Monthly Archives: August 2023

CompTIA CSA+

CS0-003 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Exam

Exam Codes: CS0-003
Launch Date: June 6, 2023

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) is a certification for cyber professionals tasked with incident detection, prevention and response through continuous security monitoring.

Stand Out in Cybersecurity
Demonstrate Competency of Current Trends
Make yourself a valuable team member and show your knowledge of current trends that affect the daily work of security analysts, such as cloud and hybrid environments.

Proactively Monitor and Detect
Demonstrate your skills in detecting and analyzing indicators of malicious activity using the most up-to-date methods and tools, such as threat intelligence, security information and event management (SIEM), endpoint detection and response (EDR) and extended detection and response (XDR).

Respond to Threats, Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Prove your knowledge of incident response and vulnerability management processes and highlight the communication skills critical to security analysis and compliance

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Exam Description:
The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification verifies that successful candidates have the knowledge and skills required to detect and analyze indicators of malicious activity, understand threat intelligence and threat management, respond to attacks and vulnerabilities, perform incident response, and report and communicate related activity.

Number of Questions Maximum of 85 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 165 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)

Recommended Experience:
Network+, Security+ or equivalent knowledge. Minimum of 4 years of hands-on experience as an incident response analyst or security operations center (SOC) analyst, or equivalent experience.

Languages:
English, with Japanese, Portuguese and Spanish to follow

Retirement:
TBD – Usually three years after launch

Certification Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skill set. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA CySA+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA CySA+ certification. Collect at least 60 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA CySA+ certification will automatically renew.

Want more details? Learn more about the CompTIA Continuing Education program.

QUESTION 1
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege
escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which
of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?

A. CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H: K/A: L
B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?

A. PAM
B. IDS
C. PKI
D. DLP

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website,
and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

A. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned
B. Service-level agreement
C. Playbook
D. Affected hosts
E. Risk score
F. Education plan

Answer: D, E

QUESTION 5
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the
industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released.
Which of the following would best protect this organization?

A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
B. A mean time to detect of 45 days
C. A mean time to respond of 15 days
D. Third-party application testing

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is
being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script:
Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?

Cisco

200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam

Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $ USD, plus tax or use Cisco Learning Credits
Associated certification : CCNA

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

Network fundamentals
Network access
IP connectivity
IP services
Security fundamentals
Automation and programmability

Exam Description: CCNA Exam v1.0 (CCNA 200-301) is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNA certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. The course, Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA), helps candidates prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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20% 1.0 Network Fundamentals
1.1 Explain the role and function of network components
1.1.a Routers
1.1.b Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches
1.1.c Next-generation firewalls and IPS
1.1.d Access points
1.1.e Controllers (Cisco DNA Center and WLC)
1.1.f Endpoints
1.1.g Servers
1.1.h PoE
1.2 Describe characteristics of network topology architectures
1.2.a Two-tier
1.2.b Three-tier
1.2.c Spine-leaf
1.2.d WAN
1.2.e Small office/home office (SOHO)
1.2.f On-premise and cloud
1.3 Compare physical interface and cabling types
1.3.a Single-mode fiber, multimode fiber, copper
1.3.b Connections (Ethernet shared media and point-to-point)
1.4 Identify interface and cable issues (collisions, errors, mismatch duplex, and/or speed)
1.5 Compare TCP to UDP
1.6 Configure and verify IPv4 addressing and subnetting
1.7 Describe the need for private IPv4 addressing
1.8 Configure and verify IPv6 addressing and prefix
1.9 Describe IPv6 address types
1.9.a Unicast (global, unique local, and link local)
1.9.b Anycast
1.9.c Multicast
1.9.d Modified EUI 64
1.10 Verify IP parameters for Client OS (Windows, Mac OS, Linux)
1.11 Describe wireless principles
1.11.a Nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels
1.11.b SSID
1.11.c RF
1.11.d Encryption
1.12 Explain virtualization fundamentals (server virtualization, containers, and VRFs)
1.13 Describe switching concepts
1.13.a MAC learning and aging
1.13.b Frame switching
1.13.c Frame flooding
1.13.d MAC address table

20% 2.0 Network Access
2.1 Configure and verify VLANs (normal range) spanning multiple switches
2.1.a Access ports (data and voice)
2.1.b Default VLAN
2.1.c InterVLAN connectivity
2.2 Configure and verify interswitch connectivity
2.2.a Trunk ports
2.2.b 802.1Q
2.2.c Native VLAN
2.3 Configure and verify Layer 2 discovery protocols (Cisco Discovery Protocol and LLDP)
2.4 Configure and verify (Layer 2/Layer 3) EtherChannel (LACP)
2.5 Interpret basic operations of Rapid PVST+ Spanning Tree Protocol
2.5.a Root port, root bridge (primary/secondary), and other port names
2.5.b Port states (forwarding/blocking)
2.5.c PortFast
2.6 Describe Cisco Wireless Architectures and AP modes
2.7 Describe physical infrastructure connections of WLAN components (AP, WLC, access/trunk ports, and LAG)
2.8 Describe AP and WLC management access connections (Telnet, SSH, HTTP, HTTPS, console, and TACACS+/RADIUS)
2.9 Interpret the wireless LAN GUI configuration for client connectivity, such as WLAN creation, security settings, QoS profiles, and advanced settings

25% 3.0 IP Connectivity
3.1 Interpret the components of routing table
3.1.a Routing protocol code
3.1.b Prefix
3.1.c Network mask
3.1.d Next hop
3.1.e Administrative distance
3.1.f Metric
3.1.g Gateway of last resort
3.2 Determine how a router makes a forwarding decision by default
3.2.a Longest prefix match
3.2.b Administrative distance
3.2.c Routing protocol metric
3.3 Configure and verify IPv4 and IPv6 static routing
3.3.a Default route
3.3.b Network route
3.3.c Host route
3.3.d Floating static
3.4 Configure and verify single area OSPFv2
3.4.a Neighbor adjacencies
3.4.b Point-to-point
3.4.c Broadcast (DR/BDR selection)
3.4.d Router ID
3.5 Describe the purpose, functions, and concepts of first hop redundancy protocols

10% 4.0 IP Services
4.1 Configure and verify inside source NAT using static and pools
4.2 Configure and verify NTP operating in a client and server mode
4.3 Explain the role of DHCP and DNS within the network
4.4 Explain the function of SNMP in network operations
4.5 Describe the use of syslog features including facilities and levels
4.6 Configure and verify DHCP client and relay
4.7 Explain the forwarding per-hop behavior (PHB) for QoS, such as classification, marking, queuing, congestion, policing, and shaping
4.8 Configure network devices for remote access using SSH
4.9 Describe the capabilities and functions of TFTP/FTP in the network

15% 5.0 Security Fundamentals
5.1 Define key security concepts (threats, vulnerabilities, exploits, and mitigation techniques)
5.2 Describe security program elements (user awareness, training, and physical access control)
5.3 Configure and verify device access control using local passwords
5.4 Describe security password policies elements, such as management, complexity, and password alternatives (multifactor authentication, certificates, and biometrics)
5.5 Describe IPsec remote access and site-to-site VPNs
5.6 Configure and verify access control lists
5.7 Configure and verify Layer 2 security features (DHCP snooping, dynamic ARP inspection, and port security)
5.8 Compare authentication, authorization, and accounting concepts
5.9 Describe wireless security protocols (WPA, WPA2, and WPA3)
5.10 Configure and verify WLAN within the GUI using WPA2 PSK

10% 6.0 Automation and Programmability
6.1 Explain how automation impacts network management
6.2 Compare traditional networks with controller-based networking
6.3 Describe controller-based, software defined architecture (overlay, underlay, and fabric)
6.3.a Separation of control plane and data plane
6.3.b Northbound and Southbound APIs
6.4 Compare traditional campus device management with Cisco DNA Center enabled device management
6.5 Describe characteristics of REST-based APIs (CRUD, HTTP verbs, and data encoding)
6.6 Recognize the capabilities of configuration management mechanisms Puppet, Chef, and Ansible
6.7 Recognize components of JSON-encoded data

QUESTION 1
Which authentication method allows a user to log in to an SSO-enabled Cisco Unified Communications application by utilizing a Microsoft Windows login, thereby not requiring any credentials to be entered?

A. Smart Card
B. OAuth
C. form-based
D. Kerberos

Answer: B

Explanation:
The main advantage of Kerberos authentication compared to the other authentication methods is that you do not need to provide your credentials when you log in to Cisco Jabber. If you use Kerberos, the client does not prompt users for credentials, because authentication was already provided to gain access to the Windows desktop. This authentication method allows you to log in to Cisco Jabber with your Microsoft Windows login.

QUESTION 2
When Cisco IM and Presence is configured to use automatic fallback, how long does the Server Recovery Manager service wait for a failed service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated?

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour

Answer: C

Explanation:
Automatic Fallback
Automatic fallback takes place when the server monitors the services and the Server Recovery Manager(SRM) service will automatically fallback users to their homed nodes. The key in this configuration is that the Server Recovery Manager(SRM) service will wait 30 minutes for a failed service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated. Once this 30 minute up time is established, user sessions are moved back to their homed nodes. The Jabber client will apply the re-log in upper and lower limits for the fallback. Automatic fallback is not the default configuration, but it can be enabled. To enable automatic fallback, change the Enable Automatic Fallback
parameter in the Server Recovery Manager Service Parameters to value True.

QUESTION 3
Which entity is a standard component used for authentication by SAML 2.0?

A. identity provider
B. session broker
C. Internet service provider
D. client access server

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An engineer must configure a test user mailbox in a newly deployed Cisco Unity Express module. Which console command set reflects the correct configuration in this scenario?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two command line arguments can you specify when installing Cisco Jabber for windows? (Choose two.)

A. CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN
B. TFTP_ADDRESS
C. VOICEMAIL_SERVER_ADDRESS
D. SERVICES_DOMAIN
E. TFTP

Answer: D, E

QUESTION 6
Which description of an IdP server is true?

A. authenticates user credentials
B. provides user authorization
C. is an authentication request that is generated by a Cisco Unified Communications application
D. consists of pieces of security information that are transferred to the service provider for user authentication

Answer: A

Explanation:
SSO uses Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to exchange authentication details between an Identity Provider (IdP) and a service provider. The identity provider authenticates user credentials and issues SAML assertions, which are pieces of security information transferred from the identity provider to the service provider for user authentication. Each assertion is an XML document that

Oracle

1Z0-1085-23 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Foundations Associate Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 60 Minutes
Exam Price: Free
Number of Questions: 35
Passing Score: 60%
Validation: This Exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Certified Foundations Associate

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Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1085-23
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Foundations certification is for individuals who intend to demonstrate fundamental knowledge of public cloud services provided by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). This certification is for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or procuring cloud solutions, as well as those with a technical background who want to validate their foundational-level knowledge around core OCI services.

This exam does not require any hands-on technical experience and is not a prerequisite for taking any other OCI certifications.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Become an OCI Foundations Associate (2023)

Practice Exam
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

The following table lists the exam objectives and their weightings.
Getting Started with OCI 10%
Core OCI Services 60%
Security and Compliance 20%
Governance and Administration 10%

Getting Started with OCI [10%]
Describe the key features and components of OCI
Discuss OCI Regions and Availability Domains

Core OCI Services [60%]
Describe OCI Compute services
Describe OCI Networking services
Describe OCI Database services
Describe OCI Storage services

Security and Compliance [20%]
Explain the OCI Shared Security Model
Describe OCI Security services
Describe OCI Identity and Access Management services

Governance and Administration [10%]
Explain the OCI Pricing model
Describe OCI Cost Management Tools

QUESTION 1
A company has developed an eCommerce web application In Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.
What should they do to ensure that the application has the highest level of resilience?

A. Deploy the application across multiple Regions and Availability Domains.
B. Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and subnet.
C. Deploy the application across multiple Virtual Cloud Networks.
D. Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and Fault Domains.

Answer: A

Explanation:
For highest level of resilience you can deploy the application between regions and distribute on
availability domain and fault domains.
Reference:

QUESTION 2
You have a mission-critical application which requires to be globally available at all times.
Which deployment strategy should you adopt?

A. Use multiple Fault Domains In each Availability Domain in each Region.
B. Use multiple Availability Domains In one Region.
C. Use multiple Fault Domains In one Region.
D. Use multiple Fault Domains in any Availability Domain in multiple Regions.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure is hosted in regions and availability domains. A region is a localized
geographic area, and an availability domain is one or more data centers located within a region. A
region is composed of one or more availability domains.
Regions are independent of other regions and can be separated by vast distances”across countries
or even continents.
Availability domains are isolated from each other, fault tolerant, and very unlikely to fail
simultaneously. Because availability domains do not share infrastructure such as power or cooling, or
the internal availability domain network, a failure at one availability domain within a region is
unlikely to impact the availability of the others within the same region.
Fault domain is a grouping of hardware and infrastructure within an availability domain. Each
availability domain contains three fault domains. Fault domains provide anti-affinity: they let you
distribute your instances so that the instances are not on the same physical hardware within a single
availability domain. A hardware failure or Compute hardware maintenance event that affects one
fault domain does not affect instances in other fault domains. In addition, the physical hardware in a
fault domain has independent and redundant power supplies, which prevents a failure in the power
supply hardware within one fault domain from affecting other fault domains.

QUESTION 3
Which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure service allows you to run code without provisioning any underlying infrastructure resources?

A. Compute service
B. Storage Gateway
C. Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)
D. Oracle Functions

Answer: C

Explanation:
Oracle Functions is a fully managed, multi-tenant, highly scalable, on-demand, Functions-as-a-
Service platform. It is built on enterprise-grade Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and powered by the Fn
Project open source engine. Use Oracle Functions (sometimes abbreviated to just Functions) when
you want to focus on writing code to meet business needs.
The serverless and elastic architecture of Oracle Functions means there’s no infrastructure
administration or software administration for you to perform. You don’t provision or maintain
compute instances, and operating system software patches and upgrades are applied automatically.
Oracle Functions simply ensures your app is highly-available, scalable, secure, and monitored. With
Oracle Functions, you can write code in Java, Python, Node, Go, and Ruby (and for advanced use
cases, bring your own Dockerfile, and Graal VM). You can then deploy your code, call it directly or
trigger it in response to events, and get billed only for the resources consumed during the execution.

Cisco

300-810 Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (300-810 CLICA) Exam

Associated certifications
CCNP Collaboration
Cisco Certified Specialist – Collaboration Applications Implementation

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of collaboration applications, including:

Single sign-on
Cisco Unified IM and Presence
Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unity Express
Application clients

Exam Description
Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications v1.1 (300-810) Exam Description: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications v1.1 (CLICA 300-810) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Collaboration Certification. This exam certifies a candidate’s knowledge of collaboration applications, including single sign-on, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, Cisco Unity Connection, Cisco Unity Express, and application clients.

The course, Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications, helps candidates to prepare for this exam. The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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15% 1.0 Single Sign-On (SSO) for Collaboration Applications
1.1 Describe these types of SSO as they relate to Collaboration
1.1.a Integrated Windows AD
1.1.b Kerberos
1.1.c Two-factor authentication (2FA)
1.1.d Third-party IdP
1.2 Describe the SAML SSO login process flow in the context of Cisco Collaboration solutions
1.3 Describe these components of SAML 2.0 and later
1.3.a Assertion
1.3.b Protocol
1.3.c Binding
1.3.d Profiles
1.4 Describe SAML SSO configuration
1.5 Describe OAuth 2.0

30% 2.0 Cisco Unified IM and Presence and Cloud Messaging
2.1 Configure Cisco Unified IM and Presence on premises
2.1.a High availability
2.1.b Calendar integration
2.1.c Apple Push Notification Service
2.1.d Persistent chat
2.1.e Federation configuration (XMPP and SIP)
2.1.f Centralized Cisco Unified IM and Presence
2.1.g Hybrid Message Service
2.2 Troubleshoot Cisco Unified IM and Presence on-premises
2.2.a XMPP
2023 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 2
2.2.b High availability
2.2.c Calendar integration
2.2.d Apple Push Notification Service
2.2.e Persistent chat
2.2.f Federation configuration (XMPP and SIP)
2.2.g Message Archiver Service

30% 3.0 Cisco Unity Connection
3.1 Configure these in Cisco Unity Connection
3.1.a Call handlers
3.1.b Voicemail transfers and greetings
3.1.c Routing rules
3.1.d Distribution lists
3.1.e LDAP integration
3.2 Troubleshoot these in Cisco Unity Connection
3.2.a Call handlers
3.2.b Voicemail transfers and greetings
3.2.c AutoAttendant
3.2.d Routing rules
3.2.e MWI
3.3 Implement toll fraud prevention
3.4 Troubleshoot Cisco Unity Connection integration options with Cisco UCM
3.5 Describe digital networking in multicluster deployments in Cisco Unity Connection

25% 4.0 Application Clients
4.1 Configure DNS for service discovery
4.2 Troubleshoot service discovery
4.3 Troubleshoot Cisco Jabber and Webex App phone control
4.4 Troubleshoot Cisco Jabber and Webex App voicemail integration
4.5 Troubleshoot certificate validation
4.6 Describe the Cisco Unified Attendant Console Advanced integration
4.7 Troubleshoot Webex App functions
4.7.a Login process
4.7.b Call signaling
4.7.c Voice/video quality

QUESTION 1
Which authentication method allows a user to log in to an SSO-enabled Cisco Unified Communications application by utilizing a Microsoft Windows login, thereby not requiring any credentials to be entered?

A. Smart Card
B. OAuth
C. form-based
D. Kerberos

Answer: D

Explanation:
The main advantage of Kerberos authentication compared to the other authentication methods is
that you do not need to provide your credentials when you log in to Cisco Jabber. If you use Kerberos,
the client does not prompt users for credentials, because authentication was already provided to
gain access to the Windows desktop. This authentication method allows you to log in to Cisco Jabber
with your Microsoft Windows login.

QUESTION 2
When Cisco IM and Presence is configured to use automatic fallback, how long does the Server
Recovery Manager service wait for a failed service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated?

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour

Answer: C

Explanation:
Automatic Fallback
Automatic fallback takes place when the server monitors the services and the Server Recovery
Manager(SRM) service will automatically fallback users to their homed nodes. The key in this
configuration is that the Server Recovery Manager(SRM) service will wait 30 minutes for a failed
service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated. Once this 30 minute up time
is established, user sessions are moved back to their homed nodes. The Jabber client will apply the
re-log in upper and lower limits for the fallback. Automatic fallback is not the default configuration,
but it can be enabled. To enable automatic fallback, change the Enable Automatic Fallback
parameter in the Server Recovery Manager Service Parameters to value True.

QUESTION 3
Which entity is a standard component used for authentication by SAML 2.0?

A. identity provider
B. session broker
C. Internet service provider
D. client access server

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An engineer must configure a test user mailbox in a newly deployed Cisco Unity Express module.
Which console command set reflects the correct configuration in this scenario?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two command line arguments can you specify when installing Cisco Jabber for windows? (Choose two.)

A. CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN
B. TFTP_ADDRESS
C. VOICEMAIL_SERVER_ADDRESS
D. SERVICES_DOMAIN
E. TFTP

Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Which description of an IdP server is true?

A. authenticates user credentials
B. provides user authorization
C. is an authentication request that is generated by a Cisco Unified Communications application
D. consists of pieces of security information that are transferred to the service provider for user authentication

Answer: A

HP

HPE6-A78 HP Aruba Certified Network Security Associate Exam

This exam validates candidates’ knowledge, skills, and ability to describe common security threats and vulnerabilities. It tests a candidate’s knowledge of device hardening, implementation of security at the edge with AAA, basic roles and firewall policies, dynamic segmentation, and endpoint classification. It covers basic threat detection technologies, collecting logs and alarms.

You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

Register for this Exam
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

Exam ID HPE6-A78
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 63%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources

Aruba Network Security Fundamentals, Rev. 20.41

Additional study materials
Aruba Certified Network Security Associate (HPE6-A78) Study Guide

Ideal candidate
The candidate should be a network engineer or help desk engineer working in either a customer or partner environment. The candidate should have worked six months to a year in networking in both wired and wireless knowledge.

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Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Here are types of questions to expect:
Multiple choice (multiple responses)Multiple choice (single response)
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference materials, study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.

Exam policies

70% Protect and Defend
Describe common security threats (MiM, DDOS, spoofing, zero day, etc.) and identify the difference between a threat and a vulnerability
Explain common security protocols and their use cases
Describe PKI components
Describe firewall (PEF), dynamic segmentation, RBAC, AppRF
Describe user roles and policy enforcement
Explain the purpose and methods of a packet capture
Explain social engineering and defense
Disable insecure protocols and follow best practices for implement secure management protocols such as SSH, HTTPS, authenticated NTP, and CPsec
Describe best practices to protect network infrastructure devices with passwords, physical security, and out-of-band management
Use external authentication for network managers
Compare and contrast wireless LAN methodologies
Deploy basic WLAN security Deploy basic WLAN security
Describe and deploy basic user roles for wireless users
Compare and contrast wired LAN methodologies
Define and deploy basic user roles for wired users
Compare endpoint classifications methods

24% Analyze
View and acknowledge WIPS and WIDS, alarms
Explain attack stages and kill chain
Collect logs
Troubleshoot with access tracker
Collect and monitor historical network pattern data
Identify and evaluate discovered endpoints

6% Investigate
Collect logs
Identify chain of custody
Initiate an investigation

Question: 1
What is a vulnerability of an unauthenticated Dime-Heliman exchange?

A. A hacker can replace the public values exchanged by the legitimate peers and launch an MITM attack.
B. A brute force attack can relatively quickly derive Diffie-Hellman private values if they are able to obtain public values
C. Diffie-Hellman with elliptic curve values is no longer considered secure in modem networks, based on NIST recommendations.
D. Participants must agree on a passphrase in advance, which can limit the usefulness of Diffie- Hell man in practical contexts.

Answer: A

Question: 2
What is a difference between radius and TACACS+?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS+ separates them.
B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS+ uses UDP tor its connection protocol.
C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS+ only offers partial encryption.
D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS+ does not use them.

Answer: A

Question: 3
A company has an Aruba solution with a Mobility Master (MM) Mobility Controllers (MCs) and
campus Aps. What is one benefit of adding Aruba Airwave from the perspective of forensics?

A. Airwave can provide more advanced authentication and access control services for the AmbaOS solution
B. Airwave retains information about the network for much longer periods than ArubaOS solution
C. Airwave is required to activate Wireless Intrusion Prevention (WIP) services on the ArubaOS solution
D. AirWave enables low level debugging on the devices across the ArubaOS solution

Answer: C

Question: 4
What role does the Aruba ClearPass Device Insight Analyzer play in the Device Insight architecture?

A. It resides in the cloud and manages licensing and configuration for Collectors
B. It resides on-prem and provides the span port to which traffic is mirrored for deep analytics.
C. It resides on-prem and is responsible for running active SNMP and Nmap scans
D. It resides In the cloud and applies machine learning and supervised crowdsourcing to metadata sent by Collectors

Answer: D

Question: 5
What is a correct guideline for the management protocols that you should use on ArubaOS-Switches?

A. Disable Telnet and use TFTP instead.
B. Disable SSH and use https instead.
C. Disable Telnet and use SSH instead
D. Disable HTTPS and use SSH instead

Answer: B

Oracle

1Z0-770 Oracle APEX Developer Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 58
Passing Score: 60%
Validation: Exam has been validated against Oracle APEX 23.1

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle APEX Cloud Developer Certified Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-770
An Oracle APEX Cloud Developer Professional has demonstrated the hands-on experience and knowledge required to design, develop, and deploy Oracle APEX applications. Certified Oracle APEX Cloud Developer professionals are capable of building modern, secure, scalable enterprise apps with world-class features that can be deployed anywhere – whether in the cloud or on-premises. This certification aims to evaluate the candidate’s solid understanding of low-code application development with Oracle APEX. It also validates the candidate’s ability to effectively use Oracle APEX capabilities to build compelling solutions for various use cases.

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Practice Exam
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Getting Started with Oracle APEX on the Oracle Autonomous Database
Describe Oracle APEX
Creating and Managing a Workspace
List and describe the major components of Oracle APEX

Using SQL Workshop
Create and modify database objects
Run SQL Commands and Scripts
Load and Unload data using the Data Workshop Utility
Generate SQL using Quick SQL

Creating an APEX Application
Create an APEX application based on existing tables
Create an APEX application from a file
Create a progressive web application (PWA)
Managing Application Attributes with App Builder Concepts

Working with Pages and Regions
Create different page types and regions
Manage pages in Page Designer
Manage page attributes
Add Page Components

Developing Reports
Create and customize the interactive report
Create and customize the interactive grid
Create and customize the classic report
Create a report with a form
Create and customize Cards
Create and customize Smart Filter
Create and customize a faceted search page

Creating and Using Forms
Create an editable interactive grid
Create a simple form and link a report to this form
Create different types of master-detail forms
Modify a form

Creating Application Page Controls
Create and use page-level items and buttons

Adding Computations, Processes, Validations, and Branches
Create computations
Create page processes
Create validations
Create branches

Implementing Navigation in Your Application
Create, edit, and use the following shared components that aid navigation in an application: Lists, Navigation Menus. Breadcrumbs, Navigation bar entries
Search Configurations

Managing Application Data
Use Collections
Manage REST Enabled SQL References
Manage REST Data Sources
Data Synchronisation

Using Themes and Theme Styles
Create and use a new theme
Use Theme Styles
Use Theme Roller and Live Template Options

Extending Application Capabilities
Sending E-Mail from an application
Automation
Approvals and Unified Tasks Lists
Describe and Implement Plug-ins in your application

Implementing Security in Your Application
Create and use an authentication scheme for your application
Create and attach an authorization scheme to your application, page, or components
Using Session State Protection

Adding Additional Pages to Your Application
Oracle JET Charts
Calendars
Trees
Maps

Creating and Using Dynamic Actions
Create and use Dynamic Actions
Implement Plug-ins in your application

Migrating Application Development Between Environments
Export the application definition, underlying database objects, and data from your development environment and import them into the target development environment
Perform One-click Remote Application Deployment

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about creating and using an interactive grid?

A. For both editable and noneditable interactive grids, end users can change the report layout and create private reports.
B. An interactive grid supports Pivot View and Group By View features.
C. End users cannot rearrange columns by dragging and dropping.

Answer: A

Explanation:
An interactive grid is a customizable report that allows end users to modify the data and layout of the
report. End users can change the report layout by using the Actions menu or by dragging and
dropping columns. They can also create private reports that save their personal preferences for the
report. These features are available for both editable and noneditable interactive grids. Verified
Reference: Using an Interactive Grid – Oracle Help Center, Example Interactive Grid – Oracle Help Center

QUESTION 2
You have an interactive grid component and you are enabling the Save Public Report attribute. As what can end users save the report type?

A. As Primary only
B. As Public only
C. As Private only
D. As Private and public only

Answer: D

Explanation:
When you enable the Save Public Report attribute for an interactive grid, end users can save their
report preferences as either private or public reports. Private reports are only visible to the user who
created them, while public reports are visible to all users who have access to the interactive grid. You
can also specify an authorization scheme to control who can save public reports. Verified
Reference: Managing Interactive Grids – Oracle Help Center, [Interactive Grid Attributes – Oracle Help Center]

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about creating and using an interactive report?

A. You can specify an Authorization Scheme at the column level.
B. You cannot include Form Page when creating an interactive report page using the Create Page Wizard.
C. You cannot customize the Search Button Label.
D. You cannot restrict users from saving private reports by using the Authorization Scheme.

Answer: A, C

Oracle

1Z0-1084-23 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Developer Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This Exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Certified Developer Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1084-23
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) 2023 Certified Developer Professional has demonstrated an understanding of cloud-native fundamentals and knowledge of developing, securing, testing, and operating applications in OCI.

This exam is intended for developers who have a year or more of experience developing and maintaining Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) applications or have completed the Become an OCI Developer Professional Learning Path training.

Hands-on knowledge of OCI architecture, use cases, and best practices are recommended.

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Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Become an OCI Developer Professional (2023)

Practice Exam
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
The following table lists the exam objectives and their weightings.
Objectives % of Exam
Cloud Native Fundamentals 11%
Cloud Native Applications and Containerization 34%
Leveraging Serverless Technologies for Cloud Native Development 33%
Testing and Securing Cloud Native Applications 13%
Monitoring & Troubleshooting Cloud Native Applications 9%

Cloud Native Fundamentals [11%]
Explain the fundamentals of cloud-native and discuss the key pillars of cloud-native development
Explain the microservices architecture and discuss the design methodology of microservices

Cloud Native Applications And Containerization [34%]
Explain docker and the concepts around its architecture and components
Use OCIR to pull and push container images
Discuss the role of container orchestration
Develop and deploy containerized applications on OKE
Leverage OCI Service Mesh for Kubernetes Deployment

Leveraging Serverless Technologies for Cloud Native Development [33%]
Develop Serverless Applications with Oracle Functions
Create API gateways to process traffic from API clients and route it to back-end services
Create integration between systems using the OCI streaming service
Build events-driven serverless applications using OCI event service
Facilitate asynchronous messaging for microservices with OCI Queue

Testing and Securing Cloud Native Applications [13%]
Explain cloud-native testing and discuss measures for testing cloud-native applications
Discuss various strategies for testing cloud-native applications
Use OCI Vault service to securely store and manage encryption keys and sensitive configuration information
Apply security measures to overcome challenges with cloud-native development

Monitoring & Troubleshooting Cloud Native Applications [9%]
Utilize OCI Monitoring service to view metrics
Use OCI Logging service to enable, manage, and search logs
Perform Tasks around Monitoring, Logging, and Tracing

QUESTION 1
Which statement about microservices is FALSE?

A. They are typically designed around business capabilities.
B. It is fairly common for them to communicate with HTTP.
C. Multiple microservices can run in one process.
D. They are independently deployable.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which testing measure should be considered when using test cases that simultaneously validate a deployment and perform a selected set of functional tasks?

A. Resource Utilization
B. Functionality
C. Scalability
D. Robust Deployment
E. Resiliency

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the open source engine for Oracle Functions?

A. Fn Project
B. Apache OpenWhisk
C. OpenFaas
D. Knative

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which feature is typically NOT associated with Cloud Native?

A. Immutable Infrastructure
B. Declarative APIs
C. Containers
D. Application Servers
E. Service Meshes

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You want to push a new image in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Registry. Which TWO actions would you need to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Generate an API signing key to complete the authentication via Docker CLI.
B. Generate an auth token to complete the authentication via Docker CLI.
C. Assign an OCI defined tag via OCI CLI to the image.
D. Assign a tag via Docker CLI to the image.
E. Generate an OCI tag namespace in your repository.

Answer: B, D

Oracle

1Z0-1105-23 Oracle Cloud Data Management 2023 Foundations Associate Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023.
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Cloud Data Management 2023 Certified Foundations Associate
Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1105-23

The Oracle Cloud Data Management Foundations certification is intended for individuals looking to demonstrate fundamental knowledge of data management services provided by Oracle. This certification is targeted towards candidates with non-technical backgrounds such as those involved in selling or procuring cloud solutions, as well as those with a technical background who want to validate their foundational-level knowledge around core Oracle Data Management services. This exam does not require any hands-on technical experience and is not a prerequisite for taking any other Oracle certifications.

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Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Become an Oracle Cloud Data Management Foundations Associate (2023)

Practice Exam
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Data Management Introduction
Explain Oracle’s Data Management Strategy
Discuss the different Oracle database offerings and deployment options (on-premises, DBCS, ADB, Exa, 3rd party cloud)
Discuss multi-cloud and hybrid cloud options for managing data using Oracle Cloud

Oracle Cloud Free Tier Account
Explain Oracle Cloud Free Tier Sign-up processes
Discuss the functionality of the OCI Console
Explain the differences and uses of Free vs Always Free

Autonomous Database and Tools
Explore Autonomous Database, the various offerings, and deployment options
Discuss ADB Instance Creation – provision, scale CPU and storage, start, stop, and clone
Describe ADB Tools and how to load data into ADB

Exadata and DBCS
Describe the use cases and business problems Exadata solves
Explain the various Exadata deployment options (C@C, Cloud Service, etc)
Discuss Lifecycle Management (patching, backup & recovery)
Describe DBCS offerings and when to use one over the other

MySQL and NoSQL
Describe MySQL Database Service
Describe NoSQL Service

Converged Database
Describe multi-model and converged database use cases
Explain JSON, graph, and spatial in the Oracle Database

Resiliency
Explain Oracle’s Maximum Security Architecture
Explain Oracle’s Maximum Availability Architecture

Developing an Oracle Database
Explain the processes and concepts to Manage Autonomous Databases: REST, APIs
Describe using database tools, SQL Developer, SQL Worksheet
Describe low-code APEX
Describe CI/CD SQLCl

Data Lake, Data Warehouse and Machine Learning
Discuss concepts and uses of OCI Analytics and AI Data Services
Discuss concepts and uses of Oracle Machine Learning
Explain the data mesh architecture

Upgrades and Migrations
Describe various migration strategies to the cloud
Explain Oracle’s upgrade options

QUESTION 1
Oracle & Automated Machine Learning (AutoML) has options for using in-database and opensource algorithms.
Which is an example of an in-database option?

A. Tuning of hyperparameter
B. Oracle Machine Learning for Python (OML4Py) APIs
C. REST Interface
D. Cognitive text

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which feature allows you to logically group and isolate your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure re-sources?

A. Availability Domain
B. Tenancy
C. Identity and Access Management Groups
D. Compartments

Answer: D

Explanation:
Compartments are a feature that allows you to logically group and isolate your Oracle Cloud
Infrastructure resources. According to the Oracle documentation2, “Compartments are a
fundamental component of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure that allow you to create a heterogeneous
collection of resources for organization, security isolation, and access control. To learn more about
compartments, see Managing Compartments . Organize your cloud resources in logically separate
compartments, for the purposes of measuring usage and billing, controlling access, and isolating
resources.

QUESTION 3
What are two important reasons to upgrade and patch? (Choose all correct answers)

A. Restructure the database
B. Security
C. Validation of application
D. Support Compliance

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
Security and support compliance are two important reasons to upgrade and patch your Oracle
Database. According to the Oracle blog3, “Security is one of the most important reasons to patch
your database. Every quarter Oracle releases security patches as part of the Critical Patch Update
(CPU) program. These patches fix vulnerabilities in the database software that could be exploited by
malicious attackers.” Additionally, according to the Oracle blog4, “Support compliance is another
reason to patch your database. Oracle provides different levels of support for different versions of
the database software. To be eligible for certain support services, such as Extended Support or
Sustaining Support, you need to apply the latest patches available for your version.”

QUESTION 4
Which is NOT an option in Database Actions to load data into Autonomous Database?

A. Load data from a local file such as text or Excel
B. Load data using FTP
C. Load data from cloud storage (Oracle, S3, Azure, Google)
D. Load data from a remote database
E. Load data using Data Pump

Answer: B

Explanation:
Loading data using FTP is not an option in Database Actions to load data into Autonomous
Database. According to the Oracle documentation5, “On the Database Actions Data Load page you
can choose to load data from a file on your local device, from cloud storage, or from a database. You
can also choose to explore the data in your Oracle Autonomous Database.” There is no mention of
FTP as a source for loading data.

QUESTION 5
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Data Catalog is an integral part of the Lakehouse so-lution.
What level of data detail does Data Catalog provide when integrated with Autonomous Databases and Object storage?

A. View of data for discovery
B. Data Warehouse
C. Source of managed services
D. Analytic environments

Answer: A

Explanation:
View of data for discovery is the level of data detail that Data Catalog provides when integrated with
Autonomous Databases and Object storage. According to the Oracle documentation6, “Oracle Cloud
Infrastructure Data Catalog is a fully managed, self-service data discovery and governance solution
for your enterprise data. Data Catalog helps you maximize the value of your data assets by providing
a rich set of capabilities that enable you to discover, explore, organize, enrich, and trace data lineage
on various types of data sources.” Data Catalog provides a view of data for discovery by using
metadata to create an informative and searchable inventory of all data assets in an organization.

Oracle

1Z0-1109-23 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 DevOps Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Certified DevOps Professional

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Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1109-23
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure DevOps Certified Professional certification is intended for professionals who are responsible for automating the software development life cycle in OCI environments. The certification validates a candidate’s ability to effectively demonstrate knowledge about OCI DevOps practices, solutions, and services.
Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Become an OCI DevOps Professional (2023)
Practice Exam

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
The following table lists the exam objectives and their weightings.
DevOps Introduction 5%
Provision, configure, and manage infrastructure using code and templates 15%
Configure and manage Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD) 30%
Build and deploy microservices using containers and manage using container orchestration engine 30%
Enable DevSecOps 15%
Implement Monitoring and Observability 5%

DevOps Introduction [5%]
Recall and list the practices associated with DevOps
Explain the solutions and tools used in DevOps
Use DevOps as a service to solve a real-world problem

Provision, configure, and manage infrastructure using code and templates [15%]
Use OCI Resource Manager to provision infrastructure as code
Explain the Configuration Management process
Analyze infrastructure configurations and automate them using OCI Ansible collection

Configure and manage Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD) [30%]
Automate the Software Development Life Cycle using OCI DevOps service
Configure and manage source code in OCI DevOps Code Repositories
Analyze and create Artifacts for automated deployment to different environments
Evaluate and configure Build Pipelines and Deployment Pipelines
Create and configure various deployment strategies

Build and deploy microservices using containers and manage using container orchestration engine [30%]
Explain and implement Microservices Architecture
Identify the need for containerization and create containers using the docker
Create and manage Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry OCIR
Create and manage Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Instances
Evaluate and configure Kubernetes clusters with Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)

Enable DevSecOps [15%]
Evaluate and configure security within OCI OKE service
Create and manage encryption Keys and secrets in OCI Vault
Explain DevSecOps and configure security using DevSecOps best practices in OCI
Evaluate and configure security within OCI DevOps CI/CD pipelines
Evaluate and configure security for container images used in OCI

Implement Monitoring and Observability [5%]
Explain the concepts of DevOps measurement
Use OCI Monitoring service to monitor metrics
Analyze and manage logs with OCI Logging service
Create and track events with OCI Events service

QUESTION 1
What are three key features of Oracle Machine Learning Notebooks? (Choose three.)

A. They enable access to in database implementation of machine learning algorithms.
B. They support integration with Oracle Data Miner-ID
C. They support SQL, PL/SQL, JavaScript, and PHP scripting languages.
D. They provide a collaborative notebook interface on Oracle Autonomous Database.
E. They enable job scheduling of notebooks on a recurring schedule.

Answer: A, D, E

QUESTION 2
What is the correct sequence of function invocations of AutoML API from OML4Py to solve a business problem?

A. Model selection, Algorithm selection
B. Algorithm selection, Feature selection. Model tuning
C. Model selection, Algorithm selection
D. Model tuning. Algorithm selection. Feature selection
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have created a workspace in Oracle Machine Learning Notebooks and want to share it with
collaborators by granting permissions to access your workspace. You want to enable other users to
run and modify your notebooks but do not want to provide the ability to schedule jobs that run your notebooks.
Which permission type should be granted to this user?

A. Manager
B. Viewer
C. Developer
D. Designer

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three types of forms are available in Oracle Machine Learning Notebooks? (Choose three.)

A. Text Input form
B. List form
C. Radio form
D. Select form
E. Check Box form

Answer: A, D, E

QUESTION 5
Which step is not required to be performed by an administrator when adding a new user to Oracle
Machine Learning (OML) Notebooks?

A. Provide the user with Autonomous Database client wallet for remote credentials.
B. Create an OML username and password for the user in the Oracle Machine Learning User Management interface.
C. Add the user’s name and email ID in the Oracle Machine Learning User Management interface.
D. Issue grant commands on tables from other schemas to allow access from shared note-books.

Answer: A

Microsoft 365

MB-335 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management Functional Consultant Expert Exam

Candidates for this exam are expert or senior supply chain functional consultants who implement and configure advanced features of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management to meet the requirements of a business. They have an advanced knowledge of supply chain management operations, including production, logistics, master planning, and asset management. The candidate will identify use cases for applying mixed reality.

Candidates analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions and apply industry-recommended practices to implementations.

Candidates demonstrate expertise in one or more of the following manufacturing methods: discrete, process, and lean. The candidate partners with architects, developers, consultants, and other stakeholders to implement solutions that meet or exceed the needs of their customers.

Exam MB-335: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management Functional Consultant Expert
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: configure products; configure production prerequisites; implement production methods; configure production control; and describe and implement additional supply chain management features.

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Skills measured
Review the study guide linked in the preceding “Tip” box for more details about the skills measured on this exam.
Configure products (15–20%)
Configure production prerequisites (20–25%)
Implement production methods (15–20%)
Configure production control (20–25%)
Describe and implement additional supply chain management features (10–15%)

About the exam Languages
Some exams are localized into other languages. You can find these in the Schedule Exam section of the Exam Details webpage. If the exam isn’t available in your preferred language, you can request an additional 30 minutes to complete the exam.

Note
The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. Related topics may be covered in the exam.

Note
Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.
Skills measured
Audience profile

Candidates for this exam are expert or senior supply chain functional consultants who implement and configure advanced features of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management to meet the requirements of a business. They have an advanced knowledge of supply chain management operations including production, logistics, master planning, and asset management. The candidate will identify use cases for applying mixed reality.

Candidates analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions and applies industry-recommended practices to implementations.

Candidates demonstrate expertise in one or more of the following manufacturing methods: discrete, process, and lean. The candidate partners with architects, developers, consultants, and other stakeholders to implement solutions that meet or exceed the needs of their customers.

Configure products (15-20%)
Configure production prerequisites (20-25%)
Implement production methods (15-20%)
Configure production control (20-25%)
Describe and implement additional supply chain management features (10-15%)
Configure products (15–20%)

Implement product information for production
Configure planning items, co-products, and by-products for batch orders
Configure catch weight handling policies
Configure inventory batches, batch attributes, and lot inheritance
Manage product compliance including regulated and restricted items
Define configuration groups and routes for dimension-based products
Manage products with dimension-based, constraint-based, and pre-defined variants
Configure bills of materials (BOMs), formulas, and routes to manage scrap

Implement Product Configurator for Dynamics 365
Create and manage product configuration model components and subcomponents
Create calculations for product configuration models
Differentiate between table and expression constraints
Configure BOM lines and route operations for a product configuration model
Configure and manage pricing for configuration models
Describe the purpose and capabilities of the product configurator
Validate, approve, and test product configuration models

Implement Engineering Change Management
Design an engineering product lifecycle
Configure engineering categories
Configure product readiness policies and product release policies
Create an engineering product with engineering attributes
Review and accept released products to a local company
Add engineering products to a sales order, purchase orders and production orders
Schedule and implement engineering change requests and change orders

Configure production prerequisites (20-25%)

Configure resources, routes, and calendars
Implement and manage work calendars and working time
Create and configure resource capabilities
Implement and manage resources and resource groups
Create and manage operations and routes

Configure production settings and processes
Create production units, production groups, production pools, and production journal names
Describe integration between general ledger and production control modules
Manage reservations in production process, including partial reservations and re-reservations
Configure warehouse processes for raw materials picking and finished goods put away
Describe unified (mixed mode) manufacturing
Configure production control parameters
Describe production and batch order process statuses

Implement costing
Configure costing sheets and indirect costs
Configure and manage cost groups, costing versions, and cost categories
Configure cost allocations for co-products and burden allocation for by-products
Configure and perform BOM/formula calculations
Activate item prices
Describe production posting profiles
Describe common sources of production variances
View and analyze production and inventory costs

Implement production methods (15–20%)

Implement discrete manufacturing
Create BOM and item configurations
Create and process production orders
Create and process picking list journals
Create and process job card and route card journals
Create and process reports as finished journals
Reset the status of a production order
Describe use cases and configure production-related reservations

Implement process manufacturing
Configure batch reservations and release to warehouse process
Configure consolidated batch order processes
Manage batch balancing and batch order sequencing
Configure formulas features
Create and process report as finished journals with co-products and by-products
Create and process batch orders and a rework batch order
Create formulas and formula versions

Implement lean manufacturing
Create value streams and production flows
Configure production flow costing
Create kanban rules
Process kanban orders by using kanban boards
Create and manage fixed, scheduled, and event kanbans

Configure production control (20–25%)

Implement subcontracting
Describe use cases for subcontracting processes
Implement activity-based subcontracting
Configure BOM and formula lines, resources, and routes for subcontracting items
Create service items for subcontracting
Create and process subcontracting purchase orders

Implement manufacturing execution
Configure time and attendance prerequisites and activate workers for time registration
Identify the capabilities of manufacturing execution
Process production and batch orders by using manufacturing execution processes
Configure production floor execution interface and job card terminals
Calculate and approve time registrations

Implement advanced master planning scenarios
Process and view planned orders
Configure intercompany master planning
Configure forecast models and parameters
Run demand forecasting and adjust as appropriate
Execute explosion and validate results
Describe how supply chain calendars affect master planning

Implement production scheduling and capacity planning
Define scheduling parameters
View, monitor, and update production schedules
Configure capacity for production resources including machines, labor, and tooling
Describe infinite and finite scheduling and capacity
Describe differences between operations and job scheduling

Describe and implement additional supply chain management features (10–15%)

Describe cloud and edge scale units
Describe the value proposition for scale units for warehouse workloads
Describe warehouse management processes that can run on a scale unit
Describe manufacturing processes that can run on a scale unit

Describe use cases for integrating mixed reality technologies with Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
Describe use cases for Dynamics 365 Guides
Describe the process for integrating mixed reality Dynamics 365 Guides with manufacturing processes
Describe the process for integrating mixed reality Dynamics 365 Guides with asset management

Implement Asset Management
Configure maintenance plans
Configure functional locations
Manage maintenance requests
Manage work orders consumption
Manage work order scheduling

QUESTION 1
You need to configure costing for raw materials used to manufacture unscented cleaning solution.
Which form should you use?

A. Cost basis type
B. Quantity and margin template
C. Pricing calculation
D. Pricing template

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to configure production control parameters for liquid cleaning solution manufacturing.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Require an electronic signature when the formula is approved.
B. Select Block editing and approve the formula.
C. Select the Block removal of approval option for the formula
D. Select the Block editing option only.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
You need to configure production operations for the pine and orange scent solutions.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Configure the inventory policy for the item model group to set the value of the Stocked product option to Yes.
B. Use a purchase agreement as a service agreement.
C. Allocate subcontracted work in its own cost breakdown block.
D. Configure a costing resource and requirement to point to a Vendor type resource.
E. Configure the BOM line to be of type Vendor and associate the corresponding vendor account.

Answer: C, D, E