Monthly Archives: December 2019

Nokia

4A0-M05 Nokia Cloud Packet Core Exam

Exam Name: Nokia Cloud Packet Core
Exam Number: 4A0-M05
Credit Towards Certifications:
Nokia Cloud Packet Core Expert
Nokia Service Routing Architect
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Required Passing Score: 80%
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45 minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 40
Language: English

For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course objectives and modules in the course outline.

Course Overview
This hands-on instructor-led course explores the Nokia Cloud Packet Core (CPC) Solution. It starts with an in-depth review of the Cloud Packet Core architecture and its cloud native characteristics. Virtualization and optimal deployment options for the CPC are presented as well as performing life cycle operations with CloudBand Application Manager (CBAM). The virtual network function (VNF) architecture of the Nokia Cloud Mobility Manager (CMM), the Cloud Mobile Gateway (CMG), and the Smart Plan Suite (SPS) are all addressed. The course concludes with an exploration of how to evolve to 5G.

Credit Towards Certification
Nokia Cloud Packet Core Expert
Nokia Service Routing Architect

Course Number
TT01365-V-1809

Recommended Prerequisites
Nokia Mobile Gateways
Nokia Mobility Manager

Course Objectives
After completing the course, students should be able to:

Describe the architecture of the Nokia CPC and its cloud native design capabilities
Illustrate the network function virtualization platform used for CPC
Describe the management architecture of the CPC
Explain key virtualization concepts
Use CBAM to deploy CMM and CMG
Explain the VNF architecture of the Nokia CMM
Explain the VNF architecture of the Nokia CMG
Describe the virtual machine (VM) components of the CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the IP networks required by the CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the dimensioning, scaling, resiliency, and lifecycle management of the CMM and CMG VNFs

Describe the architecture and the components of the Nokia Smart Plan Suite (SPS) VNF
Identify the different 5G deployment options
Illustrate how the Nokia CPC architecture supports the evolution towards 5G
Describe 5G non-standalone option 3
Verify the health of CPC VNFs including their stacks, VMs, and networks
Troubleshoot virtualization infrastructure using CLI commands
Configure the CMM and CMG on a Nokia CPC for an LTE Attach
Troubleshoot LTE Attach failure scenarios using UE call traces and logs
Perform Life-Cycle Management (LCM) operations on CMM and CMG with CBAM

Course Modules
• Module 1 – Introduction to Cloud Packet Core
• Module 2 – CPC Virtualization
• Module 3 – Cloud Mobility Manager
• Module 4 – Cloud Mobile Gateway
• Module 5 – Smart Plan Suite
• Module 6 – Evolution to a 5G Core
• Module 7 – CPC Troubleshooting and Analytics
 

QUESTION: 1
Which of the following management tools performs the function of virtual infrastructure manager (VIM) in the
CPC NFV architecture?

A. NetAct
B. CloudBand Infrastructure Software (CBIS)
C. Operations Support System (OSS)
D. Network Service Platform (NSP)

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements about the network service platform (NSP) is FALSE?

A. Acts as an element management system (EMS) for CPC components
B. Performs fault, performance, and security management
C. Has a northbound interface with the NFV orchestrator (NFVO)
D. Allows monitoring events associated with the NFV environment

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION: 3
Which of the following network elements is implemented by the Nokia CPC?

A. Policy and charging rules function (PCRF)
B. Equipment Identity Registration (EIR)
C. Application Function (AF)
D. eNodeB

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION: 4
What is the main benefit of splitting the core network into separate user-plane and control-plane nodes?

A. Independent configuration of user-plane and control-plane nodes
B. Independent scaling of user-plane and control-plane nodes
C. User of a shared data repository for storing user states.
D. Creation of networks with isolated properties over a common infrastructure

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements about SR-IOV is FALSE?

A. VMs using OVS and SR-IOV can be instantiated on the same compute node.
B. SR-IOV offers comparable performance to non-visualized hardware.
C. The VM must be attached to the PF to achieve highest performance.
D. Using SR-IOV restricts VM mobility.

Answer: D

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Adobe

4A0-106 Nokia Virtual Private Routed Networks Exam

Exam Name: Nokia Virtual Private Routed Networks
Exam Number: 4A0-106
Credit Towards Certifications: Nokia Service Routing Architect
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45 minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 60
Language: English

For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and course outline can be found here.

Exam exemptions are available for individuals with IP certifications from other organizations. Refer to the following link for additional details: Credit for Other IP Certifications.

Price: $125 USD based on exam delivery in North America. Pricing in other countries may vary slightly depending on country location.

Exams are delivered by our external test delivery partner, Pearson VUE. For more information, access their website at www.pearsonvue.com/nokia.

QUESTION 1
In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)

A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 2
Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with _________________.

A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for exchanging routes with the PE

Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)

A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe

Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 4
What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).

A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)

A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs

Answer: A,E

 

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Oracle

1z0-082 Oracle Database Administration I Exam

Oracle Database Administration I | 1Z0-082
An Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional has proven theoretical understanding of and the practical skills required to configure and manage Oracle Databases up to and including Oracle 19c. Passing this 1st exam in the 2 exam path proves your skills in SQL programming skills, database and network administration.

Audience:
Database Administrator
Exam Details
Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration I
Exam Number: 1Z0-082
Exam Price: $50
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 90
Passing Score: 60%
Validated Against: Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional

Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Oracle Database Administration Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Oracle Database 2019 Certification Overview and Study Guide

Understanding Oracle Database Architecture – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding Oracle Database Instance Configurations
Understanding Oracle Database Memory and Process Structures
Understanding Logical and Physical Database Structures
Understanding Oracle Database Server Architecture

Managing Users, Roles and Privileges – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Assigning Quotas to Users
Applying the Principal of Least Privilege
Creating and Assigning Profiles
Administering User Authentication Methods
Managing Oracle Database Users, Privileges, and Roles

Moving Data – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Using External Tables
Using Oracle Data Pump
Using SQL*Loader

Configuring Oracle Net Services – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Using Oracle Net Services Administration Tools
Configuring Communication Between Database Instances
Configuring the Oracle Net Listener
Connecting to an Oracle Database Instance
Comparing Dedicated and Shared Server Configurations
Administering Naming Methods

Managing Undo – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding Transactions and Undo Data
Storing Undo Information
Configuring Undo Rentention
Comparing Undo Data and Redo Data
Understanding Temporary Undo

Using Conversion Functions and Conditional Expressions – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Applying the NVL, NULLIF, and COALESCE functions to data
Understanding implicit and explicit data type conversion
Using the TO_CHAR, TO_NUMBER, and TO_DATE conversion functions
Nesting multiple functions

Using SET Operators – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Matching the SELECT statements
Using the ORDER BY clause in set operations
Using The INTERSECT operator
Using The MINUS operator
Using The UNION and UNION ALL operators

Managing Views – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL

Retrieving Data using the SQL SELECT Statement – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Column aliases
Using The DESCRIBE command
Using The SQL SELECT statement
Using concatenation operator, literal character strings, alternative quote operator, and the DISTINCT keyword
Using Arithmetic expressions and NULL values in the SELECT statement

Reporting Aggregated Data Using Group Functions – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Restricting Group Results
Creating Groups of Data
Using Group Functions

Managing Tables using DML statements – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Managing Database Transactions
Using Data Manipulation Language
Controlling transactions

Managing Schema Objects – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Creating and using temporary tables
Managing constraints

Managing Database Instances – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Starting Up Oracle Database Instances
Using Data Dictionary Views
Shutting Down Oracle Database Instances
Using Dynamic Performance Views
Using the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)
Using the Alert Log and Trace Files
Managing Initialization Parameter Files

Managing Storage – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Managing Resumable Space Allocation
Shrinking Segments
Deferring Segment Creation
Using Space-Saving Features
Deploying Oracle Database Space Management Features
Managing Different Types of Segments
Using Table and Row Compression
Understanding Block Space Management

Accessing an Oracle Database with Oracle supplied Tools – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
Using Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
Using racle enterprise Manager Database Express
Using SQL Developer
Using SQL Plus

Managing Tablespaces and Datafiles – Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Viewing Tablespace Information
Creating, Altering and Dropping Tablespaces
Managing Table Data Storage
Implementing Oracle Managed Files
Moving and Renaming Online Data Files

Restricting and Sorting Data – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Applying Rules of precedence for operators in an expression
Limiting Rows Returned in a SQL Statement
Using Substitution Variables
Using the DEFINE and VERIFY commands

Displaying Data from Multiple Tables Using Joins – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Self-joins
Using Various Types of Joins
Using Non equijoins
Using OUTER joins

Understanding Data Definition Language – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Data Definition Language

Managing Data in Different Time Zones – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Working with CURRENT_DATE, CURRENT_TIMESTAMP,and LOCALTIMESTAMP
Working with INTERVAL data types

Using Single-Row Functions to Customize Output – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Manipulating strings with character functions in SQL SELECT and WHERE clauses
Performing arithmetic with date data
Manipulating numbers with the ROUND, TRUNC and MOD functions
Manipulating dates with the date function

Using Subqueries to Solve Queries – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Single Row Subqueries
Using Multiple Row Subqueries

Managing Sequences, Synonyms, Indexes – Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Managing Indexes
Managing Synonyms
Managing Sequences

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the INTERSECT operator used in compound queries?

A. Multiple INTERSECT operators are not possible in the same SQL statement
B. It processes NULLs in the selected columns
C. INTERSECT is of lower precedence than UNION or UNION ALL
D. It ignores NULLs

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle Net for connection
to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three.)

A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF)
B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server
C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables network traffic to be routed through a firewall
D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a Shared Server configuration
E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server
F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener addresses configured

Answer: B,CF

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to
DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI:SS? (Choose two.)

A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional seconds
B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table
C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone
D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR
E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the database server
F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE

Answer: B,C
 

QUESTION 5
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?

A. in the undo tablespace
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace
C. in the SGA
D. in the PGA
E. in the temporary tablespace

Answer: A
 

QUESTION 6
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:
1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions
2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid
Which data type should you use?

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE
D. TIMESTAMP
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE

Answer: B

 

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Dell, EMC

DES-1423 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Isilon Solutions Exam

Certification Overview
This certifies a student can install, implement, manage and administer an Isilon scale-out storage solution in a live datacenter environment.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Achieve one of the following pre-requisite certifications*
• Associate – Information Storage and Management Version 2.0
• Associate – Information Storage and Management Version 3.0
• Associate – Information Storage and Management Version 4.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
• Specialist – Systems Administrator, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Isilon Solutions (DCS-IE) track.
This exam focuses on the implementation of an Isilon scale-out storage solution. The course prepares students to perform Isilon cluster installation and implementation. Students will be familiar with Isilon software modules and configurations including: SmartConnect , SMB, NFS, multi-protocol, data protection/replication in single and multi-cluster implementations, archive deployment, snapshots and replication, deduplication, RBAC, SNMP integration, analytics, support and monitoring.

Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• OneFS v8.2
• InsightIQ 3.0
• Isilon Generation 5 Nodes
• Isilon Generation 6 Nodes

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Isilon Fundamentals and Authentication (16%)
• Describe the Isilon storage concepts such as Scale out versus Scale up, architecture, and OneFS details
• Identify and describe Isilon hardware components and intended use cases including both Gen 5 and Gen 6 hardware types
• Identify and describe how an administrator accesses a cluster using WebUI, SSH, and Multi-factor SSH
• Describe cluster dependencies on NTP, LDAP, Active Directory, and other dependent configurations

Isilon Networking (17%)
• Configure Access zones and base directories with the proper folder structure layout
• Describe the basic internal and external network configurations, multi-tenancy, groupnets, subnets, pools and rules
• Identify and explain the various network configurations in Gen 5 and Gen 6 including link aggregation, failover LACP, FEC, and Round Robin
• Describe how to integrate SmartConnect, SmartConnect zones, DNS, SSIP, IP address pools, and load balancing
• Explain the use of VLAN, SBR, and NANON

Authentication, Identity Management, Authorization (10%)
• Differentiate the use of RBAC and ZRBAC
• Explain the use of user identifiers and the proper use of ID mapping
• Identify and describe POSIX and ACLs permission rubrics

Client Protocols, Hadoop, and Auditing (13%)
• Describe OneFS caching levels and use cases
• Configure SMB shares with SMB3 Continuous Availability (CA) and Server-Side Copy with protocol auditing and file filtering
• Configure NFS exports with NFSv4 Continuous Availability (CA)
• Identify and describe Hadoop and Swift configurations and features

Data Protection and Layout (14%)
• Identify FEC data protection levels, file striping, and Reed-Solomon protection definitions
• Differentiate between requested, suggested, and actual protection levels and verify with isi get commands
• Differentiate concurrent and streaming data layout models, use cases, and performance impacts
• Explain storage pools, policies, neighborhoods, global namespace, spillover, and VHS

OneFS Modules and Data Services (13%)
• Differentiate between SmartPools, storage pools, SSD usage, and file pool policies
• Describe how SmartQuotas are configured and identify the characteristics of SmartDedupe capabilities
• Identify SnapshotIQ features, CoW and RoW mechanics, and scheduling
• Identify and describe how to prepare the cluster for SyncIQ disaster recovery

OneFS Job Engine (10%)
• Identify and describe the OneFS Job Engine architecture, components, and workers and circumstantial modes
• Describe the various job types, exclusion sets, priorities, and impacts
• Describe how jobs are managed in real time and how the schedule is maintained

Upgrades and Monitoring (10%)
• Describe how upgrades are applied to a cluster including rollback and commit options
• Explain the importance of firmware updates, ARR, and the Upgrade Helper tool
• Describe the installation of InsightIQ monitoring and reporting, and the use of isi statistics commands
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

QUESTION 1
When reviewing the actual protection output of N+4/2, what does the number “4” represent?

A. FEC stripe units per stripe
B. Hard drives used per stripe
C. Volume stripes per file system
D. FEC stripe units per file system

Answer: A

Explanation:
It’s OneFS FEC protection nomenclature for our “hybrid” protection polices. More generally, it’s written as: N+M/b
where “N” is the number of data stripe units in a stripe, “M” is the number of FEC stripe units in a stripe, and “b” is the number of stripe units in a stripe which are allowed to reside on the same node.

QUESTION 2
What impact can obsolete drive firmware have on an Isilon cluster?

A. Reduces administrative overhead and increases performance.
B. Affects redundancy settings and FEC coding.
C. Affects cluster performance or hardware reliability.
D. Increases runtime and cluster performance.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What defines FEC link aggregation mode?

A. Switches to the next interface when the primary interface becomes unavailable.
B. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that includes source and destination addresses, and VLAN tag.
C. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that includes source and destination addresses.
D. Balances outbound traffic across all active ports in the aggregated link.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In Isilon OneFS, what is a characteristic of CoW with snapshots?

A. Used for small changes, inodes, and directories.
B. Avoids the double write penalty.
C. Increases file fragmentation.
D. Used for more substantial changes such as deletes.

Answer: A
Explanation:
With copy on write, as the name suggests, a new write to HEAD results in the old blocks being copied out to the snapshot version first.
Although this incurs a double write penalty, it results in less fragmentation of the HEAD file, which is better for cache prefetch, etc.
Typically, CoW is most prevalent in OneFS and is primarily used for small changes, inodes and directories.

QUESTION 5
Which OneFS networking option enables Isilon for DNS multitenant functionality?

A. Groupnet
B. Access zone
C. Pool
D. Subnet

Answer: A

 

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HP

HPE6-A68 Aruba Certified ClearPass Professional Exam

Exam ID HPE6-A68
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 10 minutes
Exam length 62 questions
Passing score 75%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Option 1 Implementing Aruba ClearPass, Rev. 19.21
Option 2 Aruba ClearPass Essentials, Rev. 19.21

Exam description
The Aruba Certified ClearPass Professional Exam tests your ability to design and integrate networks that use ClearPass. Candidates will be tested on skills required to configure ClearPass for policy and guest management, posture, profiling, and onboarding.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum of one to two years experience in deploying network solutions for the enterprise.

Exam contents
This exam has 62 questions.

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass this exam.
Read the HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference material, study guides, and HPE books.

Objectives This exam tests your skills on:

5%  Intro to ClearPass
25%  ClearPass for AAA
6%  External Authentication
23%  Guest
17%  Onboard
6%  Endpoint Analysis
8%  Posture
5%  Operations and Admin Users
5%  Clustering and Redundancy


QUESTION 1
A customer with an Aruba Controller wants to set it up to work with ClearPass Guest1
Hoe should they configure ClearPass as an authentication server in the controller so that guests are able to
authenticate successfully?

A. Add ClearPass as RADIUS CoA server.
B. Add ClearPass as a TACACS+ authentication server.
C. Add ClearPass as a RADIUS authentication server.
D. Add ClearPass as a HTTPS authentication server.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A bank would like to deploy ClearPass Guest with web login authentication so that their customers can selfregister
on the network to get network access when they have meetings with bank employees. However,
they’re concerned about security.
What is true? (Choose three.)

A. If HTTPS is used for the web login page, after authentication is completed guest Internet traffic will all be encrypted as well.
B. During web login authentication, if HTTPS is used for the web login page, guest credentials will be encrypted.
C. After authentication, an IPSEC VPN on the guest’s client be used to encrypt Internet traffic.
D. HTTPS should never be used for Web Login Page authentication.
E. If HTTPS is used for the web login page, after authentication is completed some guest Internet traffic may be unencrypted.

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to make enforcement decisions during 802.1x authentication based on a client’s Onguard posture token.
What enforcement profile should be used in the health check service?

A. Quarantine VLAN
B. RADIUS CoA
C. RADIUS Accept
D. RADIUS Reject
E. Full Access VLAN.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which authorization servers are supported by ClearPass? (Choose two.)

A. Active Directory
B. Cisco Controller
C. Aruba Controller
D. LDAP server
E. Aruba Mobility Access Switch

Correct Answer: AD

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comptia a+ certification

CLO-002 CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam

CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ is for both IT and non-technical professionals who require the essential business acumen needed to make informed cloud service decisions.

Why is Cloud Essentials+ Different?
CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ is the only internationally recognized, vendor-neutral certification utilizing key business principles and fundamental cloud concepts that validate data-driven cloud recommendations. It stands alone in this field by demonstrating that all necessary staff members – not just the IT specialists – understand how to increase efficiency, manage costs, and reduce security risks for organizations whenever tasked with making current cloud technology decisions.

About the exam
The new CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ (CL0-002) exam launches November 12, 2019!
Business analysts and IT pros alike are consistently called upon to assist their organization in determining which cloud service provider(s) to use, what to migrate to the cloud, and when to implement. Collecting and analyzing cloud products and services information is essential when making operational cloud business decisions. The financial and operational impacts covered by Cloud Essentials+ ensure an ability to develop and implement solid cloud strategies. CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ will show that successful candidates:

Have the knowledge and understanding of the foundational business and technical components included in a cloud assessment
Understand specific security concerns and measures
Comprehend new technology concepts, solutions, and benefits to an organization

Exam Description
CompTIA Cloud Essentials covers cloud services from a business perspective. The expertise validated includes the business value of cloud computing, cloud types, steps to a successful adoption of the cloud, impact and changes on IT service management, as well as risks and consequences.

CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ validates the candidate has the knowledge and skills required to make clear and conscious decisions about cloud technologies and their business impact by evaluating business use cases, financial impacts, cloud technologies and deployment models with knowledge of cloud computing.

Number of Questions 50 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice
Length of Test 60 Minutes
Passing Score 720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience At least six months working in an environment that markets or relies on IT-related services
Between six months to a year of work experience as a business analyst in an IT environment with some exposure to cloud technologies
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese, Simplified Chinese and Thai

Renewal
The CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ certification does not need to be renewed.

For certifications that are part of the CompTIA Continuing Education program and that can be renewed, please go to our Continuing Education page.

QUESTION 1
A company is moving to the cloud and wants to enhance the provisioning of compute, storage, security, and networking. Which of the following will be leveraged?

A. Infrastructure as code
B. Infrastructure templates
C. Infrastructure orchestration
D. Infrastructure automation

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following services would restrict connectivity to cloud resources?

A. Security lists
B. Firewall
C. VPN
D. Intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following cloud characteristics helps transform from a typical capital expenditure model to an operating expenditure model?

A. Pay-as-you-go
B. Elasticity
C. Self-service
D. Availability

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following DevOps options is used to integrate with cloud solutions?

A. Provisioning
B. API
C. SOA
D. Automation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A document that outlines the scope of a project, specific deliverables, scheduling, and additional specific details from the client/buyer is called a:

A. statement of work.
B. standard operating procedure.
C. master service document.
D. service level agreement.

Correct Answer: D

 

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NetApp

NS0-525 NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer, Data Protect Exam

You have proven skills in positioning NetApp® disaster recovery solutions, assessing customer data storage requirements, and implementing backup and recovery solutions.

NCIE-DP logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully obtain NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NCDA) certification, then pass the NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer—Data Protection (NS0-525) exam.

NCIE-Data Protection Specialist candidates must first achieve the NetApp Certified Data Administrator (NCDA) certification.

We recommend that NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer—Data Protection candidates have six to 12 months of experience with: NetApp ONTAP replication technology, planning and implementing data protection solutions, configuring backup and recovery software, operating backup and disaster recovery deployments.

Recommended Training and Resources:
ONTAP Data Protection Administration (ILT)
ONTAP MetroCluster Installation (ILT)
ONTAP Data Protection Fundamentals (WBT)
Practice Test for NS0-525
View Exam Topics
Reference Document (PDF)
Register for NS0-525

To enroll in NetApp University training, you will need a NetApp Support Site account.

The NS0-525 exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days after you complete your exam.

The NS0-525 exam includes the following topics:

ONTAP Replication Technology
Describe how ONTAP replication technology works within a NetApp Data Fabric including Snapshot copies and SnapMirror replication
Describe how high-availability configurations operate within an ONTAP Cluster
Describe how a MetroCluster configuration can ensure business continuity
Identify the difference between synchronous and asynchronous replication for applications and VM


Planning ONTAP Data Protection Implementation
Identify ONTAP data protection solutions in traditional on-premise configurations, private clouds, hybrid cloud, and storage tiering environments
Demonstrate how to apply ONTAP guidelines and use tools: sizing guidelines, Interoperability Matrix Tool, RPO calculator, Savings Calculator, Hardware Universe
Describe the implementation steps for application- and virtualization-specific workloads, including Snapshot retention policies
Distinguish between a consistent file system and an application-consistent backup
Demonstrate how to develop a course of action to recover customer ONTAP data after a disaster
Identify how to implement security related to ONTAP data protection: NetApp Volume Encryption, NetApp Security Encryption, SnapLock, key management
Describe how to plan for ONTAP data protection in the Data Fabric

Configuring Data Protection Software
Describe how to configure ONTAP Snapshots, SnapMirror policies, SnapMirror for SVMs, and MetroCluster using the command-line interface and System Manager
Identify which tool to use to set up ONTAP-based storage and schedule policies

Operating Data Protection Deployments
Demonstrate how to back up or restore NAS, SAN, VM, object and application data using ONTAP
Demonstrate how to locate and protect unprotected ONTAP volumes using Active IQ Unified Manager
Describe how to use WorkFlow Automator (WFA) products to orchestrate failover and failback for application servers
Describe how to use SnapCenter as an external backup application
Describe how to verify that backup and replication jobs are up-to-date
Demonstrate how to validate that an ONTAP backup is successfully restored

Best Practices
Describe strategies for implementing ONTAP data protection products in the data fabric using SnapMirror, MetroCluster, Unified Data Replication (UDP), network compression, Cloud Backup
Describe how to calculate transfer time based on the customer’s available bandwidth and latency distance for ONTAP data protection products
Describe storage efficiency for ONTAP data protection
Describe automation policies for managing volume capacity
Describe monitoring or reporting techniques for ONTAP data protection solutions

QUESTION 1
You have successfully deployed a primary and a secondary ONTAP cluster. You want to set up an intercluster
SnapMirror relationship between your primary and secondary sites.
In this scenario, which two actions are required before accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)

A. NDMP must be enabled.
B. The SVMs must be peered.
C. The primary and secondary clusters must be peered.
D. The Snapshot schedule must be configured.

Answer: A,B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to set up an SVM DR relationship to protect a source SVM that is dedicated for NAS file
services. The source and destination clusters are running ONTAP 9.5.
In this scenario, which application accomplishes this task?

A. OnCommand Unified Manager
B. OnCommand System Manager
C. SnapCenter
D. Snap Creator

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
After deploying an ONTAP Select 2 node HA cluster at a remote site, you successfully perform manual
takeover and giveback before placing the cluster into production. After the cluster runs in production for a
week, you notice that you can no longer perform a manual takeover.
In this scenario, what are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

A. There is a network disruption between sites.
B. ONTAP Deploy has been deleted.
C. The vSphere HA service has failed.
D. The HA interconnect cables have been removed.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION 4
A customer infrastructure consists of multiple ONTAP clusters, both physical and virtual. The clusters
replicate some data with each other. You want to generate a comprehensive report of all the replication that is
present on the infrastructure.
In this scenario, which tool accomplishes this task?

A. OnCommand System Manager
B. Storage Replication Adapter
C. OnCommand Unified Manager
D. OnCommand Workflow Automation

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have set up a SnapMirror relationship between two SVMs for data protection. The data in the source
volume is unavailable due to an event related to a virus infection leading to data corruption.
In this scenario, which three actions are required to activate the SnapMirror destination volume and provide
data access to the users? (Choose three.)

A. Perform a SnapMirror quiesce operation.
B. Disable the source volume by taking it offline.
C. Configure the destination volume for data access.
D. Verify the status of the source and destination volumes.
E. Perform a SnapMirror break operation.

Answer: C,D,E

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Microsoft, Uncategorized

PL-900 Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals (beta) Exam

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Candidates for this exam are users who aspire to improve productivity by automating business processes, analyzing data to produce business insights, and acting more effectively by creating simple app experiences.

This exam covers the following: Describe the Power Platform components: Power Apps, Power BI, Microsoft Flow, Common Data Service (CDS), connectors, and AI builder; describe cross-cloud scenarios with representation across Microsoft 365, Dynamics 365, Microsoft Azure, and third-party services; identify benefits and capabilities of Power Platform; identify the basic functionality and business value Power Platform components; implement simple solutions with Microsoft Flow, Power BI, and AI Builder; and create a basic app in a no-code environment.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified Power Platform Fundamentals
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to understand the business value of Power Platform; understand the core components of Power Platform; demonstrate the business value of Power BI; and demonstrate the business value of Microsoft Flow.

Understand the business value of Power Platform (20-25%)

Describe the value of Power Platform applications May include but is not limited to:

• analyze data by using Power BI
• act with Power Apps
• build solutions that use Common Data Service (CDS)
• automate with Microsoft Flow
• interoperate with external systems and data

Describe the value of connecting business solutions May include but is not limited to describing the benefits of connecting:

• Dynamics 365
• Microsoft 365
• Microsoft Azure
• third-party services and apps

Understand Power Platform administration and security May include but is not limited to:
• understand how Power Platform implements security
• understand Power Platform as a service
• describe how to manage apps and users
• describe admin centers • understand how the platform supports compliance Understand the Core Components of Power Platform (25-30%)

Understand Common Data Services May include but is not limited to:
• user experience vs unique job role using Power Apps
• identify entities, fields, and relationships
• describe environments
• describe use cases and limitations of Business process flows
• describe use cases and limitations of business rules
• describe the Common Data Model (CDM)
• identify common standard entities

Understand Connectors May include but is not limited to:
• describe uses for and types of triggers
• describe actions
• describe connectors
• identify use cases for custom connectors

Understand AI Builder May include but is not limited to:
• identify the business value of AI Builder
• describe models • consumption by the Power Platform Demonstrate the business value of Power BI (15-20%)

Understand common components in Power BI May include but is not limited to:
• identify and describe uses for visualization controls
• describe types of filters
• describe Tabs
• custom visuals
• compare and contrast dashboards and workspaces
• compare and contrast Power BI Desktop and Power BI Service

Connect to and consume data May include but is not limited to:
• combine multiple data sources
• clean and transform data
• describe and implement aggregate functions
• identify available types of data sources
• describe and consume shared datasets and template apps

Build a basic dashboard using Power BI May include but is not limited to:
• design a Power BI dashboard
• design data layout and mapping • publish and share reports and dashboards Demonstrate the business value of Power Apps (15-20%)

Understand common components in Power Apps

May include but is not limited to:
• describe canvas apps
• describe model-driven apps
• identify and describe controls
• understand uses for templates
• understand use cases for formulas

Build a basic canvas app May include but is not limited to:
• connect to data
• use controls to design the user experience
• describe the customer journey
• publish and share an app

Understand Power Apps portals May include but is not limited to:
• describe use case for and the business value of portals
• describe how to extend CDS data, use controls, and embed Power BI objects

Demonstrate the business value of Microsoft Flow (15-20%)

Understand the common components of Microsoft Flow May include but is not limited to describing the use cases for Flow components:
• flow types
• templates
• connectors
• triggers
• conditions
• expressions
• approvals

Build a basic flow May include but is not limited to:
• create a business process flow
• implement a Microsoft Flow template
• modify a flow
• run a flow
• export a flow to Logic Apps
 

QUESTION 1
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The company uses a browser-based app named Sales Hub.
You need ensure that users can access data from mobile devices.
Which app should users install?

A. Dynamics 365 Remote Assist
B. Dynamics 365 Finance
C. Dynamics 365 Business Central
D. Dynamics 365 for Phones

Answer: D

Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Use the Dynamics 365 for phones and Dynamics 365 for tablets apps for your sales, customer service, field
service, and other tasks when you’re on the go. With one download from your app store, you’ll automatically
have access to all the apps you need for your role. You will see apps with the new Unified Interface on your
mobile device.
Reference:

QUESTION 2
You are a customer service manager.
You need to implement a Power Apps portal that allows customers to submit cases.
Which type of data source is used?

A. Dynamics 365 Connector
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. Microsoft Azure Storage
D. Common Data Service

Answer: B
Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
SharePoint can be set up to setup customer feedback.
Note: The PowerApp uses Finance and Operations connector to grab sales order information and SharePoint
connector to connect and write the data to SharePoint list.
Reference:

 

QUESTION 3
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?

A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.

Answer: B
Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:


 


QUESTION 4
You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform.
Which three Microsoft products are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft Power Apps
B. Azure Active Directory
C. Microsoft Flow
D. Azure Machine Learning
E. Microsoft Power BI

Answer: A,C,E
Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The Power Platform uses PowerApps, Power BI, and Power Automate (previously named Flow) to customize,
extend, and build all the apps you need for your business and unlock the potential of Office 365 and Dynamics 365.
Reference:


 

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Microsoft 365

Exam MS-700 Managing Microsoft Teams (beta)

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Teams Administrators for their organization. The Microsoft Teams Administrator configures, deploys, and manages Office 365 workloads for Microsoft Teams that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and communication in an enterprise environment.

The Teams Administrator must be able to plan, deploy, and manage Teams chat, apps, channels, meetings, audio conferencing, live events, and calling. The Teams Administrator is also responsible for upgrading from Skype for Business to Teams.

The Teams Administrator collaborates with Telephony engineers to integrate advanced voice features into Microsoft Teams. This role is not responsible for configuring direct routing, configuring call routing, or integrating telephony. The Teams Administrator may work with other workload administrator roles, including security and compliance, messaging, networking, identity, and devices.

Candidates for this exam should be proficient at managing Teams settings by using PowerShell. The Teams Administrator has a fundamental understanding of integration points with apps and services, including but not limited to SharePoint, OneDrive for Business, Exchange, Azure AD, and Office 365 Groups. The Teams Administrator understands how to integrate external apps and services.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Administrator Associate

Related exams: none

Skills measured
Plan and Configure a Microsoft Teams Environment (45-50%)
Manage Chat, Calling, and Meetings (30-35%)
Manage Teams and App Policies (20-25%)

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the global meeting policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From PowerShell, you run the New-AzureADPolicy and Set-AzureADPolicy cmdlets.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
You need to prevent guest users in the tenant from using cameras during Microsoft Teams meetings.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory admin center, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
You need to prevent guest users in the tenant from using cameras during Microsoft Teams meetings.
Solution: From Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

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HP

HPE2-T35 Using HPE OneView Exam

QUESTION 1
Which security feature would you configure to delegate responsibility for a subset of resources to a junior administrator group?

A. No Password for admin account
B. SBAC (Scope Based Access Control)
C. CLI Only access
D. RBAC (Role Based Access Control)

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to add multiple BladeSystem c7000 enclosures to a new instance of HPE OneView.
The enclosures are currently being monitored by a different instance of HPE OneView.
What must the administrator do before beginning importing the enclosure to the new HPE OneView appliance?

A. Add Frame Link Module.
B. Edit the Enclosure license to be HPE OneView Advanced.
C. Add enclosure for management.
D. Delete the enclosure from the current HPE OneView Appliance.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your customer is planning to use HPE OneView to manage the following environment:
– 4 HPE BladeSystem c7000 enclosures with BL460c Gen10 and Virtual Connect modules
– 20 HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 servers
– 1 HPE 3PAR StoreServ array
Which components will need an HPE OneView license? (Choose two)

A. Virtual Connect modules
B. c7000 enclosures
C. 3PAR array
D. BL460c Gen10 server blades
E. DL380 Gen10 servers

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 4
Which HPE OneView feature enables the detection of lost Ethernet connectivity on interconnect uplink ports?

A. M-LAG
B. Smart Link
C. QoS
D. VxLAN

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What mechanism does HPE OneView use to get status data from devices as a fail-safe approach to SNMP traps?

A. Periodic Polling
B. Dashboard charts
C. SNMP trap storms
D. REST API

Answer: C

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