Tech

PfMP Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP) Exam Dumps

December 31, 2022 Lindsay

IMPORTANT UPDATE

PMI is committed to the safety and well-being of our global community. Resulting from COVID-19, there have been significant changes to certification testing that may impact you. Please refer to our COVID-19 page for the most up to date information and guidance.

At this time, we are experiencing a surge in applications for Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP)®. We ask for your patience as the panel review process may currently take up to 60 days to complete. Our service always continues to remain our top priority, and we continue to look forward to supporting you now and into the future.

Your organization does the work right. But does it do the right work? As a portfolio manager, your role is essential to ensuring that the answer is “Yes.”

Formal portfolio management is the most effective way to implement strategic initiatives because it bridges the gap between strategy and implementation. Organizations that are effective in portfolio management had 62 percent of products meet or exceed expected ROI according to our 2012 Pulse of the Profession® research. Portfolio managers align projects, programs and operations with strategic objectives, investing resources in the right work to deliver the expected value.

The Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP) signifies your advanced competency in the coordinated management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives. Organizations with mature project portfolio management practices complete 35 percent more of their programs successfully. They fail less often and waste less money according to our 2015 thought leadership report, Delivering on Strategy: The Power of Project Portfolio Management.

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Who Should Apply?
If you’re an executive or senior-level practitioner managing a portfolio of projects and programs aligned with organizational strategy and focused on doing the right work, then the PfMP is the right choice for you.

Gain and Maintain Your PfMP
First phase of evaluation is panel review
The certification exam has 170 multiple-choice questions and you have four hours to complete it.
To maintain your PfMP, you must earn 60 professional development units (PDUs) in portfolio management topics every three years.

Prerequisites
All applicants must possess a minimum of 96 months of professional business experience within the last 15 years AND Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global equivalent) 84 months of portfolio management experience

or

All applicants must possess a minimum of 96 months of professional business experience within the last 15 years AND Four-year degree (bachelor’s degree or the global equivalent) 48 months of portfolio management experience percentages are used to determine the number of questions related to each domain and task that should appear on the multiple-choice format examination.

Domain Percentage of Items on Exam
Strategic Alignment 25%
Governance 20%
Portfolio Performance 25%
Portfolio Risk Management 15%
Communications Management 15%

Domain 1: Strategic Alignment
The Strategic Alignment domain includes the continuous activities necessary for aligning portfolio components (programs, projects, and operations) with organizational strategic objectives, goals, and priorities. Portfolio strategic alignment also involves recommending portfolio scenarios and related components to create an initial high level portfolio roadmap.

Domain 2: Governance
The Governance domain includes activities related to establishing the governance model, developing the portfolio management plan, and approving the portfolio. Tasks in the Governance domain ensure that portfolio components are authorized and processes and procedures are developed and continuously improved.

Domain 3: Portfolio Performance
The Portfolio Performance domain includes the activities required for managing the portfolio using the portfolio processes as defined by the governance model; continuously monitoring and evaluating the performance of the consolidated portfolio components in order to balance the portfolio; and reporting on progress towards the achievement of strategic objectives.

Domain 4: Portfolio Risk Management
Portfolio Risk Management includes activities related to the balancing and management of portfolio risk consistent with the risk appetite of the organization and facilitates decision making.

Domain 5: Communications Management
The Communications Management domain includes activities related to continuously communicating with stakeholders; understanding their needs and expectations; addressing issues as they occur; managing conflicting interests; and fostering appropriate stakeholder engagement in portfolio decisions and activities.

QUESTION 1
When we talk about portfolios, programs and projects, it is inevitable to mention the business value which is the sum of tangible and intangible assets of an organization, also known as the net quantifiable benefit.
When it comes to business value, at which level of the organization is the pursuit of Business Value optimized?

A. Program
B. Portfolio
C. Operational
D. Project

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Stakeholders have complained to you that they are receiving redundant information and they prefer that you fix the issue promptly as it is time consuming for them. What is your best course of action?

A. Explain to the stakeholders why it is important that they keep receiving this information
B. Re-assess and re-write the Communication Management Plan after analyzing the stakeholders again
C. Escalate the issue to the governance board and ask them to take a decision regarding it
D. Update the communication matrix and remove them from it

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have just finished a major checkpoint in your portfolio and the portfolio has to undergo several changes in order to re-align with the strategies. One component of your portfolio has been cancelled and the resources are going to be reallocated to other components. Which process does these activities?

A. Manage Supply & Demand
B. Authorize Portfolio
C. Manage Portfolio Oversight
D. Optimize Portfolio

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When developing the charter, you will use multiple inputs and documents of which the portfolio Strategic Plan is one. How is the strategic plan used in this case?

A. It is not an input to this process
B. The Portfolio Structure and Portfolio Manager’s Authorizations are copied from the Portfolio Strategic Plan as is and incorporated in the Charter
C. It is updated based on the output of the Develop portfolio charter process
D. The prioritization model is used as a decision framework to structure the portfolio components

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When we talk about portfolios, programs and projects, it is inevitable to mention the business value which is the sum of tangible and intangible assets of an organization, also known as the net quantifiable benefit. When it comes to business value, at which level of the organization is the Business Value achieved?

A. Program
B. Project
C. Portfolio
D. Operational

Answer: D

Healthcare, Tech

ISC HCISPP HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner Exam

December 29, 2022 Lindsay

What is the HCISPP? Healthcare Information Security & Privacy Practitioner

the worldwide healthcare zone is anticipated to be one of the fastest-developing employers for the following 10 years. With the growth of the healthcare industry, the risks and outcomes of retaining fitness statistics covered and secure are increasing. accordingly, the want for qualified specialists with the vital competence to comfortable and defend health information is likewise increasing. Healthcare employers are seeking out such personnel to help them shield vital affected person statistics.

The HCISPP certification aids both the job seekers and the employers to demonstrate their abilities and commitment towards privacy and security of healthcare data.

Become an HCISPP – HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner

Earning the HCISPP healthcare cybersecurity certification is a proven way to build your career and show employers you’re on the forefront of protecting patient health information and navigating a complex regulatory environment.

The HCISPP is the only certification that combines cybersecurity skills with privacy best practices and techniques. It demonstrates you have the knowledge and ability to implement, manage and assess security and privacy controls to protect healthcare organizations using policies and procedures established by the cybersecurity experts at (ISC)².

Prove your skills, advance your career, and gain support from a community of cybersecurity leaders here to help you throughout your professional journey.

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Free HCISPP Ultimate Guide

Learn everything you need to know about preparing for the HCISPP exam, including:
Why you should get certified
HCISPP Fast Facts
What to expect on the exam
How to prepare for the exam
Value of (ISC)² certification

Who Earns the HCISPP?
The HCISPP is ideal for information security professionals charged with guarding protected health information (PHI), including those in the following positions:

Compliance Officer
Information Security Manager
Privacy Officer
Compliance Auditor
Risk Analyst

Medical Records Supervisor
Information Technology Manager
Privacy and Security Consultant
Health Information Manager
Practice Manager

Work in government? See how the HCISPP meets the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Directive 8570.1.

Is the HCISPP Right for You?
The HCISPP isn’t the best security IT certification option for everyone. Before you start down your certification path, make sure you aren’t missing an opportunity to pursue a credential more aligned with your immediate career goals.

Our broad portfolio of accredited security certifications, include:

HCISPP Experience Requirements
Candidates must have a minimum of two years cumulative paid work experience in one or more knowledge areas of the HCISPP CBK that includes security, compliance and privacy. Legal experience may be substituted for compliance and information management experience may be substituted for privacy. Of the two years of experience, one of those years must be in the healthcare industry.

A candidate who doesn’t have the required experience to become a HCISPP may become an Associate of (ISC)² by successfully passing the HCISPP examination. The Associate of (ISC)² will then have three years to earn the two years required experience.

Part-time work and internships may also count towards your experience.

Work Experience
Valid experience includes information systems security-related work performed for a healthcare organization or work that requires healthcare security and privacy controls and involves direct application of that knowledge. Experience must fall within one or more of the seven domains of the (ISC)² HCISPP CBK:

Domain 1. Healthcare Industry
Domain 2. Information Governance in Healthcare
Domain 3. Information Technologies in Healthcare
Domain 4. Regulatory and Standards Environment
Domain 5. Privacy and Security in Healthcare
Domain 6. Risk Management and Risk Assessment
Domain 7. Third-Party Risk Management

Full-Time Experience: Your work experience is accrued monthly. Thus, you must have worked a minimum of 35 hours/week for four weeks in order to accrue one month of work experience

Part-Time Experience: Your part-time experience cannot be less than 20 hours a week and no more than 34 hours a week.

1040 hours of part-time = 6 months of full time experience
2080 hours of part-time = 12 months of full time experience

Internship: Paid or unpaid internship is acceptable. You will need documentation on company/organization letterhead confirming your position as an intern. If you are interning at a school, the document can be on the registrar’s stationery.

QUESTION 1
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?

A. Document the system as highrisk
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment
C. Perform a quantitative threat assessment
D. Notate the information and moveon

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A health care provider is considering Internet access for their employees and patients. Which of the following is the organization’s MOST secure solution for protection of data?

A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and digital signatures
B. Trusted server certificates and passphrases
C. User ID and password
D. Asymmetric encryption and UserID

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the BEST internationally recognized standard for evaluating security products and systems?

A. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
B. Common Criteria (CC)
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The threat modeling identifies a man-in-the-middle (MITM) exposure. Which countermeasure should the information system security officer (ISSO) select to mitigate the risk of a protected Health information (PHI) data leak?

A. Auditing
B. Anonymization
C. Privacy monitoring
D. Data retention

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is considered the last line defense in regard to a Governance, Risk managements, and compliance (GRC) program?

A. Internal audit
B. Internal controls
C. Board review
D. Risk management

Answer: B

VMware

5V0-61.22 VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration Specialist Exam Dumps

December 27, 2022 Lindsay

VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration Specialist

The VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration Specialist exam validates an individual’s understanding of how to integrate Workspace ONE solutions and their knowledge of VMware Workspace ONE UEM, VMware Workspace ONE Access, VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence, and VMware Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub and Hub Services.

Product: Workspace ONE
Associated Certification: VMware Specialist – Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration 2022

Exam 5V0-61.22 : VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration Specialist

Language English
Number of Questions 60
Format Single and Mulitple Choice, proctored
Duration 105 Minutes
Passing Score 300(scaled)

Passing Score – VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300. Your exam may contain unscored questions in addition to the scored questions, this is a standard testing practice. You will not know which questions are unscored, your exam results will reflect your performance on the scored questions only.

Exam Details (Last Updated: 2/21/2022)
The VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration Specialist exam (5V0-61.22) which leads to VMware Specialist – Workspace ONE 21.X Advanced Integration is a 60 item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 105 minutes, which includes five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers. Actual exam time is 100 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services –

Certification website.
Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) must have earned a VCP-DW certification. It is recommended the MQC have 1 or more years of experience working in an IT role with Windows and Linux servers. The MQC should have 1 or more years of experience configuring and managing UEM and Access. The MQC should have 1 or more years of experience working with mobile and desktop device operating systems.

The MQC should have 1 or more years of experience working with network equipment. The MQC should have intermediate knowledge of device data, identity and access management solutions as well as basic knowledge of database technology and caching. The MQC should possess knowledge of the objectives shown in the exam sections in this guide.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.

Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

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If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in this Exam

Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Outline various authentication methods and workflows that can be implemented to ensure a robust user experience, while meeting your security requirements
Objective 1.2 – Summarize the integration workflow of Workspace ONE UEM with Workspace ONE Access
Objective 1.3 – Illustrate an LDAP directory workflow
Objective 1.4 – Explain how JIT provisioning works in Workspace ONE Access
Objective 1.5 – Describe the topology of claim-based identity and access management
Objective 1.6 – Summarize the workflow of OAuth 2.0 authentication for Web Applications
Objective 1.7 – Summarize the workflow of OpenID Connect
Objective 1.8 – Summarize the workflow of SAML authentication
Objective 1.9 – Explain the workflow of the Kerberos authentication method
Objective 1.10 – Explain the workflow of an access policy and identity provider
Objective 1.11 – Outline other third-party virtual desktop infrastructures (VDI)
Objective 1.12 – Describe the differences between Hub Services with or without an integrated Workspace ONE Access
Objective 1.13 – Define risks and their mitigations – combine with HA DR
Objective 1.14 – Discuss architecture design decision examples with justifications

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Explain the concept of conditional access
Objective 2.2 – Explain the different use cases and supported features of Workspace ONE Access Connector
Objective 2.3 – Identify the features and use cases of the AirWatch Provisioning app
Objective 2.4 – Distinguish authentication methods available is the Workspace ONE Access (Connector, Cloud-based, 3rd party IDP)
Objective 2.5 – Outline benefits of claims-based identity management
Objective – 2.6 – Describe the workflow of the password (cloud deployment) authentication method
Objective 2.7 – Explain the workflow of the RADIUS (cloud deployment) authentication method
Objective 2.8 – Illustrate the workflow of the RSA SecureID (cloud deployment) authentication method
Objective 2.9 – Explain the authentication workflow of Mobile SSO for iOS
Objective 2.10 – Explain the authentication of Mobile SSO for Android
Objective 2.11 – Explain the authentication workflow of certificate cloud deployment
Objective 2.12 – Describe the workflows of device compliance checking
Objective 2.13 – Discuss the risk scoring feature with Workspace ONE Intelligence Risk Analytics
Objective 2.14 – Explain features and use cases of Workspace ONE Verify (Intelligent Hub)
Objective 2.15 – Explain how 3rd party integration works to connect and share data with Workspace ONE Intelligence
Objective 2.16 – Describe functionalities of Workspace ONE Intelligence (dashboards, automation, reports, etc.)
Objective 2.17 – Describe what Workspace ONE Intelligence Trust Network is and what third-party solutions are in the ecosystem
Objective 2.18 – Explain the steps to write a Workspace ONE Access API call
Objective 2.19 – Explain the required services for service integration (ENS, SEGv2, UAG, etc.)

Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Objective 3.1 – Outline Workspace ONE design methodology and how it can apply to your organization
Objective 3.2 – Identify benefits of integrating Workspace ONE Access with other Workspace ONE products
Objective 3.3 – Describe the relationship of Hub Services, Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub, Workspace ONE UEM and Workspace ONE Access
Objective 3.4 – Explain how to deploy Workspace ONE experience workflows according to a use case
Objective 3.5 – Discuss all third-party components that are required for infrastructure design

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 – Differentiate common authentication methods in Workspace ONE Access and select the most suitable method to fit your business needs
Objective 4.2 – Outline the workflow of integrating Workspace ONE Access with VMware Horizon
Objective 4.3 – Explain AD synchronization from Workspace ONE UEM and from the Workspace ONE Access connector
Objective 4.4 – Explain how to configure SCIM provisioning
Objective 4.5 – Distinguish the types of resources and how to configure them in the Workspace ONE Access catalog
Objective 4.6 – Describe the integration steps of a Virtual apps integration with Workspace ONE Access (Horizon, Citrix, etc.)
Objective 4.7 – Describe integration steps for Hub Services Features (Passport, Templates, Watson, etc.)
Objective 4.8 – Describe use-cases and steps to implement DEEM.
Objective 4.9 – Outline the steps of integrating a third-party solution with Workspace ONE Intelligence for data or automation
Objective 4.10 – Describe steps to create a remote app access client using Workspace ONE Access

Section 5 – Not Applicable
Section 6 – Not Applicable

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 – Discuss the usage of directory sync safeguards
Objective 7.2 – Explain how to perform general Workspace ONE UEM administration and maintenance through the API
Objective 7.3 – Explain how to perform general Workspace ONE Access administration and maintenance through the API

QUESTION 1
An IT administrator starts infrastructure design for authentication management and would like to enable the single sign-on ability into VMware Workspace ONE UEM Self-Service Portal and VMware Workspace ONE console for administrators.
Which third-party component should the IT administrator use?

A. SAML-based Identity Provider
B. Active Directory
C. LDAP based Directory
D. DHCP

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator has been tasked with building and enabling Secure Email Gateway (SEG) V2 n the Unified Access Gateway (UAG).
How should the SSL certificate be added to the UAG?

A.
From the UAG console:
Import-Certificate -FilePath ?C:\CA-PublicKey.Cer? -CertStoreLocation Cert:\LocalMachine\Root

B.
Upload the SSL certificate to the Workspace ONE UEM console, or upload it locally to the UAG when
confirming the SEG Edge service on the UAG.

C.
From the UAG console:
sudo security add-trusted-cert -d -r trustRoot -k /Library/Keychains/System.keychain ~/new-rootcertificate.crt.

D.
Upload the SSL certificate to the Workspace ONE UEM console, or add it when the SSL is configuring
the SEG Edge service on the UAG.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two considerations should be noted when designing a Workspace ONE environment? (Choose two.)

A. Installing all product components
B. Testing environment
C. Involving stakeholders
D. Defining business drivers
E. Configuring integrations

Answer: C, D

QUESTION 4
Users are able to seamlessly log into VMware Workspace ONE Access with Kerberos and then launch Horizon apps without a prompt for credentials.
What must be enabled to support this feature?

A. Certificate (Cloud Deployment)
B. Password Caching
C. True SSO
D. Identity Bridging

Explanation:

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An administrator needs to configure OpenID Connect in VMware Workspace ONE Access for thirdparty identity providers so the users may use their credentials for single sign-on.
Which primary authentication protocol is used?

A. LDAP
B. FTP
C. IMAP
D. OAuth2

Answer: D

Amazon

SAP-C02 Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional Exam Dumps

December 24, 2022 Lindsay

AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional
Learn more about this certification and AWS resources that can help you prepare

This credential helps certified individuals showcase advanced knowledge and skills in providing complex solutions to complex problems, optimizing security, cost, and performance, and automating manual processes. This certification is a means for organizations to identify and develop talent with these critical skills for implementing cloud initiatives.

Exam overview
Level: Professional
Length: 180 minutes to complete the exam
Visit Exam pricing for additional cost information.
Format: 75 questions, either multiple choice or multiple response

Who should take this exam?
AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional is intended for individuals with two or more years of hands-on experience designing and deploying cloud architecture on AWS. Before you take this exam, we recommend you have:

Familiarity with AWS CLI, AWS APIs, AWS CloudFormation templates, the AWS Billing Console, the AWS Management Console, a scripting language, and Windows and Linux environments
Ability to provide best practice guidance on the architectural design across multiple applications and projects of the enterprise as well as an ability to map business objectives to application/architecture requirements

Ability to evaluate cloud application requirements and make architectural recommendations for implementation, deployment, and provisioning applications on AWS
Ability to design a hybrid architecture using key AWS technologies (e.g., VPN, AWS Direct Connect) as well as a continuous integration and deployment process

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What does it take to earn this certification?
To earn this certification, you’ll need to take and pass the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional exam (SAP-C02). The exam features a combination of two question formats: multiple choice and multiple response. Additional information, such as the exam content outline and passing score, is in the exam guide.

Review sample questions that demonstrate the format of the questions used on this exam and include rationales for the correct answers.

Prepare for your exam
You’ve set your goal. Now it’s time to build knowledge and skills to propel your career. Check out these resources from AWS Training and Certification that are relevant to AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional. We don’t require that you take any specific training before you take an exam. These recommended resources are opportunities to learn from the experts at AWS.

Additional resources – including AWS Builder Labs and game-based learning to complement your prep – are available with a subscription on AWS Skill Builder.

Introduction
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional (SAP-C02) exam is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role. The exam validates a candidate’s advanced technical skills and experience in designing optimized AWS solutions that are based on the AWS Well-Architected Framework.

The exam also validates a candidate’s ability to complete the following tasks within the scope of the AWS Well-Architected Framework:
• Design for organizational complexity
• Design for new solutions
• Continuously improve existing solutions
• Accelerate workload migration and modernization

Target candidate description
The target candidate has 2 or more years of experience in using AWS services to design and implement cloud solutions. This candidate has the ability to evaluate cloud application requirements and make architectural recommendations for deployment of applications on AWS. The target candidate also can provide expert guidance about architectural design that extends across multiple applications and projects within a complex organization.
Exam content
Response types

There are two types of questions on the exam:
• Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
• Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options

Select one or more responses that best completes the statement or answers the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose. Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 65 questions that will affect your score.

Unscored content
The exam includes 10 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.

Exam results
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional (SAP-C02) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.

Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 750. Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback. Candidates who pass the exam will not receive this additional information.
Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and task statements for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the task statements is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context. The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.

Domain % of Exam
Domain 1: Design Solutions for Organizational Complexity 26%
Domain 2: Design for New Solutions 29%
Domain 3: Continuous Improvement for Existing Solutions 25%
Domain 4: Accelerate Workload Migration and Modernization 20%
TOTAL 100%

QUESTION 1
A company is providing weather data over a REST-based API to several customers. The API is hosted by Amazon API Gateway and is integrated with different AWS Lambda functions for each API operation. The company uses Amazon Route 53 for DNS and has created a resource record of weather.example.com. The company stores data for the API in Amazon DynamoDB tables. The company needs a solution that will give the API the ability to fail over to a different AWS Region.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Deploy a new set of Lambda functions in a new Region. Update the API Gateway API to use an edge-optimized API endpoint with Lambda functions from both Regions as targets. Convert the
DynamoDB tables to global tables.

B. Deploy a new API Gateway API and Lambda functions in another Region. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a multivalue answer. Add both API Gateway APIs to the answer. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

C. Deploy a new API Gateway API and Lambda functions in another Region. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a failover record. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

D. Deploy a new API Gateway API in a new Region. Change the Lambda functions to global functions. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a multivalue answer. Add both API Gateway APIs to the answer. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company is running a two-tier web-based application in an on-premises data center. The application layer consists of a single server running a stateful application. The application connects to
a PostgreSQL database running on a separate server. The application’s user base is expected to grow significantly, so the company is migrating the application and database to AWS. The solution will use
Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL, Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling, and Elastic Load Balancing.
Which solution will provide a consistent user experience that will allow the application and database tiers to scale?

A. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora Replicas. Use a Network Load Balancer with the least outstanding requests routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

B. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora writers. Use an Application Load Balancer with the round robin routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

C. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora Replicas. Use an Application Load Balancer with the round robin routing and sticky sessions enabled.

D. Enable Aurora Scaling for Aurora writers. Use a Network Load Balancer with the least outstanding requests routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

Answer: C

Aurora Auto Scaling enables your Aurora DB cluster to handle sudden increases in connectivity or workload. When the connectivity or workload decreases, Aurora Auto Scaling removes unnecessary Aurora Replicas so that you don’t pay for unused provisioned DB instances

QUESTION 3
A company uses a service to collect metadata from applications that the company hosts on premises. Consumer devices such as TVs and internet radios access the applications. Many older devices do not support certain HTTP headers and exhibit errors when these headers are present in responses. The company has configured an on-premises load balancer to remove the unsupported headers from responses sent to older devices, which the company identified by the User-Agent headers. The company wants to migrate the service to AWS, adopt serverless technologies, and retain the ability to support the older devices. The company has already migrated the applications into a set of AWS Lambda functions.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the metadata service. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Configure the CloudFront distribution to forward requests to the ALB. Configure the ALB to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a CloudFront function to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent header.

B. Create an Amazon API Gateway REST API for the metadata service. Configure API Gateway to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Modify the default gateway responses to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent header.

C. Create an Amazon API Gateway HTTP API for the metadata service. Configure API Gateway to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a response mapping template to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent. Associate the response data mapping with the HTTP API.

D. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the metadata service. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Configure the CloudFront distribution to forward requests to the ALB. Configure the ALB to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a Lambda@Edge function that will remove the problematic headers in response to viewer requests based on the value of the User-Agent header.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company is running a traditional web application on Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs to refactor the application as microservices that run on containers. Separate versions of the application exist in two distinct environments: production and testing. Load for the application is variable, but the minimum load and the maximum load are known. A solutions architect needs to design the updated application with a serverless architecture that minimizes operational complexity.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Upload the container images to AWS Lambda as functions. Configure a concurrency limit for the associated Lambda functions to handle the expected peak load. Configure two separate Lambda integrations within Amazon API Gateway: one for production and one for testing.

B. Upload the container images to Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Configure two auto scaled Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) clusters with the Fargate launch type to handle the expected load. Deploy tasks from the ECR images. Configure two separate Application Load Balancers to direct traffic to the ECS clusters.

C. Upload the container images to Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Configure two auto scaled Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) clusters with the Fargate launch type to handle the expected load. Deploy tasks from the ECR images. Configure two separate Application Load Balancers to direct traffic to the EKS clusters.

D. Upload the container images to AWS Elastic Beanstalk. In Elastic Beanstalk, create separate environments and deployments for production and testing. Configure two separate Application LoadBalancers to direct traffic to the Elastic Beanstalk deployments.

Answer: D

Explanation:
minimizes operational + microservices that run on containers = AWS Elastic Beanstalk

QUESTION 5
A company has a multi-tier web application that runs on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances are in an Auto Scaling group. The ALB and the Auto Scaling group are replicated in a backup AWS Region. The minimum value and the maximum value for the Auto Scaling group are set to zero. An Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance stores the application’s data. The DB instance has a read replica in the backup Region. The application presents an endpoint to end users by using an Amazon Route 53 record. The company needs to reduce its RTO to less than 15 minutes by giving the application the ability to automatically fail over to the backup Region. The company does not have a large enough budget for an active-active strategy. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Reconfigure the application’s Route 53 record with a latency-based routing policy that load balances traffic between the two ALBs. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that is based on the HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count metric for the ALB in the primary Region. Configure the CloudWatch alarm to invoke the Lambda function.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Configure Route 53 with a health check that monitors the web application and sends an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notification to the Lambda function when the health check status is unhealthy. Update the application’s Route 53 record with a failover policy that routes traffic to the ALB in the backup Region when a health check failure occurs.

C. Configure the Auto Scaling group in the backup Region to have the same values as the Auto Scaling group in the primary Region. Reconfigure the application’s Route 53 record with a latency-based routing policy that load balances traffic between the two ALBs. Remove the read replica. Replace the read replica with a standalone RDS DB instance. Configure Cross-Region Replication between the RDS DB instances by using snapshots and Amazon S3.

D. Configure an endpoint in AWS Global Accelerator with the two ALBs as equal weighted targets. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that is based on the HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count metric for the ALB in the primary Region. Configure the CloudWatch alarm to invoke the Lambda function.

Answer: B

SAP

C_C4H630_21 SAP Certified Development Associate – SAP Customer Data Platform Exam Dumps

December 22, 2022 Lindsay

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 64%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Development Associate – SAP Customer Data Platform” certification exam validates that the candidate possesses SAP Customer Data Platform fundamentals and core knowledge in the SAP Customer Data Solutions line of business area required of the consultant profile. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of an SAP Customer Data Platform implementation project team. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification. The certificate issued for passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training. You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

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Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Data Ingestion > 12%

Understand how to configure the varios available application sources and its events, and also how to use connector studio to setup custom rest based inbound customer data streams into SAP Customer Data Platform

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Data Activation > 12%

Understand how to configure the varios available application destinations and its actions, and also how to use audiences to setup customer data downstreams out of SAP Customer Data Platform

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Customer Query and Dashboards 8% – 12%

Understand the available customer search interfaces, APIs, and dashboards including analytical graphics showing performance indicators at various levels inside the SAP Customer Data Platform console

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Customer Segmentation and Activity Indicators 8% – 12%

Understand how to create performance attributes and group customers using SAP Customer Data Platform

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

SAP Customer Data Platform Overview and Capabilities 8% – 12%

Understand how to configure and apply SAP Customer Data Platform features from a business and technical consultant perspective

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Customer Schema 8% – 12%

Understand the available Profile and Activity Schemas and how to customize them by adding new attributes or changing the configuration of existing ones

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Data Privacy < 8%

Understand how data governance work in SAP Customer Data Platform, and how to enforce them when configuring data ingestion and activation processes

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Identity Resolution < 8%

Understand how the out of box attribute identifiers can be applied and how to define new attribute identifiers per each of the profile types

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Administration and Toolset < 8%

Understand the administration tools and functionality in order to give access to SAP Customer Data Platform systems and how to troubleshoot possible issues

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

Best Practices < 8%

Understand the use cases scenarios when applying SAP Customer Data Platform and how to address business needs according to the recommended available guidelines and blueprints

C4H630 (SAP CUSTOMER PLATFORM 2202)

General Information

Exam Preparation

All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.
Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
What are some of the attributes that can be used as criteria to create an audience? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Profile entity attributes
B. Attributes from another audience
C. Action attributes
D. Activity attributes
E. Segment attributes

Answer: A, D, E

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a business unit in SAP Customer Data Platform?

A. The business unit represents the owner of the SAP Customer Data Platform tenant. Each business unit within the organization has separate SAP Customer Data Platform tenants provisioned.
B. The business unit is a predefined optional attribute in the customer schema and allows segmenting of B2B customers based on their business hierarchy.
C. The business unit is responsible for maintaining customers in a given market and has its own customer schema to manage both the Contextual Profile and the Unified Customer Profile views.
D. The business unit is an optional informational attribute of the SAP Customer Data Platform Console Admin user.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are importing primary customer residential address data into SAP Customer Data Platform. What is the recommended type of schema to model it?

A. Profile
B. Accounts
C. Data store
D. Activity

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In the customer search dashboard in the SAP Customer Data Platform console, you see a customer profile name showing as UNKNOWN. What does this indicate?

A. The customer profile name is only visible in the Unified Customer Profile view.
B. The customer profile name is generated from the identifier cookie ID.
C. The customer profile is missing first and last name.r
D. The customer profile does not have CIAM ID maintained.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which features of SAP Customer Data Platform can be used to perform verification and transformation of ingested data? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Normalization
B. Certification
C. Modification
D. Extensions
E. Validation

Answer: A, C, E

SAP

E_ACTCLD_23 SAP Certified Specialist – SAP Activate for Cloud Solutions Project Manager Dumps Download

December 20, 2022 Lindsay

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 40 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 90 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Specialist – SAP Activate for Cloud Solutions Project Manager” certification exam verifies that the candidate has the knowledge required in the area of SAP project management. This exam validates whether SAP Cloud-focused project managers have advanced business skills and the ability to apply methodologies and tools. Aside from advanced communication and presentation skills, this certificate also verifies that the project manager has skills to manage internal and external stakeholders, has basic knowledge of change management processes, and can communicate these processes to others. This exam validates that project manager can successfully manage the end-to-end transition of the project from Sales to Realization, can develop roadmaps for project execution, and understand testing and quality management. In particular for SAP Cloud-related projects, the exam verifies that the Project Manager can apply the SAP Activate Methodology. It is strongly recommended that candidates are in possession of an SAP Implementation Associate Consultant certification.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands- on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training. You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Agile Project Planning > 12%
Describe the agile project roles and responsibilities and the preparation of the project including the planning, estimation, user story mapping and construction of backlog

ACT200

SAP Activate Overview > 12%
Define factors influencing SAP Activate, its purpose and place among other frameworks

ACT100
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

SAP Activate Elements > 12%
Provide an overview of content, tools and methodology elements of SAP Activate Solution Implementation Framework. Include Fit to Standard

ACT100
ACT200
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

Workstreams Overview > 12%
Describe concepts, artefact flows, accelerators, tools and roles for each Workstream within SAP Activate Methodology

ACT200
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

SAP Cloud Application Lifecycle Management > 12%
Introduction to SAP Cloud ALM, Value of SAP Cloud ALM, Introduction to SAP Cloud ALM for Implementation, Conducting Fit-to-Standard Workshops, Introduction to SAP Cloud ALM for Operations, Monitoring Business Processes

openSAP CALM1

New Implementation SAP S/4HANA Cloud > 12%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to implementing SAP S/4HANA Cloud.

ACT200
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

Agile Project Delivery 8% – 12%
Describe how the project team prepares release and sprint plans, and the structure and key activities in each sprint. Discuss key techniques used in agile projects

ACT200

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience. Security Guidelines

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QUESTION 1
What are some of the capabilities end users can utilize to adapt and change their launchpad home
page according to the way they work?

A. Add any SAP Fiori apps to a group, regardless of role
B. Rename a predelivered tile
C. Delete a predelivered group
D. Rearrange or move tiles within a group
E. Add a new group

Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION 2
What does SAP Activate recommend to keep team members informed and aligned?

A. Daily status meeting with project manager
B. Daily progress review meeting with sponsor
C. Daily team stand-up meeting
D. Daily e-mail status updates to project manager

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not about Fit/Gap Analysis (done during Explore Phase)? There are 2 answers to this question.

A. Validate pre-activate and pre-assembled solution in the development system.
B. Drive towards adopting customers processes.
C. Minimize the needs for rework during realization.
D. Prioritize delta requirement and gaps.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 4
Who determines the priority of user stories in the backlog of an Agile project?

A. Project Team
B. SCRUM Master
C. Project Manager
D. Product Owner

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which accelerator can help you document the detailed design of solution extensions? Please choosethe answer.

A. Product Backlog Template
B. Change Request Template
C. Sprint Backlog Template
D. RICEF Specification Template

Answer: D

Juniper

JN0-636 Juniper Security, Professional Exam Free Dump

December 17, 2022 Lindsay

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code JN0-636
Prerequisite Certification JNCIS-SEC
Exam Length 90 minutes
Exam Type 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions Junos OS 22.2 – SD 22.1

The Security enables you to demonstrate a thorough understanding of security technology in general and Junos OS software for SRX Series devices. JNCIP-SEC, the professional-level certification in this track, is designed for networking professionals with advanced knowledge of the Juniper Networks Junos OS for SRX Series devices. The written exam verifies your understanding of advanced security technologies and related platform configuration and troubleshooting skills.

This track contains four certifications:
JNCIA-SEC: Security, Associate. For details, see JNCIA-SEC.
JNCIS-SEC: Security, Specialist. For details, see JNCIS-SEC.
JNCIP-SEC: Security, Professional. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIE-SEC: Security, Expert. For details, see JNCIE-SEC.

Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

Recommended Training : Advanced Juniper Security
Exam Resources Industry/product knowledge Juniper TechLibrary
Additional Preparation Juniper Learning Portal

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIP-Sec certification exam.

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Exam Objective	Description
Firewall Filters	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of firewall filters. Selective packet processing Troubleshooting with firewall filters Filter-based forwarding Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor firewall filters.
Troubleshooting Security Policy and Zones	Given a scenario, demonstrate how to troubleshoot or monitor security policies or security zones. Tools Logging/tracing Other outputs
Advanced Threat Protection	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention (on-premises appliance or Cloudbased service). Collectors Custom rules Mitigation Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention.
Edge Security	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of edge security features. Hardware support Security Intelligence (SecIntel) Intrusion prevention system (IPS) Corero DDoS Mitigation Advanced threat prevention (ATP)
Compliance	Describe the concepts or operation of security compliance. Role-based access control (RBAC) Junos Space® Security Director Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) and Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) integration
Threat Mitigation	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of threat mitigation. Malware identification or mitigation Malicious lateral traffic identification or mitigation Zero trust microsegmentation Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor threat mitigation.
Logical and Tenant Systems	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of the logical systems. Administrative roles Security profiles Logical systems (LSYS) communication Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of the tenant systems. Master and tenant admins Tenant systems (TSYS) capacity
Layer 2 Security	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 security. Transparent mode Mixed mode Secure wire Media Access Control Security (MACsec) Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor Layer 2 security.
Advanced Network Address Translation (NAT)	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced NAT functionality. Persistent NAT Domain name system (DNS) doctoring IPv6 NAT Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced NAT scenarios.
Advanced IPsec	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced IPsec applications. Remote access VPNs Hub-and-spoke VPNs Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) Auto Discovery VPNs (ADVPNs) Routing with IPsec Overlapping IP addresses Dynamic gateways IPsec class of service (CoS) Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced IPsec functionality.

QUESTION 1
SRX Series device enrollment with Policy Enforcer fails To debug further, the user issues the following command show configuration services securityâ€”intelligence url
https : //cloudfeeds . argon . juniperaecurity . net/api/manifeat. xml and receives the following output:
What is the problem in this scenario?

A. The device is directly enrolled with Juniper ATP Cloud.
B. The device is already enrolled with Policy Enforcer.
C. The SRX Series device does not have a valid license.
D. Junos Space does not have matching schema based on the

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are asked to deploy filter-based forwarding on your SRX Series device for incoming traffic sourced from the 10.10 100 0 network in this scenario, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A. You must create a forwarding-type routing instance.
B. You must create and apply a firewall filter that matches on the source address 10.10.100.0 and then sends this traffic to your routing
C. You must create and apply a firewall filter that matches on the destination address 10 10.100.0 and then sends this traffic to your routing instance.
D. You must create a RIB group that adds interface routes to your routing instance.
E. You must create a VRF-type routing instance.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3
You are connecting two remote sites to your corporate headquarters site. You must ensure that all traffic is secured and sent directly between sites In this scenario, which VPN should be used?

A. IPsec ADVPN
B. hub-and-spoke IPsec VPN
C. Layer 2 VPN
D. full mesh Layer 3 VPN with EBGP

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are asked to detect domain generation algorithms
Which two steps will accomplish this goal on an SRX Series firewall? (Choose two.)

A. Define an advanced-anti-malware policy under [edit services].
B. Attach the security-metadata-streaming policy to a security
C. Define a security-metadata-streaming policy under [edit
D. Attach the advanced-anti-malware policy to a security policy.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
In Juniper ATP Cloud, what are two different actions available in a threat prevention policy to deal with an infected host? (Choose two.)

A. Send a custom message
B. Close the connection.
C. Drop the connection silently.
D. Quarantine the host.

Answer: CD

Juniper

JN0-212 Juniper Cloud, Associate Free Exam Dumps Downloads

December 15, 2022 Lindsay

The Cloud track enables you to demonstrate competence with cloud networking architectures such as multiclouds, software-defined networking, SD-WAN, and other cloud technologies. JNCIA-Cloud, the associate-level certification in this track, is designed for networking professionals with introductory-level knowledge of Juniper Networks cloud-based networking architectures, theory, and best practices. The written exam verifies your understanding of cloud-based networking principles and technologies.

This track includes four certifications:
JNCIA-Cloud: Cloud, Associate. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIS-Cloud: Cloud, Specialist. For details, see JNCIS-Cloud.
JNCIP-Cloud: Cloud, Professional. For details, see JNCIP-Cloud.
JNCIE-Cloud: Cloud, Expert. For details, see JNCIE-Cloud.

Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

Exam Code : JN0-212
Prerequisite Certification : None
Delivered by : Pearson VUE
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Contrail 22.1, OpenStack Wallaby, Kubernetes 1.21
Recertification : Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, see Recertification.

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Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIA-Cloud certification exam.

Objective	Description
Cloud Fundamentals	Identify the concepts or functionality of various fundamental elements of cloud networking: Deployment models (public, private, hybrid cloud) Service models: Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service(PaaS) Cloud native architectures Cloud automation tools
Cloud Infrastructure: Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) and SDN	Identify the concepts, benefits, or functionality of network function virtualization: NFV architecture NFV orchestration Virtualized network functions (VNFs) Identify the concepts, benefits, or functionality of SDN: SDN architecture SDN controller SDN solutions
Network Virtualization	Identify concepts, operation, or functionality of network virtualization: Virtual network types Underlay and overlay networks Encapsulation and tunneling (MPLSoGRE, MPLSoUDP, VXLAN, EVPN with VXLAN)
Cloud Virtualization	Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Linux virtualization: Linux architecture Hypervisor type (type 1 and 2) Hypervisor operations and concepts Kernal-based virtual machine (KVM), Quick Emulator (QEMU) concepts and operations Creation of virtual machines Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Linux virtualization: Linux architecture Hypervisor type (type 1 and 2) Hypervisor operations and concepts Kernal-based virtual machine (KVM), Quick Emulator (QEMU) concepts and operations Creation of virtual machines Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Linux containers: Container versus virtual machine Container components Creation of containers using Docker Cloud Orchestration with OpenStack
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of OpenStack:	Creation and management of virtual machines in OpenStack Automation using HEAT templates in Yet Another Markup Language (YAML) OpenStack UIs usage OpenStack networking plugins OpenStack Security Groups
Cloud Orchestration with Kubernetes	Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Kubernetes: Creation and management of containers in Kubernetes Kubernetes API Objects (Pods, ReplicaSets, Deployments, Services) Kubernetes namespaces and Container Network Interface (CNI) plugins
Contrail® Networking™	Identify concepts, operation, or functionality of Contrail Networking: Architecture Orchestration integration Multitenancy Service chaining Automation or security Configuration

QUESTION 1
According to the juniper network, what is the recommended external routing protocol for the underlay network?

A. IS-IS
B. EGP
C. OSPF
D. BGP

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two capabilities are supported with the cSRX firewall?(choose two)

A. IPS
B. routing instances
C. chassis clustering
D. Layer 2 deployment

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 3
Which cloud CPE component manages the end-to-end path from the CPE to the central office or to another CPE?

A. service orchestration
B. infrastructure orchestration
C. physica telco cloud infrastructure
D. virtual network functions

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are two objectives of SDN?(choose two)

A. centralization of control plane
B. physical separation of the control plane from the data plane
C. centralization of the forwarding plane
D. centralization of the services plane

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 5
What is an advantage of the Junos Telemetry Interface(JTI) over SNMP?

A. JTI can pull data more frequently
B. JTI always transfers data over HTTP
C. JTI never transfers data over UDP
D. JTI can push data more frequently

Answer: D

Dell, EMC

DEA-1TT5 Associate Information Storage and Management Exam Dumps

December 13, 2022 Lindsay

Explore Proven Professional Exams
Discover more about select certification exams directly from the experts. These video resources can help learners evaluate some of the critical success factors in reaching their certification goals.

Certification Overview
This certification validates the learner’s comprehensive understanding of various storage infrastructure components in modern data center environments. It tests the learner’s knowledge of storage-related technologies in an increasingly complex IT environment, which is fast changing with the adoption of new technologies in a digital transformation era (Cloud, Edge computing, Big Data, IoT, ML/AI, and 5G). It provides a strong understanding of storage-related technologies such as storage networking technologies (FC SAN, IP SAN, and NVMe over Fabric), intelligent storage systems (block, file, and object), data protection (backup, archive, and replication), and storage infrastructure security and management.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
Pass the following Associate level exam on or after February 11, 2022.
• DEA-1TT5 Associate – Information Storage and Management Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of February 11, 2022.

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Other Certification Recommendations
This certification will qualify towards most of the below-mentioned Specialist level certification tracks in the Dell EMC Proven Professional program
• Cloud Architect (DCS-CA)
• Systems Administrator (DCS-SA)
• Technology Architect (DCS-TA)
• Implementation Engineer (DCS-IE)
• Platform Engineer (DCS-PE)
• Security (DCS)

Please refer to the Certification Framework for more details about individual certifications.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate – Information Storage and Management (DCA-ISM) certification.
This exam focuses on information storage and management in a modern data center environment. It includes technologies driving digital transformation, intelligent storage systems, software-defined data center, storage networking technologies, and various business continuity options – along with security and management of a storage infrastructure. A limited number of questions refer to product examples that are used in the training to reinforce the knowledge of technologies and concepts.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Modern Data Center Infrastructure (18%)
• Describe the data classification, elements of a data center, key characteristics of a data center, and key technologies driving digital transformation
• Explain the cloud characteristics, cloud service models, and cloud deployment models
• Explain the key characteristics of big data, big data analytics, AI/ML, Internet of Things (IoT) architecture, Edge computing, and 5G technologies
• Describe a compute system, storage, connectivity in a data center, and application center
• Describe software-defined data center, modern data center architecture, and options to build a modern data center

Storage Systems (23%)
• Explain the components of an intelligent storage system, and RAID
• Describe storage provisioning and tiering
• Explain the features and components of block, file, object, and unified storage system

Storage Networking Technologies (19%)
• Explain the FC SAN components, FC ports, topologies, link aggregation, and SAN virtualization
• Explain the components and connectivity of iSCSI, FCIP, and FCoE
• Explain the NVMe over Fabrics, Software-defined storage and networking

Backup, Archive, and Replication (24%)
• Describe the information availability measurements and key fault tolerance techniques
• Explain backup granularity, architecture, backup targets, operations, and backup methods
• Describe data deduplication and data archiving solutions architecture
• Describe replication uses, and replication and migration techniques

Security and Management (16%)
• Describe the information security goals, terminologies, various security domains, and threats to a storage infrastructure
• Explain key security controls to protect the storage infrastructure
• Describe the storage infrastructure management functions and processes

The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

QUESTION 1
What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

A. Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.
B. Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.
C. Manages the storage space for all remote clients.
D. Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is an accurate description about Dell EMC VxBlock system?

A. CI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, software defined storage into an engineered solution.
B. HCI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, software-defined storage into an engineered solution.
C. CI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, storage into an engineered solution.
D. HCI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, and storage optimized for VMware VSAN

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An organization wants to consume compute, network, and storage resources through self-service portal.
Which cloud service model provides this capability?

A. Software as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Platform as a Service correct
D. Data as a Service

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true regarding virtual provisioning?

A. Shared and Thin LUNS can be expanded rapidly with only minor disruptions
B. Multiple shared storage pools can be created while each pool must be allocated to a unique thin LUN
C. Virtual provisioning enables more efficient allocation of storage to compute systems correct
D. Virtual provisioning prevents issues that arise from oversubscription

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An organization is planning to secure the connection between the data center and cloud while
performing data backup and replication.
Which security control mechanism will help organization to achieve the desired security?

A. identity and Access management correct
B. Intrusion Detection and Prevention
C. Firewall
D. Virtual Private Network

Answer: A

Juniper

JN0-682 Juniper Data Center, Professional Exam Dumps Free Download

December 9, 2022 Lindsay

Exam Code : JN0-682
Prerequisite Certification: JNCIS-DC or JNCIS-ENT
Delivered by : Pearson VUE
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Junos OS: 21.3

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Examkingdom Juniper JN0-682 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Juniper JN0-682 Exam PDF

Best Juniper JN0-682 Certification, Juniper JN0-682 PDF Training at Certkingdom.com

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIP-DC certification exam.

The Data Center track enables you to demonstrate competence with advanced data center technologies and related configuration and troubleshooting skills. JNCIP-DC, the professional-level certification in this track, is designed for experienced data center networking professionals with advanced knowledge of the Juniper Networks Junos software and data center devices. The written exam verifies your understanding of data center technologies, related platform configuration, and troubleshooting skills.

This track includes four certifications:
JNCIA-DC: Data Center, Associate. For details, see JNCIA-DC.
JNCIS-DC: Data Center, Specialist. For details, see JNCIS-DC.
JNCIP-DC: Data Center, Professional. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIE-DC: Data Center, Expert. For details, see JNCIE-DC.

Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

Recommended Training
Data Center Fabric with EVPN and VXLAN

Exam Resources : Industry/product knowledge
Juniper TechLibrary : Additional Preparation
Juniper Learning Portal

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIP-DC certification exam.

Data Center Deployment or Management

Describe data center deployment concepts:
Zero Touch provisioning
DHCP
Implementation

Describe data center management concepts:
Monitoring
Analytics

Layer 3 Fabrics
Describe IP Fabric concepts:
IP Fabric architecture
IP Fabric routing
IP Fabric scaling
IP Fabric best practices

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting IP Fabrics
VXLAN

Describe VXLAN concepts:
VXLAN control planes
Data plane

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VXLAN
EVPN VXLAN Signaling

Describe EVPN concepts:
Route types
EVPN multicast
Multiprotocol BGP
EVPN architectures, including Centrally-Routed Bridging (CRB) and Edge-Routed Bridging (ERB)
MAC Learning

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting EVPNs

Data Center Interconnect

Describe DCI concepts:
Interconnect network types
Layer 2 to L3 stretching
Stitching
EVPN-signaled VXLAN for DCI

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting DCI

Data Center Architecture and Security

Describe single-tenant and multi-tenant architectures:
Traffic isolation
Multitenancy (routing instances)

Describe data center security concepts:
Filter-based forwarding

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about VXLANs? (Choose two.)

A. VXLANs have smaller broadcast domains than VLANs.
B. VXLANs have a smaller logical network identifier than VLANs.
C. VXLANs can have a theoretical maximum of 16 million unique networks.
D. VXLANs are an overlay technology.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You are required to create an IP fabric for your new data center. In this scenario, which protocol would be used to support EVPN?

A. IS-IS with correct TLVs enabled
B. MP-BGP
C. OSPF
D. any protocol with the appropriate APIs

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which device provides microsegmentation in a data center network?

A. vSRX
B. EX4300
C. vMX
D. QFX5100

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are building an IP fabric underlay network for your new data center. You must ensure that you have predictable load-balancing behavior throughout your network. According to Juniper Networks, what are two best practices that should be followed in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. All leaf devices must be identical to the spine device models including the same installed line cards.
B. All spine devices should be identical models including the same installed line cards.
C. Every leaf device should have an identical uplink to every other leaf device.
D. Every leaf device should have an identical uplink to every spine device.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are correct about VXLAN domains? (Choose two.)

A. With Layer 2 traffic, the VLAN ID is discarded before the packet is sent.
B. With Layer 3 traffic, the VLAN ID is discarded before the packet is sent.
C. With Layer 2 traffic, the VLAN ID is transmitted within the packet.
D. With Layer 3 traffic, the VLAN ID is transmitted within the packet.

Answer: AB

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