Who Should Attempt the NSE 5 Certification We recommend this course for network and security professionals who require the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices.
Program Requirements You must successfully pass a minimum of any two Fortinet NSE 5 certification exams: Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiClient-EMS Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiEDR (coming soon) Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiManager Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiSIEM Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiSOAR (coming soon)
To prepare for the certification exams, we recommend that you take the corresponding NSE 5 product courses. The courses are optional.
About the NSE 5 Exams These exams are available at Pearson VUE test center.
Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiClient 6.0 Exam series: NSE5_FCT-6.0 Number of questions: 30 Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes Language: English and Japanese Product version: FortiClient 6.0 Status: Registration ends August 31, 2020
Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiSIEM 5.1 Exam series: NSE5_FSM-5.1 Number of questions: 25 Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes Language: English Product version: FortiSIEM 5.1 Status: Registration ends September 30, 2020
Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiManager 6.2 Exam series: NSE5_FMG-6.2 Number of questions: 35 Time allowed to complete: 70 minutes Language: English and Japanese Product version: FortiManager 6.2 Status: Available
Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.2 Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.2 Number of questions: 25 Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes Language: English and Japanese Product version: FortiAnalyzer 6.2 Status: Available
QUESTION 1 When installation is performed from the FortiManager, what is the recovery logic used between FortiManager and FortiGate for an FGFM tunnel?
A. After 15 minutes, FortiGate will unset all CLI commands that were part of the installation that caused the tunnel to go down. B. FortiGate will reject the CLI commands that will cause the tunnel to go down. C. FortiManager will revert and install a previous configuration revision on the managed FortiGate. D. FortiManager will not push the CLI commands as a part of the installation that will cause the tunnel to go down.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following statements are true regarding VPN Manager? (Choose three.)
A. VPN Manager must be enabled on a per ADOM basis. B. VPN Manager automatically adds newly-registered devices to a VPN community. C. VPN Manager can install common IPsec VPN settings on multiple FortiGate devices at the same time. D. Common IPsec settings need to be configured only once in a VPN Community for all managed gateways. E. VPN Manager automatically creates all the necessary firewall policies for traffic to be tunneled by IPsec.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3 What is the purpose of the Policy Check feature on FortiManager?
A. To find and merge duplicate policies in the policy package. B. To find and provide recommendation to combine multiple separate policy packages into one common policy package. C. To find and delete disabled firewall policies in the policy package. D. To find and provide recommendation for optimizing policies in a policy package.
NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP You have proven skills in performing in-depth support, administrative functions, and performance management for NetApp® data storage controllers running the ONTAP® operating system in NFS and Windows® (CIFS) multiprotocol environments. You understand how to implement high-availability controller configurations, and have detailed knowledge of technologies used to manage and protect mission-critical data.
NCDA logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NS0-161) exam. Register now for your exam
Prepare for your exam
NS0-161 NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP Candidates for NCDA (NetApp Certified Data Administrator) certification should have at least six to 12 months of field experience implementing and administering NetApp® data storage solutions in multiprotocol environments. In addition, candidates taking the NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP exam should know how to implement HA controller configurations, SyncMirror® software for rapid data recovery, or ONTAP® solutions with either single- or multi-node configurations.
Take your exam The NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NS0-161) exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.
Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days after you complete your exam.
The NCDA ONTAP (NS0-161) exam includes the following topics:
Storage Platforms Describe knowledge of physical storage systems. Describe software-defined on-premises or cloud storage systems. Describe how to upgrade or scale ONTAP clusters.
Core ONTAP Describe ONTAP system management. Describe high availability concepts. Describe how to manage Storage Virtual Machines (SVM).
Logical Storage Describe how to use logical storage features. Describe NetApp storage efficiency features. Describe NetApp ONTAP Data Fabric solutions.
Networking Describe how to use network components. Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot network components.
SAN Solutions and Connectivity Describe how to use SAN solutions. Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot SAN solutions.
NAS Solutions Describe how to use NAS solutions. Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot NAS solutions.
Data Protection Describe how to use ONTAP data protection solutions. Describe how to use SnapMirror. Identify MetroCluster concepts.
Security Describe protocol security. Describe security hardening. Describe inflight or at rest encryption. Identify SnapLock concepts.
Performance Demonstrate knowledge of how to administer ONTAP performance. Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot storage system performance.
QUESTION 1 What is the minimum number of disks required to create a RAID-DP data aggregate?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 3 D. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 In an aggregate with only thick-provisioned volumes, you need to split a FlexClone volume from its parent volume. There are other volumes in the aggregate. In this scenario, how much space must be available within the containing aggregate?
A. You need enough space for twice the size of the parent volume. B. The split FlexClone volume must be created in a new aggregate. C. You need enough space for half the size of the parent volume. D. You need to double the space in the existing aggregate.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You have a 4-node cluster with 2x AFF A300 and 2x FAS8200 controllers. One of the AFF A300 controllers has a 50 TB FlexVol volume that needs an immediate read-write copy for standalone testing on one of the FAS8200 controllers. Which two commands combined accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. volume rehost B. volume clone create C. volume move D. volume clone split
Description The NSE 7 Network Security Architect designation recognizes your advanced skills ans ability to deploy, administer, and troubleshoot Fortinet security solutions.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 7 Certification We recommend this course for network and security professionals who are involved in the design, administration, and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions.
Certification To obtain certification, you must pass at least one Fortinet NSE 7 exam. NSE 7 certification is valid for two years from the date of completion.
Fortinet NSE 7 – Secure Access 6.2 Exam series: NSE7_SAC-6.2 Number of questions: 30 Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes Language: English and Japanese Product version: FortiOS 6.2 Status: Available
QUESTION 1 Which step can be taken to ensure that only FortiAP devices receive IP addresses from a DHCP server on FortiGate?
A. Change the interface addressing mode to FortiAP devices. B. Create a reservation list in the DHCP server settings. C. Configure a VCI string value of FortiAP in the DHCP server settings. D. Use DHCP option 138 to assign IPs to FortiAP devices.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which two EAP methods can use MSCHAPV2 for client authentication? (Choose two.)
A. PEAP B. EAP-TTLS C. EAP-TLS D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about the use of digital certificates are true? (Choose two.)
A. An intermediate CA can sign server certificates. B. An intermediate CA can sign another intermediate CA certificate. C. The end entity’s certificate can only be created by an intermediate CA. D. An intermediate CA can validate the end entity certificate signed by another intermediate CA.
Certification Overview This certification validates the ability to perform basic skill level tasks in installing, configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting Dell EMC Networking products
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must: 1. Pass the following Exam • DEA-5TT1 Associate – Networking Exam
Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of December 14, 2018.
Other Certification Recommendations This certification will qualify towards the following Specialist level certifications in the Dell EMC Proven Professional Program • Specialist – Infrastructure Security Version 1.0 • Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Campus Networking Version 1.0 • Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Data Center Networking Version 1.0
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. *Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.
Overview This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate – Networking track. This exam focuses on basic Networking foundational skills and portfolio introduction. Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.
Products Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to: • Dell EMC Networking Switches
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include: Networks – The Basics (7%) • Explain the purpose and function of network devices such as switches and routers, WANs and LANs, and common Campus and Datacenter topologies • Explain the purpose and basic operations of the OSI model • Describe the concepts and use cases for Layer 2 – Data Link Layer, Discovery protocols
Ethernet Networking (7%) • Describe Ethernet networking • Describe the standards of how Ethernet operates and how addressing is used to move data on the Ethernet network
Switching Fundamentals and Creating a Switched Network (23%) • Explain the reason for network switching and the process of moving frames within a switched network • Explain how to differentiate between a broadcast domain and collision domain • Explain how to select cabling and the cables that are certified for network connectivity • Describe the concepts of VLANs, Spanning-Tree protocol, and Link Aggregation and how each functions within the network
Internet Protocol v4 and v6 (14%) • Identify and describe the differences between private and public IP addressing, and describe classful and CIDR addressing • Describe IPv4 addressing and explain the process of using IPv4 in the network • Describe IPv6 addressing and explain the process of using IPv6 in the network Transport Layer (7%) • Describe the function of the Transport layers, how it supports host-to-host connectivity, and protocols used by the Transport layers and their use cases
IP Routing Technologies and Routing Protocols (15%) • Describe basic routing concepts and explain how to interpret a routing table • Identify and describe the differences between static and dynamic routing • Identify and describe the classifications of routing protocols and how they are used to route within and between autonomous systems • Explain the routing process used by RIPv2, OSPF, and BGP (link state and distance vector routing) routing protocols
IP and Network Services (7%) • Describe the DHCP and NTP service and explain the configuration steps • Describe Access Control Lists (ACLs) and Network Address Translation Security, Authentication, and ACLs (3%) • Describe the options and processes of securing access to the network
Switch Stacking, Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter, and Modular Switch Portfolio (10%) • Describe the key concepts of stacking and the hardware required to configure stacking using OS 6, OS 9, and OS 10 • Describe the switch models that are part of the Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter, and Modular Switch portfolio
Dell EMC Switch Software, Configuration, and Management (7%) Explain how software is used to configure and manage Dell EMC switches, and describe the steps to complete an initial switch configuration
Recommended Training The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take this exam.
QUESTION 1 What are Network Address Translation (NAT) inside global addresses?
A. Addresses used by NAT router when sending frames to devices on the local network B. Public IP addresses used by the local network to communicate with the Internet C. Private IP addresses used by the local network D. Pubic addresses used by other networks outside of the local network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which topology is considered a best practice when stacking switches?
A. Ring B. Cascade C. Serial D. Daisy-chain
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which option is used to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide one-to-one mapping between local and global addresses?
A. Outside source static B. Overload C. Inside source static D. PAT
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What is the valid range assigned to a client during a TCP connection?
A. 20 – 25 B. 443 – 1000 C. 1023 – 2024 D. 40000 – 65535
EXAM OVERVIEW The Professional VMware vSphere 7.x (2V0-21.20) Exam validates that an individual can implement, manage, and troubleshoot a VMware vSphere® 7 infrastructure, which includes VMware ESXi™ 7 and VMware vCenter Server® 7.
The Professional VMware vSphere 7.x Exam (2V0-21.20), which leads to the VMware Certified Professional – Data Center Virtualization 2020 certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an exam time of 130 minutes, which includes adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers.
Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.
Minimally Qualified Candidate A minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has 6-12 months hands-on experience implementing, managing and troubleshooting a vSphere 7 infrastructure. They are typically administrators, capable of performing deployment and administration of a virtual infrastructure using vSphere. The candidate also has working knowledge of storage, networking, hardware, security, business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.
Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives. Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies Section 2 – Products and Solutions Section 3 – Planning and Designing Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.
Section 1 –Architectures and Technologies Objective 1.1 – Identify the pre-requisites and components for a vSphere implementation Objective 1.2 – Describe vCenter Server topology Objective 1.3 – Identify and differentiate storage access protocols for vSphere (NFS, iSCSI, SAN, etc.) 1.3.1 – Describe storage datastore types for vSphere 1.3.2 – Explain the importance of advanced storage configuration (vSphere Storage APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA), vSphere Storage APIs Array Integration (VAAI), etc.) 1.3.3 – Describe storage policies 1.3.4 – Describe basic storage concepts in K8s, vSAN and vSphere Virtual Volumes (vVols) Objective 1.4 – Differentiate between vSphere Network I/O Control (NIOC) and vSphere Storage I/O Control (SIOC) Objective 1.5 – Describe instant clone architecture and use cases Objective 1.6 – Describe ESXi cluster concepts 1.6.1 – Describe Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) 1.6.2 – Describe vSphere Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) 1.6.3 – Describe how Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) scores virtual machines 1.6.4 – Describe vSphere High Availability 1.6.5 – Describe datastore clusters
Objective 1.7 – Identify vSphere distributed switch and vSphere standard switch capabilities 1.7.1 – Describe VMkernel networking 1.7.2 – Manage networking on multiple hosts with vSphere distributed switch 1.7.3 – Describe networking policies 1.7.4 – Manage Network I/O Control (NIOC) on a vSphere distributed switch
Objective 1.8 – Describe vSphere Lifecycle Manager concepts (baselines, cluster images, etc.) Objective 1.9 – Describe the basics of vSAN as primary storage 1.9.1 – Identify basic vSAN requirements(networking, disk count + type) Objective 1.10 – Describe the vSphere Trust Authority architecture Objective 1.11 – Explain Software Guard Extensions (SGX)
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions Objective 2.1 – Describe the role of vSphere in the software-defined data center (SDDC) Objective 2.2 – Identify use cases for vCloud Foundation Objective 2.3 – Identify migration options Objective 2.4 – Identify DR use cases Objective 2.5 – Describe vSphere integration with VMware Skyline Section 3 – Planning and Designing – There are no testable objectives for this section.
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup Objective 4.1 – Describe single sign-on (SSO) deployment topology 4.1.1 – Configure a single sign-on (SSO) domain 4.1.2 – Join an existing single sign-on (SSO) domain Objective 4.2 – Configure VSS advanced virtual networking options Objective 4.3 – Set up identity sources 4.3.1 – Configure Identity Federation 4.3.2 – Configure Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) integration 4.3.3 – Configure Active Directory integration Objective 4.4 – Deploy and configure vCenter Server Appliance Objective 4.5 – Create and configure VMware High Availability and advanced options (Admission Control, Proactive High Availability, etc.) Objective 4.6 – Deploy and configure vCenter Server High Availability Objective 4.7 – Set up content library Objective 4.8 – Configure vCenter Server file-based backup Objective 4.9 – Analyze basic log output from vSphere products Objective 4.10 – Configure vSphere Trust Authority Objective 4.11 – Configure vSphere certificates
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades Objective 5.1 – Identify resource pools use cases 5.1.1 – Explain shares, limits and reservations (resource management) Objective 5.2 – Monitor resources of vCenter Server Appliance and vSphere environment Objective 5.3 – Identify and use tools for performance monitoring Objective 5.4 – Configure Network I/O Control (NIOC) Objective 5.5 – Configure Storage I/O Control (SIOC) Objective 5.6 – Explain the performance impact of maintaining virtual machine snapshots Objective 5.7 – Plan for upgrading various vSphere components Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing – There are no testable objectives for this section. Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks Objective 7.1 – Create and manage virtual machine snapshots Objective 7.2 – Create virtual machines using different methods (Open Virtual Machine Format (OVF) templates, content library, etc.) Objective 7.3 – Manage virtual machines Objective 7.4 – Manage storage (datastores, storage policies, etc.) 7.4.1 – Configure and modify datastores (expand/upgrade existing datastore, etc.) 7.4.2 – Create virtual machine storage policies 7.4.3 – Configure storage cluster options Objective 7.5 – Create Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) affinity and anti-affinity rules for common use cases Objective 7.6 – Configure and perform different types of migrations Objective 7.7 – Configure role-based user management Objective 7.8 – Configure and manage the options for securing a vSphere environment (certificates, virtual machine encryption, virtual Trusted Platform Module, lock-down mode, virtualization-based security, etc.) Objective 7.9 – Configure and manage host profiles Objective 7.10 – Utilize baselines to perform updates and upgrades Objective 7.11 – Utilize vSphere Lifecycle Manager 7.11.1 – Describe Firmware upgrades for ESXi 7.11.2 – Describe ESXi updates 7.11.3 – Describe component and driver updates for ESXi 7.11.4 – Describe hardware compatibility check 7.11.5 – Describe ESXi cluster image export functionality Objective 7.12 – Configure alarms
Recommended Courses QUESTION 1 What are two supported ESXi boot options? (Choose two.)
A. NFS B. iSCSI C. vSAN D. SAN E. vSphere Virtual Volumes
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 An administrator receives an escalation to investigate a low disk space alarm on a datastore. The administrator discovers that a snapshot has been accidentally taken on a production, write-intensive database server. The snapshot has grown to nearly 1 TB in size in less than an hour and continues growing every second. Which behavior should the administrator expect while deleting the snapshot? (Choose the best answer.)
A. ESXi will create a virtual RAM disk to cache ongoing database write activity; performance impact will be limited. B. ESXi will commit the snapshot delta disk into the base disk; ongoing database write activity could result in long stun times. C. ESXi will merge the snapshot delta disk into the base disk; the virtual machine will be briefly stunned. D. ESXi will instantly switch from the base disk to the snapshot delta disk with no performance impact.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two storage technologies can an administrator use to deploy the Virtual Machine File System (VMFS)? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel storage B. vSAN storage C. Virtual Volumes storage D. NFS storage E. iSCSI storage
Introduction The Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA) understands standards and operations of 802.11 wireless networks. Responsibilities include deploying, managing, monitoring, and basic troubleshooting of these networks. The CWNA has the ability to describe devices and operations of current WLAN technologies.
The CWNA exam has no prerequisites; however, the following are recommended before attempting the CWNA exam: ● Basic knowledge of networking (routers, switches, cabling, etc.) ● Basic knowledge of TCP/IP ● At least 1 year of work experience with wireless LAN technologies
The skills and knowledge measured by this examination are derived from a Job Task Analysis (JTA) involving wireless networking experts (CWNEs) and professionals. The results of this JTA were used in weighing the subject areas and ensuring that the weighting is representative of the relative importance of the content. When you pass the CWNA exam, you earn credit towards the CWSP, CWDP, CWAP, and CWNE certifications and you earn the CWNA certification. The following chart provides the breakdown of the exam as to the distribution of questions within each knowledge domain.
Radio Frequency (RF) Technologies WLAN Regulations and Standards WLAN Protocols and Devices WLAN Network Architecture and Design Concepts WLAN Network Security RF Validation WLAN Troubleshooting
CWNP Authorized Materials Use Policy CWNP does not condone the use of unauthorized ‘training materials’ such as ‘brain dumps’. Individuals who utilize such materials to pass CWNP exams will have their certifications revoked. In an effort to more clearly communicate CWNP’s policy on use of unauthorized study materials, CWNP directs all certification candidates to the CWNP Candidate Conduct Policy at:
1.0 Radio Frequency (RF) Technologies – 15% 1.1 Define and explain the basic characteristics of RF and RF behavior • Wavelength, frequency, amplitude, phase, sine waves • RF propagation and coverage • Reflection, refraction, diffraction and scattering • Multipath and RF interference • Gain and loss • Amplification • Attenuation • Absorption • Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) • Return Loss • Free Space Path Loss (FSPL)
1.2 Apply the basic concepts of RF mathematics and measurement • Watt and milliwatt • Decibel (dB) • dBm and dBi • Noise floor • SNR • RSSI • dBm to mW conversion rules of 10 and 3 • Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)
1.3 Identify RF signal characteristics as they relate to antennas. • RF and physical line of sight and Fresnel zone clearance • Beamwidths • Passive gain • Polarization • Antenna diversity types • Radio chains • Spatial multiplexing (SM) • Transmit Beamforming (TxBF) • Maximal Ratio Combining (MRC) • MIMO
1.4 Explain and apply the functionality of RF antennas, antenna systems, and accessories available • Omni-directional antennas • Semi-directional antennas • Highly directional antennas • Reading Azimuth and Elevation charts for different antenna types • Antenna orientation • RF cables and connectors • Lightning arrestors and grounding rods/wires 2.0 WLAN Regulations and Standards – 20% 2.1 Explain the roles of WLAN and networking industry organizations • IEEE • Wi-Fi Alliance • IETF • Regulatory domains and agencies
2.2 Explain and apply the various Physical Layer (PHY) solutions of the IEEE 802.11-2016 standard as amended including supported channel widths, spatial streams, data rates. • DSSS – 802.11 • HR-DSSS – 802.11b • OFDM – 802.11a • ERP – 802.11g • Wi-Fi 4 – HT – 802.11n • Wi-Fi 5 – VHT – 802.11ac • Wi-Fi 6 – HE – 802.11ax
2.3 Understand spread spectrum technologies, Modulation and Coding Schemes (MCS) • DSSS • OFDM • OFDMA and Resource Units • BPSK • QPSK • QAM (16, 64, 256,1024)
2.4 Identify and apply 802.11 WLAN functional concepts • Primary channels • Adjacent overlapping and non-overlapping channels • Throughput vs. data rate • Bandwidth • Guard Interval
2.5 Describe the OSI model layers affected by the 802.11-2016 standard and amendments
2.6 Identify and comply with regulatory domain requirements and constraints (specifically in 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz) • Frequency bands used by the 802.11 PHYs • Available channels • Regulatory power constraints • Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) • Transmit Power Control (TPC)
2.7 Explain basic use case scenarios for 802.11 wireless networks • Wireless LAN (WLAN) – BSS and ESS • Wireless bridging • Wireless Ad-Hoc (IBSS) • Wireless Mesh
3.0 WLAN Protocols and Devices – 20% 3.1 Describe the components and functions that make up an 802.11 wireless service set • Stations (STAs) • Basic Service Set (BSS) (Infrastructure mode) • SSID • BSSID • Extended Service Set (ESS) • IBSS (Ad-Hoc) • Distribution System (DS) • Distribution System Media (DSM)
3.2 Define terminology related to the 802.11 MAC and PHY • MSDU, MPDU, PSDU, and PPDU • A-MSDU and A-MPDU • PHY preamble and header 3.3 Identify and explain the MAC frame format • MAC frame format • MAC addressing 3.4 Identify and explain the purpose of the three main 802.11 frame types • Management • Control • Data
3.5 Explain the process used to locate and connect to a WLAN • Scanning (active and passive) • Authentication • Association • Open System Authentication and Shared Key authentication • Connecting to 802.1X/EAP and Pre-Shared Key authentication networks • BSS selection • Connecting to hidden SSIDs
3.6 Explain 802.11 channel access methods • DCF • EDCA • RTS/CTS • CTS-to-Self • NAV • Interframe spaces (SIFS, DIFS, EIFS, AIFS) • Physical carrier sense and virtual carrier sense • Hidden node
3.7 Explain 802.11 MAC operations • Roaming • Power save modes and frame buffering • Protection mechanisms
3.8 Describe features of, select, and install WLAN devices, control, and management systems • Access Points (APs) • WLAN controllers • Wireless network management systems • Wireless bridge and mesh APs • Client devices
4.0 WLAN Network Architecture and Design Concepts– 15%
4.1 Describe and implement Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3af, 802.3at, 802.3bt • Power Source Equipment • Powered Device • Midspan and endpoint PSEs • Power classes to include power differences between PSE and PD • Power budgets and powered port density
4.2 Define and describe differences, advantages and constraints of the different wireless LAN architectures • Centralized data forwarding • Distributed data forwarding • Control, Management and Data planes • Scalability and availability solutions • Tunneling, QoS and VLANs
4.3 Describe design considerations for common deployment scenarios in wireless such as coverage requirements, roaming considerations, throughput, capacity and security • Design considerations for data • Design considerations for voice • Design considerations for video • Design considerations for location services including Real-Time Location Services (RTLS) • Design considerations for highly mobile devices (e.g. tablets and smartphones) • Capacity planning for high and very high-density environments • Design considerations for guest access/BYOD • Design considerations for supporting legacy 802.11 devices
4.4 Demonstrate awareness of common proprietary features in wireless networks. • AirTime Fairness • Band steering • Dynamic power and channel management features
4.5 Determine and configure required network services supporting the wireless network • DHCP for client addressing, AP addressing and/or controller discovery • DNS for address resolution for clients and APs • Time synchronization protocols (e.g. NTP, SNTP) • VLANs for segmentation • Authentication services (e.g. RADIUS, LDAP) • Access Control Lists for segmentation • Wired network capacity requirements
5.0 WLAN Network Security – 10%
5.1 Identify weak security options that should not be used in enterprise WLANs • WEP • Shared Key authentication • SSID hiding as a security mechanism • MAC filtering • Use of deprecated security methods (e.g. WPA and/or WPA2 with TKIP) • Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)
5.2 Identify and configure effective security mechanisms for enterprise WLANs • Application of AES with CCMP for encryption and integrity • WPA2-Personal including limitations and best practices for pre-shared (PSK) use • WPA2-Enterprise -configuring wireless networks to use 802.1X including connecting to RADIUS servers and appropriate EAP methods
5.3 Understand basic concepts of WPA3 and Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and enhancements compared to WPA2 • Understand basic security enhancements in WPA3 vs. WPA2 • Understand basic security enhancements of encryption and integrity in WPA3 (e.g. CCMP, GCMP, AES) • Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) in WPA3 as an enhancement for legacy pre-shared key technology • Understand the purpose of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) for public and guest networks
5.4 Describe common security options and tools used in wireless networks • Access control solutions (e.g. captive portals, NAC, BYOD) • Protected management frames • Fast Secure Roaming methods • Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) and/or rogue AP detection • Protocol and spectrum analyzers • Best practices in secure management protocols (e.g. encrypted management HTTPS, SNMPv3, SSH2, VPN and password management)
6.0 RF Validation – 10% 6.1 Verify and document that design requirements are met including coverage, throughput, roaming, and connectivity with a post-implementation validation survey 6.2 Locate and identify sources of RF interference • Identify RF disruption from 802.11 wireless devices including contention vs. interference and causes/sources of both including co-channel contention (CCC), overlapping channels, and 802.11 wireless device proximity • Identify sources of RF interference from non-802.11 wireless devices based on the investigation of airtime and frequency utilization • Understand interference mitigation options including removal of interference source or change of wireless channel usage
6.3 Perform application testing to validate WLAN performance • Network and service availability • VoIP testing • Real-time application testing • Throughput testing
6.4 Understand and use the basic features of validation tools • Use of throughput testers for validation tasks • Use of wireless validation software (specifically survey software and wireless scanners) • Use of protocol analyzers for validation tasks • Use of spectrum analyzers for validation tasks
7.0 WLAN Troubleshooting – 10% 7.1 Describe and apply common troubleshooting tools used in WLANs • Use of protocol analyzers for troubleshooting tasks • Use of spectrum analyzers for identifying sources of interference • Use of management, monitoring and logging systems for troubleshooting tasks • Use of wireless LAN scanners for troubleshooting tasks
7.2 Identify and troubleshoot common wireless issues • Identify causes of insufficient throughput in the wireless distribution systems including LAN port speed/duplex misconfigurations, insufficient PoE budget, and insufficient Internet or WAN bandwidth • Identify and solve RF interference using spectrum analyzers • Identify wireless performance issues using SNR, retransmissions, and airtime utilization statistics • Identify causes of wireless issues related to network services including DHCP, DNS, and time protocols including using native interface and IP configuration tools (e.g. pings, DNS lookups, interface configuration) • Identify wireless issues related to security configuration mismatches
QUESTION 1 What can an impedance mismatch in the RF cables and connectors cause?
A. Increased range of the RF signal B. Fewer MCS values in the MCS table C. Increased amplitude of the RF signal D. Excessive VSWR
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2 A WLAN transmitter that emits a 50 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with 9dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 26 dBm B. 13 dBm C. 23 dBm D. 10 dBm
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is clear of obstructions. B. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space and is a function of frequency and distance. C. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading. D. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver’s low noise filter gain.
EXAM OVERVIEW The VCP-DW 2020 certification validates that a badge earner can install, configure, manage, maintain, and and perform basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE and related solutions, as well as properly identify and differentiate any needed supporting products and components.
Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.
Minimally Qualified Candidate The Minimally Qualified Candidate has a working knowledge of the VMware Workspace ONE platform. The MQC installs, configures, manages, maintains, and performs basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE 20.x and related solutions using publicly available documents. The MQC is knowledgeable of software, infrastructure design, and implementation. The MQC is familiar with standard operating systems across devices, productivity applications, and technologies related to Workspace ONE configuration. The MQC has a minimum of 6 months of general IT experience and typically 6 months of VMware experience installing and configuring the Workspace ONE platform. The MQC must have all the knowledge contained in the VCP-Digital Workspace exam blueprint.
Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives. Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies Section 2 – Products and Solutions Section 3 – Planning and Designing Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies Objective 1.1 – Differentiate and illustrate the differences between physical architecture and logical architecture Objective 1.2 – Differentiate between cloud computing and on-prem EMM + Identity Access Management solutions Objective 1.3 – Differentiate among OEM Providers Objective 1.4 – Describe disaster recovery and high availability Objective 1.5 – Describe and define Identity and Access Management Concepts Objective 1.6 -Differentiate between traditional management and modern management (Windows 10) Objective 1.7 – Explain authentication methods (2 factor authentication, Kerberos, Identity Bridging, SAML, SAML Transformation, Mobile SSO, etc.) Section 2 – Products and Solutions Objective 2.1 – Identify UEM + IDM components and sub-components (Enterprise System Connector, Secure Email Gateway, ENS, etc.) Objective 2.2 – Differentiate and match use case with VMware products based on best practices Objective 2.3 – Identify and describe VMware Disaster Recovery, HA, Scalability (UEM, IDM, Enterprise System Connector, Secure Email Gateway, etc.) Objective 2.4 – Explain Workspace ONE intelligence, AirWatch SDK Section 3 – Planning and Designing – There are no testable objectives for this section.
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup Objective 4.1 – Identify infrastructure requirements (minimums, maximums, and recommended sizing requirements, OS version support, database versions, email infrastructure, directory services, etc.) Objective 4.2 – Install and configure UEM components (ESC, ACC, IDM-C, UAG, SEG) Objective 4.3 – Configure Edge Services (Tunnel and Content Gateway) Objective 4.4 – Preliminary configuration of UEM environment Objective 4.5 – Install and configure IDM components (native connectors, configure directories and IDPs) Objective 4.6 – Configure Directory Services (users and groups) Objective 4.7 – Configure APIs Objective 4.8 – Configure Certificate Authority Integration Objective 4.9 – Configure Mobile Email Management (PowerShell integration, SEG, G-Suite, Office 365, Microsoft Exchange)
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades – There are no testable objectives for this section.
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing Objective 6.1 – Match logs to use cases Objective 6.2 – Detect networking configuration issues (DNS, NTP, etc.) Objective 6.3 – Identify Endpoint enrollment and management issues (connectivity) Objective 6.4 – Identify End-user App Authentication issues Objective 6.5 – Identify console administration issues Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks Objective 7.1 – Configure and manage device profiles for mobile and desktop endpoint OS (iOS, Android, Windows 10) Objective 7.2 – Configure and manage certificate authority and certificate templates Objective 7.3 – Manage Assignment Groups and Organization Groups Objective 7.4 – Add and Manage Users and Admin groups (Basic, Directory) Objective 7.5 – Add, assign, and manage applications Objective 7.6 – Add, assign, and manage content Objective 7.7 – Configure and manage email policies Objective 7.8 – Configure and manage compliance policies for mobile and desktop endpoints Objective 7.9 – Perform device management on device endpoints Objective 7.10 – Add and Manage SaaS, Web Applications on VMware IDM Objective 7.11 – Create reporting (UEM reporting, IDM reporting, Workspace ONE Intelligence) Objective 7.12 – Manage user and Admin access on vIDM Console Objective 7.13 – Add and manage conditional access, access policy in vIDM Objective 7.14 – Manage authentication methods in vIDM (built-in IDP) Objective 7.15 – Configure privacy and security controls Objective 7.16 – Create automation (Workspace ONE Intelligence) Objective 7.17 – Create reports and dashboards using Workspace ONE Intelligence
QUESTION 1 Which two authentication methods are available in the Workspace ONE UEM console? (Choose two.)
A. SAML B. Azure AD C. CAPTCHAs D. OAUTH
E. Certificate Based Authentication
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 2 Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?
A. Relay Server Integration B. Syslog Integration C. File Storage Integration D. Certificate Authority Integration
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3 An administrator wants to use VMware Unified Access Gateway (UAG) appliance to enable devices to connect to internal resources without needing the Workspace ONE UEM SDK. Which method can the administrator use to deploy the UAG appliance?
A. Manual install to a Linux Server B. PowerShell install to a Windows Server C. Manual install to a Windows Server D. PowerShell install to vSphere
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An organization has purchased a SaaS Workspace ONE solution and wants to implement these: integration with back-end resources like Active Directory from Microsoft to sync users and groups Kerberos authentication integration with Virtual Desktops and Applications from services (Horizon 7, Horizon Cloud, or Citrix) third party integration with RSA SecureID, RADIUS for authentication Which Workspace ONE component is required?
A. VMware AirWatch Cloud Connector B. VMware Workspace ONE Assist C. VMware Workspace Unified Access Gateway D. VMware Workspace ONE Access Connector
Exam Title: Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2020 Architect Professional Exam Number: 1Z0-997-20 Exam Price: Rs.36,887 More on exam pricing Format: Multiple Choice Duration: 120 Minutes Number of Questions: 50 Passing Score: 70% Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against OCI version 2020
Exam Preparation Recommended Training Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Review Exam Topics Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.
Implement and operate solutions in OCI Implement solutions to meet business and technical requirements Operate and troubleshoot solutions on OCI (NEW for 2020) Conduct Monitoring, observability and alerting in OCI (NEW for 2020) Manage infrastructure using OCI CLI, APIs and SDKs
Design for hybrid cloud architecture Design and implement hybrid network architectures to meet high availability, bandwidth and latency requirements Evaluate multi-cloud solution architectures
Design for Security and Compliance Design, implement and operate solutions for security and governance Design, implement and operate solutions to meet compliance requirements
Plan and design solutions in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Plan and design solutions to meet business and technical requirements Create architecture patterns including N-tier applications, microservices, and serverless architectures Design scalable and elastic solutions for high availability and disaster recovery
Design, implement and operate databases in OCI Evaluate and implement databases Operate and troubleshoot databases
Migrate on-premises workloads to OCI Design strategy for migrating on-premises workloads to OCI Implement and troubleshoot database migrations
QUESTION 1 Which three scenarios are suitable for the use of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Autonomous Transaction Processing – Serverless (ATP-S) deployment? (Choose three.)
A. A manufacturing company is running Oracle E-Business Suite application on-premises. They are looking to move this application to OCI and they want to use a managed database offering for their database tier.
B. A midsize company is considering migrating its legacy on-premises MongoDB database to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). The database has significantly higher workloads on weekends than weekdays.
C. A small startup is deploying a new application for eCommerce and it requires a database to store customers’ transactions. The team is unsure of what the load will look like since it is a new application.
D. A well-established, online auction marketplace is running an application where there is database usage 24×7, but also has peaks of activity that are hard to predict. When the peaks happen, the total activities may reach 3 times the normal activity level.
E. A developer working on an internal project needs to use a database during work hours but doesn’t need it during nights or weekends. The project budget requires her to keep costs low.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2 You are working for a Travel company and your travel portal application is a collection of microservices that run on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes. As per the recent security overview, you have noticed that Oracle has published a newer image of the Operating System used by the worker nodes. You want to make sure that your application doesn’t face any downtime but at the same time the worker nodes gets upgraded to the latest version of the Operating System. What should you do to get this upgrade done without application downtime? (Choose the best answer.)
A. 1. Shutdown the worker nodes 2. Create a new node pool 3. Manually schedule the pods on the newly built node pool
B. 1. Create a new node pool using the latest available Operating System image. 2. Run kubectl cordon <node name> against all the worker nodes in the old pool to stop any new application pods to get scheduled 3. Run kubectl drain <node name> ––delete–local–data ––force ––ignore–daemonsets to evict any Pods that are running 4. Delete the old node pool
C. 1. Create a new node pool using the latest available Operating System image 2. Run kubectl taint nodes ––all node–role.kubernetes.io/master– 3. Delete the old node pool
D. 1. Run kubectl cordon <node name> against all the worker nodes in the old pool to stop any new application pods to get scheduled 2. Run kubectl drain <node name> ––delete–local–data ––force ––ignore–daemonsets to evict any Pods that are running 3. Download the patches for the new Operating System image 4. Patch the worker nodes to the latest Operating System image
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A. Allow group Eng-group to inspect instance-family in compartment Dev- Team:Compute and attach the policy to ‘SysTest-Team’ Compartment. B. Allow group Eng-group to read instance-family in compartment Dev-Team:Compute and attach the policy to ‘Dev-Team’ Compartment. C. Allow group Eng-group to inspect instance-family in compartment Dev- Team:Compute and attach the policy to ‘Engineering’ Compartment. D. Allow group Eng-group to read instance-family in compartment Compute and attach the policy to ‘Engineering’ Compartment.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You are working for a Travel company and your travel portal application is a collection of microservices that run on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes. As per the recent security overview, you have noticed that Oracle has published a newer image of the Operating System used by the worker nodes. You want to make sure that your application doesn’t face any downtime but at the same time the worker nodes gets upgraded to the latest version of the Operating System. What should you do to get this upgrade done without application downtime? (Choose the best answer.)
A. 1. Shutdown the worker nodes 2. Create a new node pool 3. Manually schedule the pods on the newly built node pool
B. 1. Create a new node pool using the latest available Operating System image. 2. Run kubectl cordon <node name> against all the worker nodes in the old pool to stop any new application pods to get scheduled 3. Run kubectl drain <node name> ––delete–local–data ––force ––ignore–daemonsets to evict any Pods that are running 4. Delete the old node pool
C. 1. Create a new node pool using the latest available Operating System image 2. Run kubectl taint nodes ––all node–role.kubernetes.io/master– 3. Delete the old node pool
D. 1. Run kubectl cordon <node name> against all the worker nodes in the old pool to stop any new application pods to get scheduled 2. Run kubectl drain <node name> ––delete–local–data ––force ––ignore–daemonsets to evict any Pods that are running 3. Download the patches for the new Operating System image 4. Patch the worker nodes to the latest Operating System image
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QUESTION 1 The failure of install multipath is mostly due to compatibility, which components mainly needs to consider compatible when install multipath? (Select three Answers)
A. with OS specific version B. with HBA card C. server system hard disk drive D. with iSCSI initiator software
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 2 How to troubleshooting whether there is impact performance of failure hard disk in storage system (slow)?
A. under CLI check RAID LUN state, whether if it is abnormal B. in storage debug mode, through the command of iostat –x –d 1 to check IO of storage system, the average service time of some disk (svctm) over a period of time is obviously more than other disk, %util is close to 100%, and other disk are free, can judge the hard disk performance C. on host side check LUN IO state under multipath D. check the link state in host side and ISM storage interface
Answer: B
QUESTION 3 About storage network management software, which description is wrong?
A. equipment management can manage storage array device B. business management, business flow management C. topology display, visual display device of the current topology connection status D. DHA service management, hard disk health data/performance data
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 For backup and disaster, what size of striping depth are recommended the common used?
A. 8K B. 16K-128K C. 64K D. more than 64K
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following command can check kernel version information in linux system?
Exam Code: CSM-001 Software Professionals all over the world are passionate about Scrum. However, Scrum is not hype in IT industry. Scrum is an Agile Project Management Framework to develop great products that customers love. On the other hand, Project Manager Salaries seem to have become stagnant, showing no visible signs of improvement.
Even the ambiguous Agile Project Manager salary seems to have hit a glass ceiling. With the Scrum Master in such high demand, can we expect these salaries to sustain this sort of growth in an economy that may be dipping into yet another recession?
Who is a Certified Scrum Master (CSM)®?
The CSM certification is only granted to individuals who have demonstrated an acceptable level of knowledge on an assessment. As a result, all of our certification granting assessments have stringent requirements for passing before certification is granted. Scrum Masters demonstrate knowledge and understanding of Scrum and their ability to apply it in real-world situations.
Why Certified Scrum Master (CSM)®? According to the latest data, the annual salary of a ScrumMaster now surpasses that of a Project Manager. Even more surprising, is just how quickly the ScrumMaster salaries have increased in such a short amount of time. As you may remember, I performed similar job research in Oct 2009 when the ScrumMaster role pulled in around $88,000 a year.
ScrumMasters now make on average $95,000 a year, which is a $7,000 increase.
Scrum?..s powerful and astonishing influence on people and projects take its roots from the Manifesto of Agile Software Development (Agile Manifesto) which values:
Individuals and Interactions over processes and tools, Working Software over comprehensive documentation, Customer Collaboration over contract negotiation, Responding to Change over following a plan?
E-Course Duration: 20 to 25 Hours
e-Competence Framework (e-CF)
The mapping of this certificate against the e-Competence Framework. To know more on e-Competence Framework (e-CF) visit, ECF
Course Outline Module Information – 1 The history of Agile The new project development game, Takeuchi & Nonaka (1986) Agile frameworks (Scrum, XP, FDD, DSDM) Project pains Description of the general project management life cycle Brainstorming session regarding specific project pains (the list of “pains” is hanged on the wall and is reviewed during the workshop while verifying that Scrum can indeed provide a solution to each item)
Module Information – 2 Introduction to Scrum Planning & estimation Roles & responsibilities Ceremonies Articrafts Assimilation of Scrum Meetings in Scrum Summarizing exercise
Target Audience Team members Managers Project managers Developers Testers DBAs
QUESTION 1 What is the maximum amount of time that the team should spend in the daily scrum?
A. As long as it takes B. 1 hour C. 45 minutes D. 15 minutes E. 15 minutes, proportionally less for shorter Sprints
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2 Please select which statement is the most accurate:
A. Agile Development is an implementation of Scrum B. Scrum is an implementation of Agile Development C. Agile Development and Scrum are synonyms for the same methodology D. Agile Development and Scrum are contrasting methodologies
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Running the daily scrum meeting B. Team communication C. Gathering requirements for Product Backlog items D. Inspecting work at Sprint Review
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 How should items in the Product Backlog be ordered?
A. Alphabetically first and then by list order in the Product Backlog B. Grouped by business features first and then chronologically by date of original business request C. Prioritized by business importance first. The items that result in biggest ROI, must be priorized first D. Chronologically by date of original business request first and then by list order in the Product Backlog
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is a role in the Scrum framework?
A. Database Admin B. Development Team C. QA Tester D. Senior Developer
