EADA105 ArcGIS Desktop Associate 10.5 Exam

Exam Details
Number of questions: 80
Certification code: EADA105
Published date: June 2017
Exam state: Available to public

About this Certification
The ArcGIS Desktop Associate exam tests the candidate’s experience applying ArcGIS concepts and processes to workflows. Candidates should demonstrate proficiency when using ArcGIS to visualize, manage, and analyze geospatial data. Qualified candidates should have two or more years of applied experience, and should be proficient in best practices and uses of Esri’s ArcGIS technologies.

QUALIFICATIONS
A qualified candidate should be able to perform the following tasks:
• Apply advanced map visualization (quantitative and qualitative) and cartographic methods and techniques
• Construct a map using available datasets and services
• Create new spatial datasets from analysis of existing datasets
• Work with layer properties and tables, and apply editing workflows
• Describe the basic types of geographic data
• Select the datasets necessary to perform a specific analysis
• Author and share content online
• Share data through layer and map packages
• Convert data from different formats
• Evaluate the suitability of a dataset
• Use an existing model or script
• Manipulate data between different projections
• Apply established workflows to correct issues with projections and transformations in ArcGIS Desktop
• Manipulate time-enabled data
• Enable and use editor tracking
• Author Python expressions from a list of available functions
• Publish hosted layers
• Share content to apps across the ArcGIS Platform
• Create a model for a repeatable process
• Use ArcGIS Pro tasks
• Use ArcGIS Online maps and apps

A qualified candidate should be familiar with the following tools:
• ArcGIS Platform components
• ArcGIS Desktop (ArcCatalog 10.5, ArcMap 10.5 and ArcGIS Pro 1.4)
• ArcGIS Spatial Analyst extension
• ArcGIS Network Analyst extension
• ArcGIS 3D Analyst extension
• ArcGIS Enterprise 10.5
• ArcGIS Online
• Collector for ArcGIS

A qualified candidate should NOT be expected to perform the following tasks:
• Administer a database
• Administer ArcGIS Enterprise
• Author ArcGIS Pro tasks
• Create advanced database structures
• Troubleshoot computer/network systems upon which ArcGIS Desktop is implemented
• Python programming of each skill. Specific preparation resources are available to assist with refreshing in areas where any knowledge gaps are found. Data Management
• Compare and contrast various types of vector and raster datasets supported in ArcGIS
• Choose and apply an appropriate coordinate system to preserve the desired spatial properties
• Given a scenario, determine how to convert and load data into a geodatabase
• Apply spatial and attribute data validation
• Given a scenario, determine which geodatabase type to use
• Given a scenario, determine how ArcGIS platform components are used to manage data
• Given a scenario, determine the appropriate existing geodatabase elements to use
• Manage raster data
• Manage tables
• Manage vector data
• Determine how to maintain item metadata Data Manipulation
• Use the editing workflow to create, modify, and delete 2D and 3D features
• Resolve the root cause of a data alignment problem
• Given a scenario, determine appropriate loading process, tools, and environment for loading data into a feature class or table
• For a given scenario, apply a SQL query
• Determine how to repair a broken data source
• Determine how to evaluate and repair data Visualization
• Identify how to control the coordinate system and geographic transformation in ArcGIS Desktop
• Manage layer properties
• Determine how to visualize temporal, ranged, or 3D data Sharing
• Identify how to export data and maps to different formats
• Choose how to share content across the ArcGIS Platform
• Identify the purpose for metadata and properties required for sharing
• Determine how to create and manage map layouts and map book Analysis and Geoprocessing
• Compare the properties of relates, relationship classes, joins, and spatial joins
• Given a scenario, determine the appropriate geoprocessing tool to use
• Given a complex workflow, use ArcGIS Pro tasks, batch processing or models
• Select an appropriate coordinate system for a given analysis
• Identify analysis tools available from ArcGIS Online
• Identify ArcGIS Enterprise portal-based analysis services
• Apply raster functions for raster and image processing

A qualified candidate should be familiar with the following software:
• ArcGIS Desktop (ArcCatalog 10.5, ArcMap 10.5 and ArcGIS Pro 1.4)
• ArcGIS Spatial Analyst
• ArcGIS Network Analyst
• ArcGIS 3D Analyst
• ArcGIS Enterprise 10.5
• ArcGIS Online
• Collector for ArcGIS

PREPARATION RESOURCES
The following training resources are available to help you prepare for your exam but are not required.
Please utilize this list of preparation resources with the list of “skills measured” topics so you can identify appropriate training options for any possible knowledge gaps.
Please note that completing the recommended training courses does not guarantee that you will achieve the requirements for a specific certification exam.

Learning Plan

Esri ArcGIS Desktop Assiciate Certification 10.5
Books from Esri Press
Getting to Know ArcGIS, Fourth Edition
Lining Up Data in ArcGIS: A Guide to Map Projections, Second Edition
Getting to Know ArcGIS Pro
Other Online Resources
ArcGIS Desktop: Documentation

 

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HPE2-K42 Designing HPE Nimble Solutions Exam

Exam ID HPE2-K42
Exam type Web based
Exam duration 1 hour
Exam length 40 questions
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages Japanese, English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Designing HPE Nimble Solutions, Rev. 18.21

Additional study materials

HPE Product Certified – Nimble Solutions [2018] (HPE2-K42) Study Guide

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

Exam description
This exam is designed to test candidate knowledge of recommending, explaining, and using HPE Nimble storage solutions. It covers the HPE Nimble hardware and software, initial configuration, and HPE Nimble storage volumes, snapshots, and replication.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates of this exam are IT, facilities, or data center professionals who work in and around the data center and who have the responsibility to achieve and improve the ability and manageability of the data center. Typical candidate job roles include but are not limited to Pre-sales Architects, Pre-sales Engineers, Enterprise Architects, Solutions Engineers, and Technology Engineers.

Exam contents
This exam has 40 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:

Multiple choice (multiple responses), scenario based
Multiple choice (multiple responses)

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

7% Introduction to Nimble Solutions
Identify Nimble technologies
Describe Nimble OS features
Describe Nimble Cloud Volume Technology
Discuss licensing

13% AF-Series Introduction
Describe the AF-Series hardware.
Explain Scale-to-Fit with the AF-Series.

9% CS-Series Introduction
Describe the CSx000 hardware.
Explain Scale-to-Fit with the CSx000
Describe Nimble Hardware

17% NimbleOS Architecture
Describe the AF-Series write operations.
Describe the AF-Series read operations.
Describe the HFx000 write operations.
Describe the HFx000 read operations.

3% NimbleOS WebUI Introduction
Explain how to access and navigate the NimbleOS WebUI.
Explain user administration.

3% Introduction to Customer Support and InfoSight
Discuss the InfoSight Customer portal.
Describe Support coverage and logistics.

10% Array initialization and Setup
Explain an array initialization process.
Explain an array configuration process.
Describe port and firewall considerations.

17% Working with Nimble Storage Volumes
Describe basic volume concepts.

8% Introduction to Nimble Storage Snapshots
Describe how Nimble snapshots work.
Explain snapshot scheduling.
Describe need to add RPO, RTO, and change rate definitions.
Explain recovering from a snapshot by using zero copy clones

13% Introduction to Nimble Storage Replication
Describe basic replication concepts.
Explain SmartReplicate Disaster Recovery.

 


QUESTION 1
Which prerequisites must be fulfilled before starting the array initialization? (Choose three)

A. HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit installed on a server/laptop.
B. Ensure your laptop/server IP has a static IP address configured on the same subnet as the array management interface.
C. Array updated to the latest firmware.
D. All switch configurations done like flow control and spanning tree.
E. Array registered in InfoSight based on the serial number.
F. HPE Service Processor deployed

Answer: A,B,C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
How is SmartReplicate licensed?

A. per array
B. free of charge
C. per target
D. based on capacity (per 1TB)

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Array-Performance-and-Data/Nimble-SmartSnap-SmartReplicationvs-
EMC-RecoveryPoint/td-p/6983058#.XBCRDsRR2kw


QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of banks in an AF-Series array?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 4
What is a valid QoS performance setting?

A. latency threshold
B. IOPS minimum
C. IOPS limit
D. MB/s minimum

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QoS-Limit allows a user to limit either the IOP or MB/s performance of a specific workload. Having the ability
to limit both IOPS and MBs is important as quite often any single workload will have different peaks and
troughs during the operational day. For instance, an OLTP workload maybe very latency sensitive to small
block updates during the working day when rows and tables are frequently being accessed or updated (this will
tend to be very IOP/latency sensitive) yet in the evening the same database maybe receiving feeds from other
systems (or providing bulk updates/analysis or index rebuilds), the same application will cease to be IOP
sensitive and will now be bandwidth (MBs) sensitive. In NimbleOS4 a user can limit a workload by either IOPS
or MBs and also specify limits to both IOPS and MBs. If either limit is reached then the volume will be
restricted accordingly.

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/NimbleOS-4-Quality-of-Service-QoSLimits/
ba-p/6986455#.XBEAvMRR2kw


QUESTION 5
What are primary HPE Nimble SmartReplicate components? (Choose three.)

A. partner
B. snapshot schedule
C. replication group
D. sync partner
E. throttle

Answer: A,BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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2V0-21.19-PSE Professional vSphere 6.7 Exam 2019 Exam

Exam Info
Duration 115 MINUTES
Number of Questions 70 Questions
Passing Score 300
Format Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored

EXAM OVERVIEW
The Professional vSphere 6.7 Exam 2019 validates that an individual can implement, manage, and troubleshoot a vSphere V6.7 infrastructure, using best practices to provide a powerful, flexible, and secure foundation for business agility that can accelerate the transformation to cloud computing.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has six to twelve months hands-on experience installing, configuring, and managing a vSphere solution. The candidate possesses skills in deploying and
administering guest operating systems on a vSphere infrastructure. The successful candidate also has basic knowledge of: storage, networking, hardware, business continuity and disaster recovery,
security, environmental monitoring and troubleshooting.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.

Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section is missing from the list below, please note it is because the exam has no testable
objectives for that section. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the
end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in this Exam
Section 1 – VMware vSphere Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Identify the pre-requisites and components for vSphere implementation
Objective 1.2 – Identify vCenter high availability (HA) requirements
Objective 1.3 – Describe storage types for vSphere
Objective 1.4 – Differentiate between NIOC and SIOC
Objective 1.5 – Manage vCenter inventory efficiently
Objective 1.6 – Describe and differentiate among vSphere, HA, DRS, and SDRS functionality
Objective 1.7 – Describe and identify resource pools and use cases
Objective 1.8 – Differentiate between VDS and VSS
Objective 1.9 – Describe the purpose of cluster and the features it provides
Objective 1.10 – Describe virtual machine (VM) file structure
Objective 1.11 – Describe vMotion and Storage vMotion technology

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Describe vSphere integration with other VMware products
Objective 2.2 – Describe HA solutions for vSphere
Objective 2.3 – Describe the options for securing a vSphere environment

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setting Up a VMware vSphere Solution
Objective 4.1 – Understand basic log output from vSphere products
Objective 4.2 – Create and configure vSphere objects
Objective. 4.3 – Set up a content library
Objective 4.4 – Set up ESXi hosts
Objective 4.5 – Configure virtual networking
Objective 4.6 – Deploy and configure VMware vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA)
Objective 4.7 – Set up identity sources
Objective 4.8 – Configure an SSO domain

Section 5 – Performance-tuning and Optimizing a VMware vSphere Solution
Objective 5.1 – Determine effective snapshot use cases
Objective 5.2 – Monitor resources of VCSA in a vSphere environment
Objective 5.3 – Identify impacts of VM configurations

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks in a VMware vSphere Solution
Objective 7.1 – Manage virtual networking
Objective 7.2 – Manage datastores
Objective 7.3 – Configure a storage policy
Objective 7.4 – Configure host security
Objective 7.5 – Configure role-based user management
Objective 7.6 – Configure and use vSphere Compute and Storage cluster options
Objective 7.7 – Perform different types of migrations
Objective 7.8 – Manage resources of a vSphere environment
Objective 7.9 – Create and manage VMs using different methods
Objective 7.10 – Create and manage templates
Objective 7.11 – Manage different VMware vCenter Server objects
Objective 7.12 – Setup permissions on datastores, clusters, vCenter, and hosts
Objective 7.13 – Identify and interpret affinity/anti affinity rules
Objective 7.14 – Understand use cases for alarms
Objective 7.15 – Utilize VMware vSphere Update Manager (VUM)
Objective 7.16 – Configure and manage host profiles

Recommended Courses
VMware vSphere: Install, Configure, Manage [V6.7]
VMware vSphere: Optimize and Scale [V6.7]

 


QUESTION 1
Using vSphere HA Orchestrated Restart an administrator places the most mission critical VM in the highest
priority. After a host failure, the highest priority VM fails to restart while VMs in high priority restart.
What would cause this to occur?

A. VMware Tools is not installed.
B. Proactive HA is disabled.
C. There are insufficient cluster resources.
D. Performance degradation VMs tolerate threshold is at default.

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
 


QUESTION 2
Which two VMware solutions track and analyze the operation of multiple data sources? (Choose two.)

A. vRealize Automation
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Life Cycle Manager
D. vRealize Log Insight
E. vRealize Orchestrator

Answer: B,D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Suite/7.0/com.vmware.vrealizesuite.overview.doc/GUIDA15F2F4D-
108B-4C44-BCF7-FCB4EC76BCBE.html
 


QUESTION 3
What is required to convert a VM to a template?

A. Reregister the template.
B. Choose a thin-provisioned format.
C. Select a storage policy.
D. Power off the virtual machine.

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc%
2FGUID-846238E4-A1E3-4A28-B230-33BDD1D57454.html
 


QUESTION 4
A cluster of vSphere 6.5 and 6.7 hosts all have identical hardware. VMs are created on the 6.7 hosts with
virtual hardware version 14. During routine maintenance on the 6.7 hosts, the VMs are unable to migrate to the
6.5 hosts.
Why are the VMs unable to migrate to the 6.5 hosts?

A. VMware Tools version is upgraded.
B. EVC mode is disabled.
C. DPM is configured incorrectly.
D. The virtual hardware version is incompatible with 6.5.

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
 


QUESTION 5
An administrator is elevating the security posture of a vSphere environment after a recent data breach. All VMs
will be encrypted as part of this plan.
Which additional component is required for the encryption?

A. KMS server.
B. vSAN encryption.
C. two-factor authentication
D. encrypted vSphere vMotion

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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C_TPLM40_65 SAP Certified Application Associate – Quality Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5 Exam


Description
The certification test SAP Certified Application Associate – Quality Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EhP5 verifies the basic knowledge in the area of the SAP Quality Management. This certificate proves that the candidate has a basic overall understanding within this consultant profile of the QM solutions, and can implement this knowledge practically in projects under guidance of an experienced consultant. It is recommended as an entry-level qualification to allow consultants to get acquainted with the fundamentals of SAP Quality Management.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.
Implement QM in Discrete Manufacturing > 12%

Describe the unique processes for implementing QM in Discrete Manufacturing
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

Implement & Configure Quality Control > 12%

Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Control

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

Implement & Configure Quality Planning 8% – 12%

Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Planning

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

Implement & Configure Quality Inspection 8% – 12%

Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Inspection

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

QM in Process Industries < 8%

Describe the QM business processes used in Process Industries

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

Integration of QM with S&D and Service < 8%

Describe how QM integrates with Sales and Service

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)

Integration of QM and MM < 8%
Configuration and Organization < 8%

Configure Organizational elements used in QM

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

Audit Management < 8%

Describe the process of Audit Management

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)

Quality Notifications < 8%

Describe the purpose and features of Quality Notifications

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)

Quality Certificates < 8%

Describe the purpose and features of Quality Certificates

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)

Sample Management < 8%

Describe the purpose and features of Sample Management.

PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420

General Information

Exam Preparation

IMPORTANT: All SAP consultant certifications are now available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.Those of you who prefer to get certified on-site at an SAP training center instead can still do so. Official dates for the certification tests are listed on the right.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.

• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Overview

• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Exam Process

• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification

SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.


QUESTION 1
In the quality management view in the material master you can maintain the specifications for procurement for
the following using the QM control key:

A. Release required
B. Block inactive
C. Technical Delivery Terms
D. Quality Assurance Agreement
E. Certificate Requirement

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
You can record inspection results for an inspection lot, using defect data or characteristic results

A. Correct
B. Incorrect

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements accurately describe a client in an SAP system? (More than one answer is
true.)

A. A client has its own database.
B. A client may represent an entire company.
C. A client represents a completely independent business entity.
D. A client corresponds to a customer.

Answer: B,C,D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 4
The “Post to Inspection Stock” indicator triggers automatic posting in the inspection stock.

A. Correct
B. Incorrect

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 5
An inspection characteristic describes the inspection criteria.

A. Incorrect
B. Correct

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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1D0-525 CIW E-Commerce Designer

Certification Name: CIW E-Commerce Specialist
Exam ID: 1D0-525
Number of Questions: 72
Passing Score: 68%
Time Limit: 75 minutes
Course Name: E-Commerce Strategies and Practices

To stand out as an increasingly valuable member of a Web or marketing team, you need a working knowledge of e-commerce standards. The E-Commerce Strategies and Practices course is for the individual who already understands the foundations of Web technologies and wants to become proficient in e-commerce practices and site design.
Certification

The CIW E-Commerce Strategies and Practices course prepares candidates to take the CIW E-Commerce Specialist exam, which, if passed, earns the individual the CIW E-Commerce Specialist certification. Candidates who also pass the CIW Web Design Specialist exam earn the advanced CIW Web Design Professional certification.

Average Salary – $66,665 for E-Commerce Specialist
The 2015 annual mean salary of an IT professional who has been awarded the CIW E-Commerce Specialist certification is $66,665. This salary was calculated based on the 14,000+ IT professionals who responded to the 2016 IT Skills and Salary survey that was conducted by Global Knowledge in September of 2015.

Target Audience
Web designers
Internet consultants
IT professionals
Marketing professionals
Web and graphic artists
Business professionals

Skills Taught (Refer to course description for more details)
E-commerce site development, including ways to conduct business online and manage the technical issues associated with constructing an e-commerce Web site
E-commerce technology and security, including e-commerce technologies at various levels of sophistication, Customer Relationship Management (CRM) software, and practices for securing your online transactions as well as your customers’ personal information
E-commerce business, marketing and legal issues, including Web marketing strategies, online product promotion, and legal topics such as taxation and international shipping

QUESTION 1
Placing an institutional banner ad on a site that targets a specific market can result in:

A. a higher clickthrough rate.
B. increased banner exchange.
C. higher search-engine ranking.
D. better banner ad positioning on the site.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of just-in-time (JIT) delivery?

A. Obtaining the product only after supplies have run out
B. Obtaining and developing items as customers demand the product
C. Storing the product in parts until customers demand the assembled product
D. Warehousing large amounts of assembled goods as customers demand the product

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
None of your customers can access SSL-protected pages on your new e-commerce site. Which of the following steps will resolve this problem?

A. Ask customers to reboot their computers.
B. Open TCP port 443 on the company firewall.
C. Open TCP port 8080 on the company firewall.
D. Ask your customers to upgrade their Web browsers.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What step would be appropriate before launching an e-commerce site with a newly installed payment gateway?

A. Contact the issuing bank to verify connections.
B. Contact the acquiring bank to verify connections.
C. Test the system using various payment methods.
D. Register the gateway with accepted credit card issuers.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An international online auction company wants to use a payment service that supports payment processing and is limited to auction purchases only. Which of the following would best meet the company’s needs?

A. eBay
B. BidPay
C. PayPal
D. AuctionPay

Answer: B

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DES-6321 Specialist – Implementation Engineer-VxRail Appliance Exam


QUESTION 1
A 4-node VxRail Model E560F solution with an embedded vCenter and Log Insight is planned for deployment.
Prior to deployment, DNS records must be created for which hosts?

A. vCenter Server, ESXi hosts, VxRail Manager, and iDRAC
B. vCenter Server, first ESXi host, VxRail Manager, and iDRAC
C. DNS records are automatically created during VxRail deployment
D. vCenter Server, ESXi hosts, VxRail Manager, and Log Insight

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-support-information/products/
converged-infrastructure/h15300-vxrail-network-guide.pdf


QUESTION 2
What is the default network traffic configuration for a VxRail node with 2 x 10 GbE ports?

A. Management and vMotion on Uplink1vSAN and Virtual Machines on Uplink2
B. Management, Virtual Machines, and vSAN on Uplink1 vMotion on Uplink2
C. Management, vMotion, and Virtual Machines on Uplink1 vSAN on Uplink2
D. Management and Virtual Machines on Uplink1 vSAN and vMotion on Uplink2

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 3
What is required to enable vSAN encryption on a VxRail cluster?

A. All-Flash system External Key Management Server
B. Internal vCenter Server Internal Key Management Server
C. External vCenter Server External Key Management Server
D. Internal vCenter Server External Key Management Server

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A customer is configuring VxRail to connect to an existing, external SRS VE. Their support account is
associated with the Site ID/Party ID where VxRail is installed. A validation error is issued when the customer
attempts to register VxRail in SRS.
What is the possible cause for the error?

A. Status of VxRail in Install Base is ‘Shipped’
B. Wrong IP address was used for SRS VE gateway
C. SRS traffic goes through a proxy server
D. Number of deployed devices on SRS gateway has exceeded the maximum

Answer: B

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5V0-32.19 VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam 2019 Exam

Exam Details
The VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam (5V0-32.19) which leads to VMware Specialist – Cloud Provider 2019 badge is a 40-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given a time of 60 minutes.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate should have one or more years of experience with VMware vCloud Director; more than a year of hands-on experience with VMware Cloud Provider Platform; and a year
or more experience in storage and networking. It is strongly recommended that this person also have successfully completed the VCD Fundamentals training and have a current VCP in CMA, DCV, DTM
or NV.

Exam Sections
The exam sections and objectives outline the range of content that can be included in the exam.
Some objectives may not have associated questions.

Section 1 – VMware vCloud Director Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Define vCloud Director terminologies
Objective 1.2 – Identify vCloud Director cell architecture and technologies
Objective 1.3 – Describe vCloud Director processes, services, and resource abstractions
Objective 1.4 – Describe vCloud Director networking and storage concepts
Objective 1.5 – Identify vCloud Director hardware and software requirements
Objective 1.6 – Identify vCloud Director support platforms

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Define and explain Cloud Provider Pod usage
Objective 2.2 – Define and explain Cloud Provider Hub usage
Objective 2.3 – Define and explain vCloud Availability Cloud-to-Cloud usage
Objective 2.4 – Define and explain how to use VMware vCloud Usage Meter and Insight
Objective 2.5 – Define and explain VMware vCloud Director Extender usage
Objective 2.6 – Define and explain the Cloud Provider Platform

Section 3 – NOT APPLICABLE TO THIS EXAM

Section 4 – Configure and install VMware vCloud Director
Objective 4.1 – Implement strategies for vCloud Director, cell, database and NSX Manager
Objective 4.2 – Identify the system and network hardware and software requirements
Objective 4.3 – Define, apply, and troubleshoot vCloud Director network configuration
Objective 4.4 – Install and configure vCenter Single Sign On and SAML identity provider
Objective 4.5 – Install and configure vCloud Director and NSX Manager
Objective 4.6 – Configure an AMQP broker
Objective 4.7 – Identify database prerequisites
Objective 4.8 – Create and manage SSL certificates
Objective 4.9 – Install and configure vCloud Director Extender
Objective 4.10 – Install and configure load balancing for vCloud Director utilizing NSX

Section 5 and Section 6 – NOT APPLICABLE TO THIS EXAM

Section 7 – Administration and Operations of VMware vCloud Director
Objective 7.1 – Add resources to vCloud Director
Objective 7.2 – Create and manage cloud resources using vCloud Director
Objective 7.3 – Manage organizations in vCloud Director
Objective 7.4 – Create and manage vCloud Director user roles
Objective 7.5 – Manage catalogs using vCloud Director user interface
Objective 7.6 – Apply use cases for vCloud Director allocation models
Objective 7.7 – Compare tenant organization administration and provider administration
Objective 7.8 – Configure vAPP and virtual machines
Objective 7.9 – Manage catalogs using OVF tool
Objective 7.10 – Manage network administration and security
Objective 7.11 – Manage and configure storage policies
Objective 7.12 Upgrade vCloud Director environment

QUESTION 1
What are the two primary use cases of VMware vCloud Availability for vCloud Director solution set? (Choose two.)

A. orchestrate VMware Fault Tolerance for a vApp in a vCloud Director environment
B. create an L2 VPN tunnel between on-premises vCenter and a vCloud Director environment
C. activate self-service Disaster Recovery between vCloud Director environments
D. automate creation of vCloud Director cells for high availability purposes
E. provide Disaster Recovery between on-premises vCenter to a vCloud Director environment

Answer: C,E

QUESTION 2
A system administrator is adding new compute resources to an existing VMware vCloud Director installation. Which two types of compute resources can be consumed by VMware vCloud Director version 9.1 for the capacity expansion? (Choose two.)

A. VMware vSphere ESXi host with vCloud networking and security
B. Red Hat KVM host with Open Switch
C. VMware vSphere Resource Pools in a new vCenter Server with NSX
D. VMware Integrated OpenStack host group
E. VMware vSphere cluster in an already added vCenter Server

Answer: C,E

QUESTION 3
Which benefit does the VMware Cloud on AWS 1-node option in VMware Cloud Provider Hub provide?

A. no charge for running workloads for 30 days
B. smaller and cost-effective entry point, scale at 4+ nodes within 30 days
C. the ability to run VMware vCloud Director
D. the ability to run mission critical workloads for a tenant

Answer: B

 

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DEA-1TT4 Associate – Information Storage and Management Exam

Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Dell EMC Information Storage and Management (DEA-1TT4) Certification exam. This study guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for items on the DEA-1TT4 Dell EMC Information Storage Management exam. The Sample Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual Dell EMC DECA-ISM certification exam.

The Dell EMC Information Storage and Management certification is mainly targeted to those candidates who want to build their career in Information Storage and Management domain. The Dell EMC Certified Associate – Information Storage and Management (DECA-ISM) exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of Dell EMC DECA-ISM.

Dell EMC Information Storage and Management Exam Summary:
Exam Name Dell EMC Certified Associate – Information Storage and Management (DECA-ISM)
Exam Code DEA-1TT4
Exam Price $230 (USD)
Duration 90 mins
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 60%
Books / Training Information Storage Management (ISM) V4 – OnDemand Course (ES131STG00799)
Information Storage Management V4 -Classroom (ES111STG00802)
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Dell EMC Information Storage and Management Sample Questions
Practice Exam Dell EMC DEA-1TT4 Certification Practice Exam

Dell EMC DEA-1TT4 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Modern Data Center Infrastructure – Describe the data classification, elements of a data center, key characteristics of a data center, and key technologies driving digital transformation
– Explain the cloud characteristics, cloud service models, and cloud deployment models
– Explain the key characteristics of big data, components of a big data analytics solution, Internet of Things (IoT), machine learning, and artificial intelligence (AI)
– Describe the building blocks of a modern data center
– Describe a compute system, storage, connectivity in a data center, application, and options to build a modern data center

Storage Networking Technologies – Describe Storage Area Network (SAN), FC architecture, FC topologies, zoning, and virtualization in FC SAN
– Describe TCP/IP, IP SAN, iSCSI protocol, components, connectivity, addressing, discovery domains, and VLAN
– Explain the components and connectivities of FCIP and FCoE

Storage Systems – Explain the components of an intelligent storage system, RAID, erasure coding, data access methods, scale-up and scale-out architectures
– Explain the components of block-based storage system, storage provisioning, and storage tiering mechanisms
– Explain the NAS components and architecture, NAS file sharing methods, and file-level virtualization and tiering
– Describe object-based storage device components, functions, operations, and unified storage architecture
– Describe software-defined storage attributes, architecture, functions of the control plane, software-defined extensibility, and software-defined networking functionalities

Backup, Archive, and Replication – Describe the information availability measurements and key fault tolerance techniques
– Explain backup granularity, architecture, backup targets, operations, and backup methods
– Describe data deduplication and data archiving solutions architecture
– Describe replication uses, and replication and migration techniques

Security and Management – Describe the information security goals, terminologies, various security domains, and threats to a storage infrastructure
– Explain key security controls to protect the storage infrastructure
– Describe the storage infrastructure management functions and processes 16%

To ensure success in Dell EMC DECA-ISM certification exam, we recommend authorized training course, practice test and hands-on experience to prepare for Dell EMC Information Storage Management (DEA-1TT4) exam.

QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about Governance?

A. Restrict access to certain users
B. Ensure removal of security risks
C. Authorize policy-making decisions
D. Demonstrate adherence to polices

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.
However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?

A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 28 hours
D. 38 hours

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

A. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
B. Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
C. Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
D. Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

Correct Answer: A

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ACSCE-5X Alfresco Content Services Certified Engineer Exam


QUESTION 1
How should Smart Folders be identified and recognized?

A. Smart Folders should be recognized by their type smf:smartFolder
B. Smart Folders should be recognized by parent-child type used smf:contains
C. Smart Folders should be recognized by their aspect smf:smartFolder
D. Smart Folders should be recognized by the special node reference used.
E. Smart Folders cannot be recognized as they are not different from any other cm:folder.

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.alfresco.com/6.0/references/sf-tech-faqs.html


QUESTION 2
If an object is moved to a different folder, what will happen to the node’s security permissions?

A. It will inherit the ACL from the new parent folder.
B. It will inherit the ACL from the user who is moving it.
C. It will inherit the system wide ACL.
D. It will keep its old ACL.

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not an Alfresco-supplied subsystem category?

A. Dictionary.
B. Authentication.
C. Audit.
D. Search.

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.alfresco.com/community5.0/concepts/subsystem-categories.html


QUESTION 4
When testing an Alfresco Content Services extension under high levels of concurrency, you notice that some
transactions are failing due to locking issues with the database. What is an appropriate way to resolve this?

A. Manually unlock the offending records and start the testing again.
B. Directly use Alfresco’s database connection pool and write your own SQL.
C. Use the RetryingTransactionHelper to retry code that fails due to locking.
D. Rewrite the queries used by your application to reduce the chance of the lock.

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 5
What does it mean when it is said in Solr indexing that the index is “eventually consistent”?

A. The index will only be consistent after a server restart.
B. The index will become consistent when there are no more transactions to index.
C. The index becomes consistent once a day when the index job runs.
D. The index can only be consistent when the Lucene index job eventually runs.

Answer: B

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VCS-322 Administration of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x

VCS-322 Administration of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams target customers in an administrative role and cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.

The certified end user will demonstrate an understanding of the installation, configuration, deployment, administration, management, maintenance, and troubleshooting of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x. This understanding serves as a basis of knowledge for proactively managing Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x in an enterprise environment to improve a company’s ability to retain and protect corporate information.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Archiving and eDiscovery.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 75 – 85
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 69%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Suggested Preparation

Recommended Courses:
Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x: Administration I
Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x: Implementation and Deployment

Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Objectives (PDF): Download and review exam objectives to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam.
Attend recommended training classes listed above.
Study Guide (PDF): Review the study guide, which maps key lessons and topics from the associated training course(s) to the exam objectives of the certification exam.
Gain hands-on experience with the product. Three to six months experience working with Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x in a production or lab environment is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample exam.

In addition, you should be familiar with the following supporting products, skills, and technologies:
Microsoft Windows Server administration and maintenance
Microsoft Exchange
Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
Microsoft SQL Server

QUESTION 1
When a user is enabled for archiving, an e-mail is sent from the Enterprise Vault system mailbox.
Which permissions must be granted to the Vault Service Account for this feature to work properly?

A. Log on as a service
B. Receive As
C. log on remotely
D. Send As

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to remove an Index Server from an Index Server Group and place it in another group.
When can this process be completed?

A. during the processing time of the Index Administration task
B. before archived items have been indexed
C. when the Indexing Service is stopped
D. after indexes have been put into Backup mode

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which step(s) are necessary to install Message Queueing (MSMQ) in preparation for configuring a Windows cluster?

A. use Computer Manager to manually move C:\windows\system32\msmq to a shared cluster disk resource
B. use Windows Failover Cluster Manager to add the Message Queuing resource; in the properties add the MSMQ disk to the resource list
C. use the Component Services snap-in to manually move C:\windows\system32\msmq to a shared cluster disk resource
D. use Windows Failover Cluster Manager to add the MSMQ resource; add C:\windows\system32\msmq to the resource list and convert it to a shared disk

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two archive types are supported by the Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x Move Archive function? (Select two.)

A. File System Archiving (FSA) archives
B. Exchange Mailbox archives
C. Exchange public folder archives
D. Shared archives
E. Exchange Journal archives

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for shortcut processing after an Archive Move to a different Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x site?

A. Indexing Service on the source Enterprise Vault server
B. Indexing Service on the destination Enterprise Vault server
C. Archiving Task on the destination Enterprise Vault server
D. Archiving Task on the source Enterprise Vault server

Correct Answer: C

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