Monthly Archives: May 2023

Oracle

1Z0-1034-23 Oracle B2C Service Integration and Development 2023 Implementation Professional

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B/22C/22D/23A/23B.
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle B2C Service Integration and Development 2023 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1034-23
An Oracle B2C Service Integration and Development 2023 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge required to sell and implement Oracle B2C Service Integration and Development, including B2C Service solutions. Individuals who earn this certification are able to work with CP Tools, CP – Basic Customizations, CP – Widgets and Scripting, CP – Advanced Customizations, Integration & Customization – Agent Desktop, Connect Web Services for PHP/SOAP/REST, Custom Objects, RightNow Object Query Language, Desktop Integration and General Integration & Customization.

If you have a valid Oracle B2C Service Integration and Development Implementation Professional Certification, and your credential has not expired, you can maintain your certification by taking the corresponding shorter Delta exam.

Login to Oracle CertView to check if your certification credential has expired or is still valid.

Check the Oracle Recertification Policy to see if you qualify.

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Review exam topics

Customer Portal Tools
Use Site Administration tools using the .NET console (Agent Desktop)
Use the CP admin area, identify CP environments, and understand deployment processes

Customer Portal – Basic Customizations
Understand the structure of a CP page and modify page params, logic, and settings
Describe the importance of Internationalization
Customize and manage Templates, Pages, and Themes

Customer Portal – Widgets and Scripting
Create and manage a widgets
Describe Client-side scripting and event handling and its use in widgets
Describe Controllers and their uses and uses of AJAX for widget/controller interaction

Customer Portal – Advanced Customizations
Describe a model and its uses including the use of Hooks
Describe the purpose of the Connect Common Object Model
Describe the uses of Connect for PHP in CP
Create Custom Objects
Use Inlays

Integration and Customization – Agent Desktop
Configure and customize Custom Objects, custom fields, and custom attributes
Use the Connect web services with desktop add-ins
Use primary objects and sub-objects

Integration and Customization – ROQL Queries
Execute ROQL Queries including Special Queries

Integration & Customization – Connect Web Services for PHP\SOAP\REST
Describe CRUD Operations using Web Services for SOAP
Generate Bulk, Batch, and Chain Operations
Run Analytics Reports using Connect for SOAP
Get Values for NamedID Objects
Use the Knowledge Foundation API
Use the Connect REST API

Integration and Customization – Desktop Integration
Explain Add-In Deployment Methods
Work with Records and Automation
Connect Web Services for SOAP with Add-Ins including troubleshooting
Use Javascript and the Browser control for integration
Use the Browser UI Extensions API

Integration and Customization – General
Customize Mobile Sites and pages mappings
Work with Custom Process Models
Configure CP Security
Explain Clickstream and reporting
Implement the Scripts/custom folders
Create debugging within B2C Service

QUESTION 1
In which three ways can a user session end in the Oracle B2C Service customer portal?

A. The user opens another interface’s customer portal on the same site.
B. The user logs out of the customer portal.
C. By default, the session expires in 15 minutes.
D. The user logs out of the customer portal admin panel.
E. The user closes all browser Instances associated with the session.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the Knowledge API?

A. A unique interaction ID is allocated for each unique user and can be reused by the users for multiple visits for the duration specified by the VISIT_MAX_TIME configuration value.
B. In the customer portal framework, each unique visit by a user is tracked through the web session
C. A new interaction ID is automatically created as soon as an old ID expires.
D. In the customer portal framework, each unique visit by a user is tracked through an interaction ID.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three are functions of Object Designer?

A. ability to create system attributes
B. ability to import data
C. ability to create menu-only objects
D. ability to create custom fields
E. ability to create custom objects
F. ability to configure business rules for custom objects

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 4
Your customer has a requirement to store the total value of sales for each Contact and to produce reports that total sales for Contacts with specific characteristics. It is important to be able to record data to 2 decimal places. The maximum total will not exceed one million dollars. Select three options which will help you achieve this?

A. Add a Custom Field to the standard Contact object of decimal type
B. Add a custom object and a custom field for this object of a decimal type
C. Create a custom report to total the custom field for the Contact object and its related objects
D. Add a custom object and a custom field for this object of text type
E. Relate a custom object containing a custom field to the Contact object
F. Add a custom object and a custom field for this object of the integer type

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 5
A developer wants to see the SimpleSearch widget only under the answers folder pages. Which is the
correct code to implement it in the standard template?

Cisco

300-735 Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions (SAUTO) Exam

This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated solutions, including:
Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE

Exam Description
The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Security Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts, RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push, commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes, conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible and Puppet for automating security platforms

2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports

3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and threat disposition

4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs

4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request (email and web)

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band? (Select the best answer.)

A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)

A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best answer.)

A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)

A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing

Correct Answer: B

Cisco

300-725 Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (300-725 SWSA) Exam

Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese

Associated certifications
CCNP Security
Cisco Certified Specialist – Web Content Security

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Web Security Appliance, including:

Proxy services
Authentication
Decryption policies
Differentiated traffic access policies and identification policies
Acceptable use control settings
Malware defense
Data security and data loss prevention

Exam Description:
Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance v1.0 (SWSA 300-725) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Web Security Appliance, including proxy services, authentication, decryption policies differentiated traffic access policies and identification policies, acceptable use control settings, malware defense, and data security and data loss prevention. The course, Securing Web with Cisco Email Security Appliance, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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10% 1.0 Cisco WSA Features
1.1 Describe Cisco WSA features and functionality
1.1.a Proxy service
1.1.b Cognitive Threat Analytics
1.1.c Data loss prevention service
1.1.d Integrated L4TM service
1.1.e Management tools
1.2 Describe WSA solutions
1.2.a Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting
1.2.b Cisco Content Security Management Appliance
1.3 Integrate Cisco WSA with Splunk
1.4 Integrate Cisco WSA with Cisco ISE
1.5 Troubleshoot data security and external data loss using log files

20% 2.0 Configuration
2.1 Perform initial configuration tasks on Cisco WSA
2.2 Configure an Acceptable Use Policy
2.3 Configure and verify web proxy features
2.3.a Explicit proxy functionality
2.3.b Proxy access logs using CLI
2.3.c Active directory proxy authentication
2.4 Configure a referrer header to filter web categories

10% 3.0 Proxy Services
3.1 Compare proxy terms
3.1.a Explicit proxy vs. transparent proxy
3.1.b Upstream proxy vs. downstream proxy
3.2 Describe tune caching behavior for safety or performance
3.3 Describe the functions of a Proxy Auto-Configuration (PAC) file
3.4 Describe the SOCKS protocol and the SOCKS proxy services

10% 4.0 Authentication
4.1 Describe authentication features
4.1.a Supported authentication protocols
4.1.b Authentication realms
4.1.c Supported authentication surrogates supported
4.1.d Bypassing authentication of problematic agents
4.1.e Authentication logs for accounting records
4.1.f Re-authentication
4.2 Configure traffic redirection to Cisco WSA using explicit forward proxy mode
4.3 Describe the FTP proxy authentication
4.4 Troubleshoot authentication issues

10% 5.0 Decryption Policies to Control HTTPS Traffic
5.1 Describe SSL and TLS inspection
5.2 Configure HTTPS capabilities
5.2.a HTTPS decryption policies
5.2.b HTTPS proxy function
5.2.c ACL tags for HTTPS inspection
5.2.d HTTPS proxy and verify TLS/SSL decryption
5.2.e Certificate types used for HTTPS decryption
5.3 Configure self-signed and intermediate certificates within SSL/TLS transactions

10% 6.0 Differentiated Traffic Access Policies and Identification Profiles
6.1 Describe access policies
6.2 Describe identification profiles and authentication
6.3 Troubleshoot using access logs

10% 7.0 Acceptable Use Control
7.1 Configure URL filtering
7.2 Configure the dynamic content analysis engine
7.3 Configure time-based & traffic volume acceptable use policies and end user notifications
7.4 Configure web application visibility and control (Office 365, third-party feeds)
7.5 Create a corporate global acceptable use policy
7.6 Implement policy trace tool to verify corporate global acceptable use policy
7.7 Configure WSA to inspect archive file types

10% 8.0 Malware Defense
8.1 Describe anti-malware scanning
8.2 Configure file reputation filtering and file analysis
8.3 Describe Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
8.4 Describe integration with Cognitive Threat Analytics

10% 9.0 Reporting and Tracking Web Transactions
9.1 Configure and analyze web tracking reports
9.2 Configure Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting (AWSR)
9.2.a Basic web usage
9.2.b Custom filters
9.3 Troubleshoot connectivity issues

QUESTION 1
What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters
B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI
C. when the passphrase contains one of following characters ‘@ # $ % ^’
D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time
B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers
C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187
D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For
B. high availability
C. web cache
D. via
E. IP spoofing

Answer: A,D

Cisco

300-730 Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN 300-730) Exam

300-730 SVPN : Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese

Associated certifications
CCNP Security
Cisco Certified Specialist – Network Security VPN Implementation

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing secure remote communications with Virtual Private Network (VPN) solutions, including:

Secure communications
Architectures
Troubleshooting

Exam Description:
Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks v1.1 (SVPN 300-730) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing secure remote communications with Virtual Private Network (VPN) solutions including secure communications, architectures, and troubleshooting. The course, Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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15% 1.0 Site-to-site Virtual Private Networks on Routers and Firewalls
1.1 Describe GETVPN
1.2 Describe uses of DMVPN
1.3 Describe uses of FlexVPN

20% 2.0 Remote access VPNs
2.1 Implement AnyConnect IKEv2 VPNs on ASA and routers
2.2 Implement AnyConnect SSLVPN on ASA
2.3 Implement Clientless SSLVPN on ASA
2.4 Implement Flex VPN on routers

35% 3.0 Troubleshooting using ASDM and CLI
3.1 Troubleshoot IPsec
3.2 Troubleshoot DMVPN
3.3 Troubleshoot FlexVPN
3.4 Troubleshoot AnyConnect IKEv2 on ASA and routers
3.5 Troubleshoot SSL VPN and Clientless SSLVPN on ASA

30% 4.0 Secure Communications Architectures
4.1 Describe functional components of GETVPN, FlexVPN, DMVPN, and IPsec for site-to-site VPN solutions
4.2 Describe functional components of FlexVPN, IPsec, and Clientless SSL for remote access VPN solutions
4.3 Recognize VPN technology based on configuration output for site-to-site VPN solutions
4.4 Recognize VPN technology based on configuration output for remote access VPN solutions
4.5 Describe split tunneling requirements for remote access VPN solutions
4.6 Design site-to-site VPN solutions
4.6.a VPN technology considerations based on functional requirements
4.6.b High availability considerations
4.7 Design remote access VPN solutions
4.7.a VPN technology considerations based on functional requirements
4.7.b High availability considerations
4.7.c Clientless SSL browser and client considerations and requirements
4.8 Describe Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) algorithms

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct commands from the right onto the blanks within the code on the left to implement a
design that allow for dynamic spoke-to-spoke communication. Not all commands are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: Site-to-site Virtual Private Networks on Routers and Firewalls

QUESTION 2
A second set of traffic selectors is negotiated between two peers using IKEv2. Which IKEv2 packet will contain details of the exchange?

A. IKEv2 IKE_SA_INIT
B. IKEv2 INFORMATIONAL
C. IKEv2 CREATE_CHILD_SA
D. IKEv2 IKE_AUTH

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The DMVPN tunnel is dropping randomly and no tunnel protection is configured. Which
spoke configuration mitigates tunnel drops?

SAP

C_C4H225_12 SAP Certified Technology Associate – SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement Implementation Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 68%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Technology Associate – SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement Implementation” certification exam verifies that the candidate has the fundamental and core knowledge required for the technology consultant profile. This certificate proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and can implement the knowledge practically in projects to contribute to the success of the planning and implementation phases in a mentored role. Previous project experience is not necessarily a prerequisite to pass this exam. The certificate issued for passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience, in addition to familiarizing yourself with the corresponding documentation. To prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

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Data Collection and Contact Management > 12%
Define concepts related to Contact management, Smart Insight, Web Extend, Relational Data, SI onboarding, Magento onboarding and apply these concepts throughout the SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement platform.

Learning Journey Emarsys
—– OR —–
Help Portal Emarsys
openSAP Emarsys

Account Creation and Settings > 12%
Define concepts related to DNS settings, SSL certificates, Email channel setup and compliance, and account security settings in order to apply these concepts in implementation.

Learning Journey Emarsys
—– OR —–
Help Portal Emarsys
openSAP Emarsys

Data Integrations Advanced > 12%
Define concepts related to SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement API, platform integrations, product data integration, and sales data onboarding in order to apply these concepts in implementation.

Learning Journey Emarsys
—– OR —–
Help Portal Emarsys
openSAP Emarsys

Campaign Management > 12%
Execute functions related to VCE, ESL, CRM Ads, Mobile Engage Push and In-app, Automations (AC and Interactions) Open Time Content, Web Channel, Predict, and SMS.

Learning Journey Emarsys
—– OR —–
Help Portal Emarsys
openSAP Emarsys

Analytics and Insights > 12%
Define concepts related to Email Analytics, Revenue Analytics, and Channel Analytics in order to apply them in every interactions with the SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement platform and its users.

Learning Journey Emarsys
—– OR —–
Help Portal Emarsys
openSAP Emarsys

Product Overview 8% – 12%
Explain how the Strategic Dashboard helps measure the impact of marketing campaigns, how to categorize the customer base based on value, what Tactics are used for. Identify the basics of contact segmentation and what channels are available for marketing users. Articulate the kinds of ecommerce integrations available. Define product recommendations, their source, and their application. Identify the various ways to measure results. Articulate the use and apply understanding of this use to trend reporting, bounce management, allow lists, and user management.

Learning Journey Emarsys
—– OR —–
Help Portal Emarsys
openSAP Emarsys

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
What information does the email channel set up form collect? Note: There are 3 correct
Answer: to this question.

A. Website information
B. Sending volumes
C. Product information
D. Email performance
E. Historic sales information

Answer: A B D

QUESTION 2
In which node can you choose filters and conditions such as “Country equals US”?

A. Didn’t click link
B. Quick filter
C. Email behavior check
D. Filter switch
|
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is an SSL certificate used for? Note: There are 2 correct
Answer: to this question.

A. It is used by the sender policy framework (SPF) to authenticate outbound emails.
B. It is used by the SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement API for secure data transfer.
C. It is used to implement SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement password authentication and IP restrictions.
D. It is used to encrypt the access to SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement services and customers’ link domains.

Answer: B D

QUESTION 4
Which mandatory steps do you need to complete before you can attempt your first API call? Note:
There are 2 correct to this question.

A. Create an SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement login.
B. Create an API user.
C. Configure authentication.
D. Download the Postman collection.

Answer: B C

QUESTION 5
How do you build a segment for contacts who recently opened an email, visited the website or made a purchase?

A. Analytics > Customer Lifecycle > Average Order > Order made (x) days ago = 0-100
B. Analytics > Customer Lifecycle > Average Order > Buyer Status = Platinum
C. Analytics > Customer Lifecycle > Customer Lifecycle > Days since last engagement = 0-15
D. Analytics > Customer Lifecycle > Customer Lifecycle > Customer lifecycle stage = Defecting customer

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Where can you check the average purchase details of a contact? Note: There are 2 correct Answer: to this question.

A. Content > Predict Dashboard > Data Sources > Live Validator
B. Search > Search by email address > Edit Contact > Unified Customer Profile
C. Analytics > Customer Lifecycle > Customer Lifecycle
D. Contacts > Segments > Edit Segment > Display Contacts > Edit Contact > Unified Customer Profile

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following apply to the msrp field in the product data file? Note: There are 3 correct
Answer: to this question.

A. It is the original price of the product.
B. The currency is not included.
C. The comma (,) is always used as the decimal mark.
D. It is a mandatory field.
E. The msrp value must be higher than the price for it to appear in the recommendation.

Answer: A B E

QUESTION 8
Which database cannot be used for campaign personalization in SAP Emarsys Customer Engagement?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. MySQL
D. Google BigQuery

Answer: D

Adobe

AD0-E718 Adobe Commerce Architect Master Exam

Minimum experience
You should have at least 3-5 year experience leading Commerce development projects and are able to design, integrate, implement, and explain solutions to business problems by utilizing Adobe Commerce along with associated services.

Additionally, you should be very familiar with the following activities and technologies:

Extend core features
Configure Adobe Commerce fully
Create full blueprint of how an extension should work, requirements of company to blueprint of how it should work, without having to go into the code
Understand business needs/features
Performance implications of solutions and extensions
Service contracts logic
GraphQL
Understand Composer as a dependency tool
Set up and configure working instance of Adobe Commerce from scratch
Customize admin dashboard, creating grids and forms
Cache and index management; creating custom index
Create new cache type
Troubleshoot and debug various problems in environment
Extend and manage database schema
Security features, provide secure installation and development extension
Perform server-based services which Commerce connects (Redis, Varnish configuration management)
Aware of best coding standard practice, Coding standards, PSR, SOLID principle
Set up and use Commerce Services Connector (and associated services)
Staging content management
Understanding Adobe Commerce defaults, when its’ available and not available
Broad grasp of any related Commerce domain
Design project architecture
Optimize performance of Adobe Commerce default
Creating and modifying B2B
AMQP protocol and adapters in Adobe Commerce (S3)

Intended audience:
Lead Software/Commerce Architect
Technical Architect
Solution Architect
Technical Lead
Technical Expert
Full Stack Developer
Lead Engineer
Associate Technical Architect
Senior Backend Developer
Backend Software Engineer
Senior Technical Consultant

Exam details:
Level: Master (3-5 years’ experience)
Passing Score: 29/50
Time: 120 mins
Delivery: Online proctored (requires camera access)
Available languages: English
Cost: $225 (global) / $150 (India)
Exam ID: AD0-E718

Readiness self-assessment
Complete the online readiness questionnaire to see if your current experience matches the recommended minimum candidate qualification.

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Exam objectives and scope

Section 1: Design (46%)
Design and implement optimal solutions for Adobe Commerce to meet business needs
Design logical and technical flows
Customize Commerce features
Integrate Adobe Commerce with external systems and services
Troubleshoot design flows

Section 2- Review (32%)
Review and refactor existing Adobe Commerce customizations
Utilize Commerce test frameworks throughout the whole workflow
Optimize performance and scalability for Adobe Commerce
Troubleshoot to identify the root cause of issues with Adobe Commerce
Enforce coding standards

Section 3: Configure and Deploy (22%)
Configure Adobe Commerce and make sure the project is set up optimally
Configure all aspects of Adobe Commerce Cloud
Oversee and improve deployment process
Troubleshoot infrastructure and configuration issues

Section 4: Compliance/security basics (13%)
Understand basics of compliance for privacy laws and payment security
Identify common security aspects of an Adobe Commerce project
Identify best practices and legal requirements of accessibility compliance

You are not required to complete training before taking the exam, and training alone will not provide you with the knowledge and skills required to pass the exam. A combination of training and successful, on-the-job experience are critical to providing you with the repository needed to pass the exam.

Here are some suggested resources to help you prepare:

Sample questions
The sample questions allow you to see the type and format of items that you will encounter in the actual exam. There is no sign-on needed. The results of the sample questions are not stored, and do not predict your actual test results.
See sample questions

Section 1: Design
Create a product
Page caching
Introduction to Commerce Customer Management
Events and observers
SEO overview
Store Details
Pages
Adding a new payment integration (payment method))
Authentication
GraphQL overview

Section 2: Review
Introduction
Add a custom text field attribute
Application Testing Guide introduction
Component development
Best Practices
Configure Varnish

Section 3: Configure and Deploy
Configuration Reference Guide
Configuration files for deployment
Configure Redis
Currency
Overview of initialization and bootstrap
Fastly services overview
Now that you have successfully logged in, the following links will be directly accessible.

Take the certification exam
Adobe uses two vendors to administer proctored exams, PSI and Examity.
PSI offers test center and Japanese exam options (where available)
Examity offers a remote online option
To schedule, reschedule, or cancel your exam, simply click on the vendor of choice, and follow the instructions provided on screen. It’s that simple!

 

QUESTION 1
A company wants to build an Adobe Commerce website to sell their products to customers in their
country. The taxes in their country are highly complex and require customization to Adobe
Commerce. An Architect is trying to solve this problem by creating a custom tax calculator that will
handle the calculation of taxes for all orders in Adobe Commerce.
How should the Architect add the taxes for all orders?

A. Write a before plugin to \Magento\Quote\Model\QuoteManagement::placeOrder() and add the custom tax to the quote
B. Declare a new total collector in “etc/sales.xml” in a custom module
C. Add a new observer to the event ‘sales_quote_collect_totals_before” and add the custom tax to the quote

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An Adobe Commerce Architect needs to log the result of a ServiceClass : : ge-Dara method execution
after all plugins have executed. The method is public, and there are a few plugins declared for this
method. Among those plugins are after and around types, and all have sortOrder specified.
Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

A. Declare a new plugin with the sortOrder value higher than the highest declared plugin sortOrder and implement afterGetData method.
B. Declare a new plugin with the sortOrder value lower than the lowest declared plugin sortOrder and implement aroundGetData method
C. Declare a new plugin with the sortOrder value higher than the highest declared plugin sortOrder and implement aroundGetData method

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An Adobe Commerce Architect is asked by a merchant using B2B features to help with a configuration issue.
The Architect creates a test Company Account and wants to create Approval Rules for orders.
The Approval Rules tab does not appear in the Company section in the Customer Account Menu when
the Architect logs in using the Company Administrator account.
Which two steps must be taken to fix this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Set ‘Enable Purchase Orders’ in the B2B Admin to TRUE
B. Merchant needs to log out of frontend and then log back in to load new permissions
C. Set Enable Purchase Orders’ on the Company Record to TRUE
D. Make sure that the ‘Purchase Order’ payment method is active
E. Set ‘Enable B2B Quote” in the B2B Admin to TRUE

Answer: A, C

QUESTION 4
An external system integrates functionality of a product catalog search using Adobe Commerce
GraphQL API. The Architect creates a new attribute my_attribute in the admin panel with frontend type select.
Later, the Architect sees that Productinterface already has the field my_atcribute, but returns an mc
value. The Architect wants this field to be a new type that contains both option id and label.
To meet this requirement, an Adobe Commerce Architect creates a new module and file
etc/schema.graphqls that declares as follows:
After calling command setup:upgrade, the introspection of Productlnterface field xy_attribute
remains int. What prevented the value type of field my_attribute from changing?

A. The fields of Productlnterface are checked during processing schema.graphqls files. If they have a corresponding attribute, then the backendjype of product attribute is set for field type.
B. The interface Productlnterface is already declared in Magento.CatalogGraphQI module. Extending requires use of the keyword -xceni before a new declaration of Productlnterface.
C. The Magento.CatalogGraphQI module occurs later in sequence than the Magento.GraphQI module and merging output of dynamic attributes schema reader overrides types declared in

Cisco

400-007 CCDE Cisco Certified Design Expert Exam Dumps Download

Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Associated certification CCDE v3.0

Exam overview
The CCDE v3.0 Written exam (400-007) will validate that candidates have the expertise to gather and clarify network functional requirements, develop network designs to meet functional specifications, develop implementation plans, convey design decisions and their rationale, and possess expert-level knowledge including:

Business Strategy Design
Control, data, and management plane design
Network Design
Service Design
Security Design

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CCDE v3.0 Unified Exam Topics
Exam Description:
The exam topics below are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on both the CCDE Written (400-007) and the CCDE Practical exam.
The CCDE v3.0 Written exam (400-007) is a two-hour, multiple choice test with 90-110 questions, that focuses on core Enterprise network architectures and technologies.
The CCDE v3.0 Practical Exam is an 8-hour scenario-based exam, that focuses on core Enterprise network architectures and technologies, as well as on your selected area of expertise.
Both exams validate your knowledge, skills, and abilities throughout the entire network design lifecycle.
Both exams are closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
Your knowledge, skills, and abilities of recommending, building, validating, optimizing, and adapting technologies/solutions in the context of complex high-level network designs will be tested throughout the exam:
• Recommend technologies or solutions that align with the stated requirements.
• Justify why a given decision was made.
• Make design choices and fully design solutions that complies with the stated requirements.
• Validate existing designs to ensure they are compliant with all requirements, as well as suggesting design changes to accommodate for changed specifications or requirements in the network.
• Perform optimizations of existing network designs to fix issues or mitigate risks.
• Build high-level implementation plans/steps.
• Recommend, build, or justify strategies.

Both the Written and Practical exams are designed with dual stack in mind, so both IPv4 and IPv6 should be expected across every exam topic and technology.
For more information about the exam format and the technologies covered within your exam, please refer to:
• CCDE v3.0 Written and Practical Exam Format
• Core – technology list
• Workforce Mobility – technology list
• On-Prem and Cloud Services – technology list
• Large Scale Networks – technology list

15% 1.0 Business Strategy Design
1.1 Impact on network design, implementation, and optimization using various customer project management methodologies (for instance waterfall and agile)
1.2 Solutions based on business continuity and operational sustainability (for instance RPO, ROI, CAPEX/OPEX cost analysis, and risk/reward)

25% 2.0 Control, data, management plane and operational design
2.1 End-to-end IP traffic flow in a feature-rich network
2.2 Data, control, and management plane technologies
2.3 Centralized, decentralized, or hybrid control plane
2.4 Automation/orchestration design, integration, and on-going support for networks (for instance interfacing with APIs, model-driven management, controller-based technologies, evolution to CI/CD framework)
2.5 Software-defined architecture and controller-based solution design (SD-WAN, overlay, underlay, and fabric)

30% 3.0 Network Design
3.1 Resilient, scalable, and secure modular networks, covering both traditional and software defined architectures, considering:
3.1.a Technical constraints and requirements
3.1.b Operational constraints and requirements
3.1.c Application behavior and needs
3.1.d Business requirements
3.1.e Implementation plans
3.1.f Migration and transformation

15% 4.0 Service Design
4.1 Resilient, scalable, and secure modular network design based on constraints (for instance technical, operational, application, and business constraints) to support applications on the IP network (for instance voice, video, backups, data center replication, IoT, and storage)
4.2 Cloud/hybrid solutions based on business-critical operations
4.2.a Regulatory compliance
4.2.b Data governance (for instance sovereignty, ownership, and locale)
4.2.c Service placement
4.2.d SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS
4.2.e Cloud connectivity (for instance direct connect, cloud on ramp, MPLS direct connect, and WAN integration)
4.2.f Security

15% 5.0 Security Design
5.1 Network security design and integration
5.1.a Segmentation
5.1.b Network access control
5.1.c Visibility
5.1.d Policy enforcement
5.1.e CIA triad
5.1.f Regulatory compliance (if provided the regulation)

 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
The enterprise customer wants to stream one-way video from their head office to eight branch offices using multicast. Their current service provider provides a Layer3 VPN solution and manages the CE routers, but they do not currently support multicast. Which solution quickly allows this multicast traffic to go through while allowing for future scalability?

A. Enable a GRE tunnel between nodes CE1 and CE2
B. Enable a GRE tunnel between nodes C2 and C4
C. Enable a GRE tunnel between nodes C1 and C4
D. Implement hub and spoke MPLS VPN over DMVPN (also known as 2547o DMVPN) between CE1 and CE2
E. The service provider must provide a Draft Rosen solution to enable a GRE tunnel between nodes PE1 and PE2

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An enterprise network has two core routers that connect to 200 distribution routers and uses fullmesh IBGP peering between these routers as its routing method. The distribution routers are experiencing high CPU utilization due to the BGP process. Which design solution is the most cost effective?

A. Implement route reflectors on the two core routers
B. Increase the memory on the core routers
C. Implement e BGP between the core and distribution routers
D. Increase the memory on the distribution routers
E. Increase bandwidth between the core routers

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You want to mitigate failures that are caused by STP loops that occur before UDLD detects the failure or that are caused by a device that is no longer sending BPDUs. Which mechanism do you use along with UDLD?

A. Root guard
B. BPDU guard
C. Loop guard
D. BPDU filtering

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A multicast network is sing Bidirectional PIM. Which two combined actions achieve high availability so that two RPs within the same network can act in a redundant manner? (Choose two)

A. Use two phantom RP addresses
B. Manipulate the administration distance of the unicast routes to the two RPs
C. Manipulate the multicast routing table by creating static mroutes to the two RPs
D. Advertise the two RP addresses in the routing protocol
E. Use anycast RP based on MSDP peering between the two RPs
F. Control routing to the two RPs through a longest match prefix

Answer: A, F

QUESTION 5
Which purpose of a dynamically created tunnel interface on the design of IPv6 multicast services Is true?

A. first-hop router registration to the RP
B. multicast client registration to the RP
C. multicast source registration to the RP
D. transport of all IPv6 multicast traffic

Answer: D

Cisco

300-635 Automating Cisco Data Center Solutions (DCAUTO) Exam Dumps pdf

300-635 Automating and Programming Cisco Data Center Solutions
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English

Associated certifications
CCNP Data Center
Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Data Center Automation and Programmability

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing data center automated solutions, including:

Programming concepts
Orchestration
Automation tools

Automating Cisco Data Center Solutions v1.1 (300-635)
Exam Description: Automating Cisco Data Center Solutions v1.1 (DCAUTO 300-635) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Data Center Certification and DevNet Professional Certification. This exam certifies a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Data Center automated solutions, including programming concepts, orchestration and automation tools.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

10% 1.0 Network Programmability Foundation
1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git: add, clone, push, commit, diff, branching, merging conflict
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes, conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible and Terraform for automating data center platforms

30% 2.0 Controller Based Data Center Networking
2.1 Describe the following:
2.1.a ACI target policy
2.1.b ACI application hosting capabilities
2.1.c Implementation of an ACI application from the Cisco ACI Apps Center
2.2 Leverage the API inspector to explore the REST API calls made by the ACI GUI
2.3 Construct a Python script to create an application policy using the ACI REST API
2.4 Construct a Python script to create an application policy using the ACI Cobra SDK
2.5 Construct an Ansible playbook to create an application policy
2.6 Describe the benefits of integrating Kubernetes infrastructure using the ACI CNI plugin
2.7 Construct a Terraform plan to use an ACI or Nexus Dashboard Fabric Controller

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30% 3.0 Data Center Device-centric Networking
3.1 Describe Day 0 provisioning with NX-OS
3.1.a Cisco POAP
3.1.b NX-OS iPXE

3.2 Implement On-Box Programmability and Automation with NX-OS
3.2.a Bash
3.2.b Linux containers (LXC and Docker using provided container
3.2.c NX-OS guest shell
3.2.d Embedded Event Manager (EEM)
3.2.e On-box Python Scripting

3.3 Compare model-driven telemetry such as YANG Push and gRPC to traditional network monitoring strategies such as SMNP, Netflow, and SYSLOG

3.4 Construct Python script that consumes model-driven telemetry data with NX-OS

3.5 Implement Off-Box Programmability and Automation with NX-OS
3.5.a Nexus NX-API (NX-API REST and NX-API CLI)
3.5.b Nexus NETCONF using native and OpenConfig
3.5.c Network configuration tools with NX-OS (Ansible)

30% 4.0 Data Center Compute
4.1 Configure Cisco UCS with developer tools
4.1.a UCS PowerTool
4.1.b UCS Python SDK
4.1.c Ansible

4.2 Describe the capabilities of the Nexus Dashboard Fabric Controller API
4.3 Identify the steps in the Cisco Intersight API authentication method
4.4 Construct a Cisco Intersight API call given documentation to accomplish tasks such as manage server policies, service profiles, and firmware updates
4.5 Interpret a Terraform plan to use the Cisco Intersight provider

QUESTION 1
Which two benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible and Puppet to automate data center platforms are valid? (Choose two )

A. consistency of systems configuration
B. automation of repetitive tasks
C. ability to create device and interface groups
D. ability to add VLANs and routes per device
E. removal of network protocols such as Spanning Tree

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit, Where and how often does the subscription stream data for Ethernet port 1?

A. to four different destinations every 10000 microseconds
B. to four different destinations every 100 milliseconds
C. to four different destinations every 10 seconds
D. to four different destinations every 10000 seconds

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit
Which action does the execution of this ACI Cobra Python code perform?

A. It prints all LLDP neighbor MAC and IP addresses
B. It prints all Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor MAC and IP addresses
C. It prints all endpoint MAC and IP addresses
D. It prints all APIC MAC and IP addresses

Answer: C

Juniper

JN0-664 Juniper Service Provider Routing & Switching Certification Exam

Exam Code : JN0-664
Prerequisite Certification : JNCIS-SP
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Junos OS 22.3
Recertification :
Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, please see Recertification.

The Service Provider Routing and Switching track enables you to demonstrate a thorough understanding of networking technology in general and Juniper Networks service provider routing and switching platforms. JNCIP-SP, the professional-level certification in this track, is designed for networking professionals with advanced knowledge of routing and switching implementations in Junos. The written exam verifies your basic understanding of advanced routing technologies and related platform configuration and troubleshooting skills.

This track contains four certifications:
JNCIA-Junos: Junos, Associate. For details, see JNCIA-Junos.
JNCIS-SP: Service Provider Routing and Switching, Specialist. For details, see JNCIS-SP.
JNCIP-SP: Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIE-SP: Service Provider Routing and Switching, Expert. For details, see JNCIE-SP.

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Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

Recommended Training
Advanced Junos Service Provider Routing (AJSPR)
Junos Layer 2 VPNs (JL2V)
Junos Layer 3 VPNs (JL3V)

Exam Resources
Industry/product knowledge
Juniper TechLibrary

Additional Preparation
Juniper Learning Portal

Exam Objectives
Here is a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIP-SP certification exam.

Exam Objective
OSPF

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of OSPFv2 and OSPFv3:
OSPF area types and operations
Link-state advertisement (LSA) flooding through an OSPF multi-area network
Designated router/backup designated router operation
Shortest-path-first (SPF) algorithm
Metrics, including external metric types
Summarize and restrict routes
Virtual links
OSPFv2 vs. OSPFv3

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor single-area or multi-area OSPF:
Implement OSPF routing policy
IS-IS

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of IS-IS:
IS-IS areas/levels and operations
Label-switched path (LSP) flooding through an IS-IS multi- area network
Designated intermediate system (DIS) operation
SPF algorithm
Metrics, including wide metrics
Route summarization and route leaking

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor single-area or multi-area IS-IS:
Implement IS-IS routing policy
BGP

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP:
BGP route selection process
Next-hop resolution
BGP attributes—concept and operation
BGP communities
Regular expressions
Multipath
Multihop
Load balancing
Advanced BGP options
BGP route damping
BGP flowspec
Multiprotocol BGP

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP scaling mechanisms:
Route reflection
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor BGP:
Implement BGP routing policy
Class of Service (CoS)

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Junos OS CoS:
CoS processing on Junos OS devices
CoS header fields
Forwarding classes
Classification
Packet loss priority
Policers
Schedulers
Drop profiles
Rewrite rules

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor CoS.
IP Multicast

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of IP multicast:
Components of IP multicast, including multicast addressing
IP multicast traffic flow
Any-source multicast (ASM) versus source-specific multicast (SSM)
Reverse path forwarding (RPF)—concept and operation
Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
Physical Interface Module (PIM) dense mode and sparse mode
Rendezvous point (RP)—concept, operation, discovery, election
Source-specific multicast (SSM)—requirements, benefits, address ranges
Anycast rendezvous point (RP)

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor IGMP, PIM dense mode, or PIM sparse mode (including SSM):
Implement IP multicast routing policy
Layer 3 VPNs

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 3 VPNs:
Traffic flow—control and data planes
Full mesh versus hub-and-spoke topology
VPN-IPv4 addressing
Route distinguishers
Route targets
Route distribution
Site of origin
Sham links
Virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) table-label
Next-generation multicast virtual private networks (MVPNs)
Flow of control and data traffic in a MVPN
Layer 3 VPN scaling
IPv6 Layer 3 VPNs
Layer 3 VPN Internet access options

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor the components of Layer 3 VPNs.
Describe Junos OS support for carrier-of-carriers or inter-provider VPN models.
Layer 2 VPNs


Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP Layer 2 VPNs:
Traffic flow—control and data planes
Forwarding tables
Connection mapping
Layer 2 VPN network layer reachability information (NLRI)
Route distinguishers
Route targets
Layer 2 VPN scaling

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of LDP Layer 2 circuits:
Traffic flow—control and data planes
Virtual circuit label
Autodiscovery (AD)
Layer 2 interworking

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of virtual private LAN service (VPLS):
Traffic flow—control and data planes
BGP VPLS label distribution
LDP VPLS label distribution
Route targets
VPLS multihoming
Site IDs

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of EVPN:
Traffic flow—control and data planes
Media access control (MAC) learning and distribution
Ethernet VPN (EVPN) multihoming
BGP EVPN label distribution

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Layer 2 VPNs:
BGP Layer 2 VPNs
LDP Layer 2 circuits
EVPNs
VPLS

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

QUESTION 1
Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit; the 10.0.0.0 EBGP route is received on R5; however, the route is being hidden.
What are two solutions that will solve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. On R4, create a policy to change the BGP next hop to itself and apply it to IBGP as an export policy
B. Add the external interface prefix to the IGP routing tables
C. Add the internal interface prefix to the BGP routing tables.
D. On R4, create a policy to change the BGP next hop to 172.16.1.1 and apply it to IBGP as an export policy

Answer: AB

Explanation:
the default behavior for iBGP is to propagate EBGP-learned prefixes without changing the next-hop.
This can cause issues if the next-hop is not reachable via the IGP. One solution is to use the next-hop
self command on R4, which will change the next-hop attribute to its own loopback address. This way,
R5 can reach the next-hop via the IGP and install the route in its routing table.
Another solution is to add the external interface prefix (120.0.4.16) to the IGP routing tables of R4
and R5. This will also make the next-hop reachable via the IGP and allow R5 to use the
route. According to 2, this is a possible workaround for a pure IP network, but it may not work well
for an MPLS network.

QUESTION 2
You are responding to an RFP for a new MPLS VPN implementation. The solution must use LDP for
signaling and support Layer 2 connectivity without using BGP The solution must be scalable and
support multiple VPN connections over a single MPLS LSP The customer wants to maintain all routing
for their Private network
In this scenario, which solution do you propose?

A. circuit cross-connect
B. BGP Layer 2 VPN
C. LDP Layer 2 circuit
D. translational cross-connect

Answer: C

Explanation:
AToM (Any Transport over MPLS) is a framework that supports various Layer 2 transport types over
an MPLS network core. One of the transport types supported by AToM is LDP Layer 2 circuit, which is
a point-to-point Layer 2 connection that uses LDP for signaling and MPLS for forwarding. LDP Layer 2
circuit can support Layer 2 connectivity without using BGP and can be scalable and efficient by using
a single MPLS LSP for multiple VPN connections. The customer can maintain all routing for their
private network by using their own CE switches.

QUESTION 3
Exhibit.
Referring to the exhib.t, what must be changed to establish a Level 1 adjacency between routers R1 and R2?

A. Change the level l disable parameter under the R1 protocols isis interface lo0.0 hierarchy to the level 2 disable parameter.
B. Remove the level i disable parameter under the R2 protocols isis interface loo . 0 configuration hierarchy.
C. Change the level 1 disable parameter under the R2 protocols isis interface ge-1 .0 hierarchy to the level 2 disable parameter
D. Add IP addresses to the interface ge-l unit 0 family iso hierarchy on both R1 and R2.

Answer: B

Explanation:
IS-IS routers can form Level 1 or Level 2 adjacencies depending on their configuration and network
topology. Level 1 routers are intra-area routers that share the same area address with their
neighbors. Level 2 routers are inter-area routers that can connect different areas. Level 1-2 routers
are both intra-area and inter-area routers that can form adjacencies with any other router.
In the exhibit, R1 and R2 are in different areas (49.0001 and 49.0002), so they cannot form a Level 1
adjacency. However, they can form a Level 2 adjacency if they are both configured as Level 1-2
routers. R1 is already configured as a Level 1-2 router, but R2 is configured as a Level 1 router only,
because of the level 1 disable command under the lo0.0 interface. This command disables Level 2
routing on the loopback interface, which is used as the router ID for IS-IS.
Therefore, to establish a Level 1 adjacency between R1 and R2, the level 1 disable command under
the R2 protocols isis interface lo0.0 hierarchy must be removed. This will enable Level 2 routing on
R2 and allow it to form a Level 2 adjacency with R1.

QUESTION 4
You are asked to protect your company’s customers from amplification attacks. In this scenario, what is Juniper’s recommended protection method?

A. ASN prepending
B. BGP FlowSpec
C. destination-based Remote Triggered Black Hole
D. unicast Reverse Path Forwarding

Answer: C

Explanation:
amplification attacks are a type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that exploit the
characteristics of certain protocols to amplify the traffic sent to a victim. For example, an attacker can
send a small DNS query with a spoofed source IP address to a DNS server, which will reply with a
much larger response to the victim. This way, the attacker can generate a large amount of traffic with

comptia a+ certification, Uncategorized

The new CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) is available now!

CompTIA Project+ PK0-005
CompTIA has recently updated the content of its Project+ certification exam, PK0-005, to ensure that it reflects the latest technologies and skills required in the industry. The exam objectives have been modified to better address IT environments, Agile methodology, and risk management skills. The domains covered in the PK0-005 exam have been rearranged and updated to emphasize IT project management skills, with a focus on project management concepts, project life cycle phases, tools and documentation, and the basics of IT and governance. These changes aim to provide IT professionals with the essential baseline knowledge and skills required for project management in today’s technology landscape.

The exam domains covered in CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) reflect the IT emphasis, as IT project management skills have become very important. The exam domains have been modified and rearranged, as shown in the following table.
2.0 Project Constraints 17%

PK0-005 Exam Domains
1.0 Project Management Concepts 33%
2.0 Project Life Cycle Phases 30%
3.0 Tools and Documentation 19%
4.0 Basics of IT and Governance 18%

It’s important to stay up-to-date on the latest changes and updates to certifications like CompTIA Project+. With the release of the new version (PK0-005), many professionals may have questions about what’s new and what they need to know. By continuing to read and engage in conversations about the certification, individuals can ensure they are fully prepared for the exam and have the most current knowledge and skills necessary for their career.

Why Is There a New Version of CompTIA Project+?
Yes, that’s correct. The update of the CompTIA Project+ certification, PK0-005, reflects the evolving needs of the industry and the latest project management techniques and technologies. The certification continues to provide a foundation of essential knowledge and skills that project management professionals need to succeed in their roles.

What’s on the New CompTIA Project+ Exam?
Yes, that’s correct. CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) is designed to cover a broad range of project management concepts and techniques that are relevant to various industries and job roles. It is an entry-level certification that provides a solid foundation for IT professionals to manage small to medium-sized projects effectively. The certification covers topics such as project planning, execution, monitoring and control, project communication, project scope, risk management, and stakeholder management, among others.

In addition to topics you might traditionally associate with project management, the new version of CompTIA Project+ emphasizes the skills needed to manage smaller, less complex projects and ensures the candidate has the knowledge and skills required to:

• Manage the project lifecycle
• Coordinate small- to medium-size projects
• Establish an appropriate communication plan while managing resources and stakeholders and maintaining project documentation
• Support the completion of larger projects within an IT environment

Why Should I Choose CompTIA Project+ Over Other Certifications?

CompTIA Project+ is a vendor-neutral and performance certification.
A vendor-neutral exam means that each exam covers multiple technologies and methods, without confining the candidate to any single one. Vendor-neutrality is important because it ensures IT professionals can perform important job tasks in any environment. IT professionals with vendor-neutral certifications can consider multiple solutions in their approach to problem-solving, making them more flexible and adaptable than those with training in just one methodology.

CompTIA performance certifications validate the skills associated with a particular job or responsibility. They include simulations that require the test taker to demonstrate multi-step knowledge to complete a task.

How Much Does CompTIA Project+ Cost?
The retail price for the new CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) is $25 USD per exam. Keep reading to learn more about bundles, which can save you money. You can also click on the ad on this page to get 10% off a voucher or training product.

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QUESTION 1
A PM is responsible for implementing a new customer relationship management system and has
learned that the sales organization is reluctant to utilize the new system. The organization’s
reluctance could jeopardize the success of the project. Which of the following steps should be taken
to understand the adoption issues and gain organizational acceptance of the initiative? (Select TWO).

A. Train users on the proper use of the system.
B. Escalate the issue to the CCB
C. Hold sessions to understand user challenges.
D. Track system usage and report user activity.
E. Log the issue in the project risk register.
F. Create a memorandum of acceptable use.

Answer: CD

Explanation:
The project manager should hold sessions to understand user challenges and track system usage and
report user activity. These steps will help the project manager to identify the root causes of the
adoption issues and monitor the progress of the system utilization. They will also help to
communicate with the sales organization and provide feedback and support12

QUESTION 2
Following a successful release, a project manager sent a survey to all stakeholders to gain an
understanding of opportunity areas for the team. Which of the following can use the survey results as an input?

A. Daily stand-up
B. Project momentum
C. Performance feedback
D. Meeting minutes

Answer: C

Explanation:
The project manager can use the survey results as an input for performance feedback for the project
team members. Performance feedback is a process of providing constructive and timely information
on the performance of individuals or teams in relation to project goals and
expectations. Performance feedback can help to motivate, improve, and recognize project team members345
The survey results can be used as an input for performance feedback. Performance feedback involves
analyzing and evaluating the performance of the project team and project management against the
project plan, including identifying areas for improvement. The survey results can help identify these
areas for improvement and provide feedback to the project team on their performance. Reference:
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.1

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint?

A. Evaluating the project
B. Releasing the resources
C. Closing the contracts
D. Reconciling the budget

Answer: A

Explanation:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support
the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to
ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study
Guide Section 4.4.4

QUESTION 4
During a quality analysis review, the causes of several issues have been highlighted. Which of the
following should the project manager use to identify the MOST important causes?

A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Scatter diagram