What is a requirement to operate GPUs in a Dell EMC PowerEdge R740 server?

A. All GPU cards must be installed at the same time
B. All GPU cards must be of the same type but can be a different model
C. All GPU cards must be of the same type and model
D. All GPU cards must be installed on the same riser card.

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What is used by the Lifecycle Controller to directly back up the server profile on a 14G Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

A. Network share
B. vFlash SD card
C. USB Flash drive
D. IDSDM SD card

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Where is the data stored to allow Easy Restore to successfully complete a system board replacement?

A. NAND Flash module on the disk drive mid plane
B. IDSDM SD card
C. vFlash SD card
D. Serial Flash storage in the server’s front panel

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
When does a customer require the Service Tag of the Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

A. First time logging in to iDRAC
B. First time accessing the BIOS
C. Activating the OS
D. Obtaining warranty information

Answer: A
 

H12-811_V1.0 HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Exam

Highly recommend the real H12-811_V1.0 exam questions which are helpful to pass HCIA-Datacom V1.0 certification. The actual questions and answers in Huawei H12-811_V1.0 pdf file have been verified, most customers have prepared their Huawei HCIA-Datacom V1.0 exam well with the great online study materials. This video shares free H12-811_V1.0 questions demo online, you are recommended to watch this video to check the H12-811_V1.0 free questions first.

Course overview
Data communication and network basics
Build an IP network with interconnection and interworking
Ethernet switching network construction
Cyber security infrastructure and network access

What you will Learn
Understand the definition of data communication and the capability model of data communication engineers.
Understand the network reference model and the entire data communication process.
Be familiar with the VRP system and be able to perform basic operations.
Understand IPv4 address protocol and related concepts
Understand the forwarding principles of Layer 3 devices such as routers and Layer 3 switches.
Understand the concept of routing and use static route or OSPF to build a Layer 3 network.
Understand basic Ethernet concepts and describe the functions and working principles of Layer 2 switching devices.
Be familiar with common Ethernet protocols, such as VLAN, Spanning Tree Protocol , link aggregation and stacking.
Configure ACLs and AAA to provide basic security solutions for the network.
Be familiar with the NAT protocol and master the NAT configuration in different scenarios.
Master the configuration of common services on enterprise networks, such as DHCP, FTP and Telnet.
Understand basic WLAN concepts and complete basic configurations of small or medium-sized WLAN networks.
Understand basic WAN concepts and WAN solutions such as MPLS and SR.
Have general knowledge of basic concepts of enterprise network management.
Be familiar with traditional network management and SDN-based network management solutions.
Have a good command of IPv6 protocols and be able to build small-scale IPv6 networks.
Have a good command of the campus network construction process. Be able to independently construct small-sized campus networks.
Understand the basic concepts of SDN and programming automation and master the basics of Python.

Description
HCIA-Datacom V1.0 includes the following contents: Routing and switching principles, basic WLAN principles, basic knowledge of network security, basic knowledge of network management and O&M, and basic knowledge of SDN and programming automation.

Passing the HCIA-Datacom V1.0 certification will indicate that you are capable of planning, design, deployment, O&M, and optimization of small- and medium-sized campus networks.

Knowledge content :

The HCIA-Datacom V1.0 exam covers:
1. Basic knowledge of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
2. Basic principles of the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol and its implementation in Huawei routers.
3. Ethernet technology, spanning tree, VLAN, stacking technology and their implementation in Huawei switches.
4. Network security technology and their implementation in Huawei routing and switching devices.
5. WLAN technologies and basic principles and their implementation on Huawei wireless devices.
6. Basic principles of network management (such as SNMP).
7. Basic principles of WAN protocols (such as PPP) and their implementation on Huawei routers.
8. Basic knowledge of IPv6 and basic principles and implementation of ICMPv6 and DHCPv6.
9. Basic principles of SDN and implementation of Huawei products and solutions.
10. Basic principles of programming automation.

HCIA-Datacom
Exam Code: H12-811
Exam Type: Written examination
Exam Format: Single-answer Question, Multiple-answer Question, True or false, Short Response Item, Drag and Drop Item
Time: 90min
Passing Score/Total Score: 600/1000
Language: Chinese,English, Spanish

We have prepared these tests course for all those candidates who are planning of taking HCIA-Datacom exam in near future.
This is an Unofficial course and this course is not affiliated, licensed, or trademarked with Huawei Technologies Co. Ltd in any way.

Who this course is for:
Who wants to become Data Communication Engineers
Who wants to obtain the HCIA-Datacom Certification

Be familiar with PC operations.
Basic understanding of IT technologies and network knowledge

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QUESTION 1
As shown in the figure, there are three data packets captured by the administrator on the network.
Which of the following statements is incorrect? (Single choice question)
Source destination protocol info
10.0.12.110.0.12.2TCp50190>telnet[SYN]seq=0win=8192Len=0mss=146010.0.12.2 10.0.12.1
TCP telnet:50190 ï¼»SYN,ACKï¼½seg-0 Ack-1 win-8192 Len-0mss=1460
10.0.12.110.0.12.2 TCP50190>telnet(ACK)seq-1Ack=1win=81921en=0

A. None of these three data packets contain application layer data
B. These three data packets represent the three-way handshake process of TCP
C. The telnet client uses port 50190 to establish a connection with the server
D. The IP address of the telnet server is 10.0.12.1. The IP address of the telnet client is 10.0.12.2

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
The network administrator configures the RTA on the Huawei router as shown in the figure. If a user needs to be authenticated in the authentication domain “huawei”, which of the following descriptions is correct? () (Single-choice question)
(RTA) aaa
(RTA-aaa) domain huawei
(RTA-aaa-doaain huavei) authentication -schene au1
(RTA-aaa-dogairhuavel) authenticIcation-schene au2

A.Will use “authentication-scheme aul” authentication
B. “Authentication-scheme aul authentication will be used. If “au1 is deleted.”au2 authentication will be used
C. “Authentication-scheme au2 authentication will be used. If “au2” is deleted, “aul authentication will be used
D. Will use “authentication-scheme au2” authentication

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
What is wrong about the description of the information as shown in the figure? () (Single-choice question) (RI) display interface g0/0/0
GlgabltEtherneto/0/0 current state :Adainistratively DOWN Line protocol current state :DOWN

A.GigbitEthernet (/0/0 interface is connected to a wrong cable
B. The GigbitEthernet0/0/0 interface is not configured with an IP address
C. The GigbitEthernet0/0/0 interface was manually closed by the administrator
D.GigbitEthernet (0/0/0 interface does not enable dynamic routing protocol

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
As shown in the figure, it can be judged that 00e0-fc99-9999 is the specific host and MAC address learned by the switch through ARP. And the host has changed its IP address three times? () (Singlechoice question)

10.137.217.210 00e0-fc01-0203 E1/0/0
10.2.2.1 00e0-fc99-9999 Eth-Trunk 1
192.168.20.1 00e0-fc99-9999 vlan100
10.0.0.1 00e0-fc99-9999 vlan200

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
 

ADX-211 Salesforce Administer, Extend, and Automate Salesforce Exam

Exam Name Administer, Extend, and Automate Salesforce
Exam Code ADX-211

Overview

Who should take this course?
This class is ideal for current admins who hold the Salesforce Certified Administrator credential or have at least 6 months of experience administering Salesforce. This class is a great foundational course for individuals looking to earn their Salesforce Advanced Administrator credential or deepen their understanding and capabilities within Salesforce.

When you complete this course, you will be able to:
Troubleshoot and modify complex security models based on business requirements.
Identify the relationship types available in Salesforce and when each should be used.
Modify a Lightning app to meet business needs.
Increase data quality with advanced validation rules and formula functions.
Utilize Flow to solve business problems and increase productivity.
Troubleshoot flow errors stemming from the Order of Execution and invalid data inputs.
Plan and create an Approval Process.
Utilize the Order of Execution to explain why automations are running at specific times.
Determine when to configure, buy, or extend Salesforce.
Utilize advanced reporting techniques to analyze data.


Lessons and Topics

Securing Your Data

Accessing the Org
Object Permissions
Impact of Sharing
Delegated Administration

Objects, Fields, and Relationships
Create Custom Objects
Customize Fields
Master Detail and Lookup Relationships
Many to Many Relationships
Benefits of Relationship Fields
Additional Relationship Types

Increasing Efficiency with Lightning Apps
Building Lightning Applications
Selecting Tabs
Page Layout Editor
Applying Quick Actions
Record Type & Business Process

Improve Data Quality

Data Quality Lifecycle
Enforcing Data Quality
Validation Rules & Formula Functions
Eliminate Duplicates

Salesforce Flow
Identifying the Right Automation Tool
Flow Overview
Migrating to Flow
Flow and the Order of Execution

Flow: Building From Scratch
Building a Flow: The Basics
Building a Flow: Resources & Elements
Collection Management
Creating a Flow
Record-Triggered Flow
Schedule-Triggered Flow
Screen Flow
Autolaunched Flow

Flow: Considerations & Troubleshooting
Considerations
Limitations
Troubleshooting

The Approval Process
What Is an Approval Process
Create an Approval Process
Troubleshoot an Approval Process

Audit and Extend Automations
The Order of Execution
Auditing Tools
Extending Beyond Automations

Advanced Reporting
Creating Custom Report Types
Exception Reports with Cross Filters
Bucketing Data
Historical Reporting
Extending Summaries in Reports and Dashboards

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QUESTION 1
When a sales rep at Northern Trail tiers to submit a discount request on an opportunity they receive an error:
Which two consideration would cause this error?

A. This field updated is on a cross-object.
B. The approval process is assigned to a queue.
C. A validation rule prevents the field update
D. The approval assigned in the process is inactive

Answer: C, D


QUESTION 2
The sales team has requested that a new field be added to accounts called Current Customer. The default value will be No and will change “Yes” if any related opportunity is successfully closed as won.
What can an admin do to meet this requirement?

A. Configure current customer as a roll-up summary field that will recalculate whenever an opportunity is won
B. Use an Apex trigger on the Account object that sets the Current customer field when an opportunity is won.
C. Use a workflow rule on the Opportunity object that sets the current customer filed an opportunity is won.
D. Configure current customer as a text field and use an approval process to recalculate its value

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
The Marketing Manager has requested that a field be added to each account that displays the number of contacts associated with that account. The manager wants to use this field as part of an email marketing segmentation strategy. How can this requirement be met?

A. Create a custom field on the account. Use a workflow rule to update the field when contacts are added or deleted.
B. Create a custom field on the account. Use an Apex trigger to update the field when contacts are added or deleted.
C. Create a custom formula field on the account using the count() function to count the number of related contacts.
D. Create a roll-up summary field that counts the number of contacts and displays that count on the account.

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What should an administrator consider when moving approval processes using a change set?

A. Change sets do not include the approval and rejection actions from the source organization
B. Custom fields on standard objects will need to be manually added in the target organization.
C. The Unique Name of the approval process is not allowed to be changed once deployed in the target organization.
D. Change Sets do not include the order of active approval processes from the source organization.

Answer: A
 


QUESTION 5
Universal Containers purchased Field Service Lightning Licenses in Production and wants to make these license available in an active development sandbox with the minimum development impact.
How should an administrator create these licenses in the sandbox?

A. Merge Production and the sandbox using a template.
B. Use the Match Production Licenses tool.
C. Refresh the sandbox from production.
D. Submit a Salesforce support case.

Answer: C

1Z0-1049-22 Oracle Compensation Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 66%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Compensation Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1049-22
An Oracle Compensation Cloud 2021 Certified Implementation Professional exam demonstrates the required knowledge to sell and implement Oracle HCM Cloud Service solutions. Individuals who earn this certification are familiar with Base Pay, Individual Compensation, Workforce Compensation, and Total Compensation Statements.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
Elements, Balances, and Formulas
Earnings and Deduction Elements

Base Pay
Explain salary basis
Describe salary components
Manage base pay
Set up grade rates
Manage Salary Range Differentials
Explain Progression Grade Ladders
Manage Grade Ladder Groups
Perform Progression Processes
Configure Compensation Zones

Individual Compensation
Explain individual compensation plans
Describe variable allocation approvals
Configure compensation history
Manage personal contributions
Configure individual compensation

Workforce Compensation
Explain compensation plan design choices
Manage and administer compensation plans
Set up plan cycles
Configure budget page layouts
Configure performance ratings
Implement approvals
Administer compensation plans
Configure plan access
Manage compensation change statements
Configure compensation worksheets
Manage models and budgets

Total Compensation Statements
Explain total compensation statements
Manage statement definitions
Generate total compensation statements
Configure compensation items
Set up compensation categories

Workforce Compensation Plans and Batch Processes
Validate workforce compensation plans
Implement compensation processes
Execute related batch processes

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QUESTION 1
You client has a requirement that allows a salary adjustment based on the number of dependents the
employee has, and this allowance must be mapped to a separate component. Because this allowance
cannot have a logical mapping with any of the predefined components, you decide to create a new
salary component called “Family Allowance”.
Which option would you use to achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The Configure Compensation Component task in Manage plans
B. The Salary Component Lookup
C. It is not possible to achieve this, because only the delivered salary components can be used.
D. The Compensation Models

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A corporation implemented Fusion Compensation and must run a compensation cycle. The corporation has seven different active components in the salary basis. Salaries of all the employees must be updated in bulk mode.
Which statement is true about the bulk update using Integrated Workbook? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Integrated Workbook can be used to update all the seven components.
B. Only the first four active components will be loaded at a time by Integrated Workbook.
C. Only the first five active components will be loaded at a time by Integrated Workbook.
D. Only the first six active components will be loaded at a time by Integrated Workbook.

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about Base Pay? (Choose two.)

A. For Base Pay earnings elements, eligibility is determined by the salary basis that is assigned to the worker.
B. You attach elements at various levels in the Salary object hierarchy to create deductions and earnings that can be processed in a payroll run to calculate Base Pay.
C. You attach a single earnings element to each salary basis to hold Base Pay earnings, and assign a salary basis to each worker to calculate Base Pay.
D. You enter a salary basis for each worker that becomes the worker”?s Base Pay earnings.
E. For Base Pay earnings elements, eligibility is determined by the deduction basis that is assigned to the worker.

Answer: AC


QUESTION 4
Which statement is true regarding elements? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Elements have possibly multiple primary classifications, one secondary classification, and one subclassification.
B. Elements have one primary classification, one secondary classification, and one subclassification.
C. Elements have possibly multiple primary classifications, possible multiple secondary classifications, and possibly multiple subclassifications.
D. Elements have one primary classification, possibly multiple secondary classifications, and possibly multiple subclassifications.
E. Elements have one primary classification, one secondary classification, and possibly multiple subclassifications.

Answer: E

Explanation:



NSE5_FMG-7.0 Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiManager 7.0 Exam

Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiManager 7.0

Exam series: NSE5_FMG-7.0
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 7.0
Status: Available Available

Exam details: exam description
NSE 5 Certification
The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security devices. We recommend this course for network and security analysts who require
the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification
Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0

The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 5 Network Security Analyst program, and recognizes the successfu* candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiManager.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiManager configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operationa* scenarios, system configuration, device registration, and troubleshooting.

Audience

The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is intended for network and security analysts who are responsible for centralized network administration of many FortiGate devices using FortiManager.

Exam Details

Exam name Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0
Exam series NSE5_FMG-7.0
Time allowed 70 minutes

Exam Topics
Successfu* candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

* Administration
* Perform initia* configuration
* Configure administrative domains (ADOMs)
* Device Manager
* Register devices in ADOMs
* Instal* configuration changes using scripts
* Diagnose issues using the revision history
* Policy and objects
* Configure different administrative access levels using the workspace
* Perform policy and object management
* Identify ADOM revisions and database versions
* Perform the import and installation methods
* Advanced configuration
* Configure various management panes and extensions
* Implement and troubleshoot FortiManager HA
* Configure FortiGuard services
* Use the globa* ADOM to envelop policy packages
* Troubleshooting
* Troubleshoot FortiManager deployment scenarios
* Troubleshoot import and installation issues
* Troubleshoot policy and object management
* Troubleshoot device settings

Training Resources

The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 5 FortiManager 7.0

Other Resources
* FortiManager Administration Guide 7.0.1
* FortiManager New Features Guide 7.0.0
* FortiManager CLI Reference 7.0.1

Experience
* Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Exam Sample Questions

Experience
Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Who this course is for:
Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiManager 7.0

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the scheduled backup of FortiManager are true? (Choose two.)

A. It does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.
B. It can be configured using the CLI and GUI.
C. It backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.
D. It supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.

Explanation:

Answer: AD
Reference:
https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/collections/fortinet/fortimanager/fmgr_system_backup_alls
ettings_module.html


QUESTION 2
In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.
B. The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.
C. By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.
D. The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the unregistered device
manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard

Explanation:

Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager.0.0/administrationguide/
718923/root-adom


QUESTION 3
You are moving managed FortiGate devices from one ADOM to a new ADOM.
Which statement correctly describes the expected result?

A. Any pending device settings will be installed automatically
B. Any unused objects from a previous ADOM are moved to the new ADOM automatically
C. The shared policy package will not be moved to the new ADOM
D. Policy packages will be imported into the new ADOM automaticallyD
Answer: C

Explanation:


Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiManager/Technical-Note-How-to-move-objectsto-
new-ADOM-on-FortiManager/ta-p342


QUESTION 4
In the event that the primary FortiManager fails, which of the following actions must be performed to return the FortiManager HA to a working state?

A. Secondary device with highest priority will automatically be promoted to the primary role, and manually reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device
B. Reboot one of the secondary devices to promote it automatically to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
C. Manually promote one of the secondary devices to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
D. FortiManager HA state transition is transparent to administrators and does not require any reconfiguration.

Answer: C

Explanation:
FortiManager_6.4_Study_Guide-Online” page 346

Explanation:
FortiManager HA doesn’t support IP takeover where an HA state transition is transparent to administrators. If a failure of the primary occurs, the administrator must take corrective action to resolve the problem that may include invoking the state transition. If the primary device fails, the administrator must do the following in order to return the FortiManager HA to a working state:
1. Manually reconfigure one of the secondary devices to become the primary device
2. Reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device