Category Archives: CompTIA Network+ Recertification

CS0-002 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Updated

These CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exams provide you with realistic test questions and interactive, question-level feedback.

1 = 295 Q&A and 7 full-length practice exams of 75 unique questions, We have carefully hand-crafted each question to put you to the test and prepare you to pass the exam with confidence.

All questions are based on the Exam Objectives for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) exam for all 5 domains of the exam, so you can take and pass the actual CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam with confidence!

Threat and Vulnerability Management (22%)
Software and Systems Security (18%)
Security Operations and Monitoring (25%)
Incident Response (25%)
Compliance and Assessment (13%)

After taking this CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exam course, you won’t be hoping you are ready, you will know you are ready to sit for and pass the exam.

After practicing these tests and scoring an 90% or higher on them, you should be ready to PASS on the first attempt and avoid costly re-schedule fees, saving you time and money.

You will receive your total final score, a breakdown of how you did in each of the five domains, and a detailed explanation for every question in our database, telling you exactly why each option was correct or wrong. This way, you can pinpoint the areas in CySA+ which you need to improve and study further.

This course stays current and up-to-date with the latest release of the CompTIA CySA+ exam (CS0-002), and also provides a 30-day money-back guarantee if you are not satisfied with the quality of this course for any reason!

What you’ll learn
Take and pass the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) certification exam

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
You should have a basic understanding of networks and network security
You should have read a book, watched a video series, or otherwise started studying for the CySA+ exam

Who this course is for:
Students preparing for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam

This Course Included

Threat and Vulnerability Management
Utilize and apply proactive threat intelligence to support organizational security and perform vulnerability management activities

Security Operations and Monitoring
Analyze data as part of continuous security monitoring activities and implement configuration changes to existing controls to improve security

Software and Systems Security
Apply security solutions for infrastructure management and explain software & hardware assurance best practices

Incident Response
Apply the appropriate incident response procedure, analyze potential indicators of compromise, and utilize basic digital forensics techniques

Compliance and Assessment
Apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigation and understand the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls

Jobs that use CompTIA CySA+

Security analyst
-Tier II SOC analyst
-Security monitoring

Threat intelligence analyst
Security engineer

Application security analyst
Incident response or handler

Compliance analyst
Threat hunter

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Question 1:
Which of the following would be used to prevent a firmware downgrade?

A. A. TPM
B. B. HSM
C. C. SED
D. D. Efuse

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-4.2: eFUSE is an Intel-designed mechanism to allow software instructions to blow a transistor in the hardware chip. One use of this is to prevent firmware downgrades, implemented on some game consoles
and smartphones. Each time the firmware is upgraded, the updater blows an eFUSE. When there is a firmware update, the updater checks that the number of blown eFUSEs is not less than the firmware version
number. A self-encrypting drive (SED) uses cryptographic operations performed by the drive controller to encrypt a storage device’s contents. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information. The TPM is implemented either as part of the chipset or as an embedded
function of the CPU. A hardware security module (HSM) is an appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys. An HSM solution may be less susceptible to tampering and insider threats than
software-based storage.

Question 2
After 9 months of C++ programming, the team at Whammiedyne systems has released their new software application. Within just 2 weeks of release, though, the security team discovered multiple
serious vulnerabilities in the application that must be corrected. To retrofit the source code to include the required security controls will take 2 months of labor and will cost $100,000. Which
development framework should Whammiedyne use in the future to prevent this situation from occurring in other projects?

A. A. Agile Model
B. B. DevOps
C. C. Waterfall Model
D. D. DevSecOps

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-3.4: DevSecOps is a combination of software development, security operations, and systems operations and refers to the practice of integrating each discipline with the others. DevSecOps approaches
are generally better postured to prevent problems like this because security is built-in during the development instead of retrofitting the program afterward. The DevOps development model incorporates
IT staff but does not include security personnel. The agile software development model focuses on iterative and incremental development to account for evolving requirements and expectations. The waterfall
software development model cascades the phases of the SDLC so that each phase will start only when all of the tasks identified in the previous phase are complete. A team of developers can make secure software using either the waterfall or agile model. Therefore, they are not the right answers to solve this issue.

Question 3:
Which of the following secure coding best practices ensures a character like < is translated into the &lt string when writing to an HTML page?

A. A. Output encoding
B. B. Error handling
C. C. Session management
D. D. Input validation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the &lt;
string when writing to an HTML page. Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering the malfunction of various downstream components. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID.

Question 4
Which of the following tools is useful for capturing Windows memory data for forensic analysis?

A. A. dd
B. B. Memdump
C. C. Wireshark
D. D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B

Explanation
OBJ-4.4: The Memdump, Volatility framework, DumpIt, and EnCase are examples of Windows memory capture tools for forensic use. The dd tool is used to conduct forensic disk images. Wireshark is used for
packet capture and analysis. Nessus is a commonly used vulnerability scanner.

Question 5
Hilda needs a cost-effective backup solution that would allow for the restoration of data within a 24 hour RPO. The disaster recovery plan requires that backups occur during a specific timeframe each
week, and then the backups should be transported to an off-site facility for storage. What strategy should Hilda choose to BEST meet these requirements?

A. A. Create a daily incremental backup to tape
B. B. Create disk-to-disk snapshots of the server every hour
C. C. Conduct full backups daily to tape
D. D. Configure replication of the data to a set of servers located at a hot site


Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-5.2: Since the RPO must be within 24 hours, daily or hourly backups must be conducted. Since the requirement is for backups to be conducted at a specific time each week, hourly snapshots would not meet this requirement and are not easily transported since they are being conducted as a disk-to-disk backup. Replication to a hot site environment also doesn’t allow for transportation of the data to an off-site facility for storage, and replication would continuously occur throughout the day. Therefore, a daily incremental backup should be conducted since it will require the least amount of time to conduct. The tapes could be easily transported for storage and restored incrementally from tape since the last full backup was conducted.

N10-008 CompTIA Network+ Exam

CompTIA Network+ helps develop a career in IT infrastructure covering troubleshooting, configuring, and managing networks.

CompTIA Network+ validates the technical skills needed to securely establish, maintain and troubleshoot the essential networks that businesses rely on.

Unlike other vendor-specific networking certifications, CompTIA Network+ prepares candidates to support networks on any platform. CompTIA Network+ is the only certification that covers the specific skills that network professionals need. Other certifications are so broad, they don’t cover the hands-on skills and precise knowledge needed in today’s networking environments.

CompTIA Network+ features flexible training options including self-paced learning, live online training, custom training and labs to advance the career development of IT professionals in network administration.

The new CompTIA Network+ N10-008 will be available 9/15. CompTIA Network+ N10-007 (English language version) will retire June 2022.

What Skills Will You Learn?
Artboard-8: Networking Fundamentals
Explain basic networking concepts including network services, physical connections, topologies and architecture, and cloud connectivity.
Artboard-2 :Network Implementations
Explain routing technologies and networking devices; deploy ethernet solutions and configure wireless technologies.
Maintenance : Network Operations

Monitor and optimize networks to ensure business continuity.
Maintenance : Network Security
Explain security concepts and network attacks in order to harden networks against threats.
Troubleshooting :Network Troubleshooting
Troubleshoot common cable, connectivity, and software issues related to networking.

Junior Network Administrator

Datacenter Support Technician: Network Engineer
System Administrator : NOC Technician
Telecommunications Technician : Cable Technician

Exam Codes N10-008
Launch Date September 15, 2021
Exam Description CompTIA Network+ validates the technical skills needed to securely establish, maintain and troubleshoot the essential networks that businesses rely on.
Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA A+ Certification and at least 9 to 12 months of networking experience
Languages English, with Japanese scheduled and others TBD, English, German, Japanese, Spanish, Portuguese
Retirement Generally three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE

Testing Centers Online Testing

CompTIA Network+ N10-008:

What’s in this version
Network architecture appears on the exam for the first time, including more emphasis on software-defined networking, ensuring that candidates understand network integrations and the cutting-edge technologies being used in deployments.
Emerging wireless standards and technologies are covered to allow businesses flexibility and maximal security when deploying networks.
Because constant access to both internal networks and SaaS applications drives productivity, network performance monitoring and high availability are covered as separate objectives.
Network security has been streamlined to focus on the critical aspects of hardening networks against malicious attacks and the secure execution of network deployments to protect against unintended data breaches.

Exam Preparation
CompTIA offers a wealth of certification training that is designed for exam success. Find out more and explore all training options.

Performance-Based Questions
In addition to a traditional multiple-choice questions, some CompTIA certification exams include performance-based questions (PBQs). PBQs test a candidate’s ability to solve problems in a simulated environment. Please be aware that the environment is not a live lab, and therefore, it may have restricted system functionality. PBQs are often an approximation of a virtual environment, such as a firewall, network diagram, terminal window, or operating system.

Tips for completing PBQs on your exam
Manage your time wisely.
If you don’t feel confident about answering a PBQ, move on to the next question. Click the Next button to proceed with the exam. Your work will be saved as you work on the PBQ and when moving to another item.
Many PBQs appear at the beginning of the exam. Use this knowledge to manage the amount of time you spend on each exam item.

CompTIA Network+ 008 Exam Domains
Networking Fundamentals (24%)
Network Implementations (19%)
Network Operations (16%)
Network Security (19%)
Network Troubleshooting (22%)

QUESTION 1
A systems administrator needs to improve WiFi performance in a densely populated office tower and use the latest standard. There is a mix of devices that use 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which of the following should the
systems administrator select to meet this requirement?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be BEST to use to detect a MAC spoofing attack?

A. Internet Control Message Protocol
B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
D. Internet Message Access Protocol

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A technician receives feedback that some users are experiencing high amounts of jitter while using the
wireless network. While troubleshooting the network, the technician uses the ping command with the IP
address of the default gateway and verifies large variations in latency. The technician thinks the issue may be
interference from other networks and non-802.11 devices. Which of the following tools should the technician
use to troubleshoot the issue?

A. NetFlow analyzer
B. Bandwidth analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Spectrum analyzer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Wireless users are reporting intermittent internet connectivity. Connectivity is restored when the users
disconnect and reconnect, utilizing the web authentication process each time. The network administrator can
see the devices connected to the APs at all times. Which of the following steps will MOST likely determine the cause of the issue?

A. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings
B. Check for encryption protocol mismatch on the client’s wireless settings
C. Confirm that a valid passphrase is being used during the web authentication
D. Investigate for a client’s disassociation caused by an evil twin AP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A network administrator walks into a datacenter and notices an unknown person is following closely. The
administrator stops and directs the person to the security desk. Which of the following attacks did the network administrator prevent?

A. Evil twin
B. Tailgating
C. Piggybacking
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

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Pass Your CV0-003 CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam in 7 days

Career growth continues to boom in the infrastructure space as more workers telecommute and businesses move to off-premises cloud solutions. The new CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-003), which will be available in May 2021, reflects these changes with an increased focus on the skills needed to make the cloud more secure and available. Here’s what you need to know about the new CompTIA Cloud+.

How Is the New CompTIA Cloud+ Different?

While still covering the foundational aspects of cloud technology emphasized in CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002), the refreshed offering expands in two important areas – security and high-availability.

The new CompTIA Cloud+ covers in greater depth the skills and abilities needed to secure the cloud, validating that candidates have the hands-on experience needed to secure environments regardless of the vendor solution.

In addition to validating the technical security skills cloud engineers need, the exam continues to highlight the importance of compliance requirements – a key function in today’s ever-changing regulatory world.

The refreshed CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-003) also includes an entire objective dedicated to high-availability – the goal of ensuring around-the-clock access to all your data and software as a service (SaaS) applications. This highlights the move toward cloud-hosted solutions throughout enterprise and small-business.

CompTIA recognizes that in a work-from-home world, it is critical for remote employees to have secure, uninterrupted access to data, applications and the solutions that allow business to succeed. CompTIA Cloud+ validates the skills and abilities that make this possible.

Overall, the CompTIA Cloud+ exam tests candidates in the following areas of cloud computing:
Cloud architecture and design
Securing the cloud
Automation and virtualization
Optimization of cloud environments
Disaster recovery
Multicloud environments

The Importance of Multi-Vendor Cloud Skills
I heard from an IT industry vice president recently that mergers and acquisitions were starting to “take off again.” The effect of this is that if a large enterprise running Amazon Web Services (AWS) acquires two or three smaller organizations running Microsoft Azure and Google Cloud, then cloud engineers would need to understand not just the vendor platform, but the technical underpinnings of the cloud itself so they could work between all the elements of the full cloud stack.

Some enterprises might run multiple infrastructure as a service (IaaS) platforms for years, requiring staff to be able to operate between the major platforms. IT pros who have CompTIA Cloud+ understand the danger of vendor lock-in, and this certification validates they have the skills and knowledge to work across multi-vendor systems.

CompTIA Cloud+ is intended as a mid-career certification, for IT pros with 2 to 3 years of systems administration experience.

Cloud Smart and DoD Proven
CompTIA Cloud+ has been adopted by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to ensure that its personnel and contractors are appropriately trained. In February 2020, CompTIA Cloud+ met the DoD Manual 8570.01 requirements for those who work with sensitive information and need to satisfy specific job requirements.

The DoD approved CompTIA Cloud+ for three vital workforce categories:
Information Assurance Manager Level I (IAM I)
Cybersecurity Service Provider Infrastructure Support (CSSP-IS)
CSSP Analyst (CSSP-A)

In addition to these workforce categories, CompTIA Cloud+ aligns with the U.S. Government Cloud Smart initiative. The cloud is about creating continuously updated, secure and highly available solutions – all of which are key components of the new CompTIA Cloud+ exam and illustrate the need for a security-first mindset that allows for flexible implementations of new technologies.

See What’s on the New CompTIA Cloud+
You can begin preparing for the new CompTIA Cloud+ exam now by downloading the exam objectives for free from our website. They can serve as a roadmap for your studies and get you started on the right foot.

CompTIA Cloud+ is a global certification that validates the skills needed to deploy and automate secure cloud environments that support the high availability of business systems and data.

CompTIA Cloud+ is the only performance-based IT certification that views cloud-based infrastructure services in the context of broader IT systems operations regardless of the platform. Migrating to the cloud presents opportunities to deploy, optimize, and protect mission critical applications and data storage. CompTIA Cloud+ validates the technical skills needed to secure these valuable assets.

The reality of operating multicloud environments poses new challenges. CompTIA Cloud+ is ideal for cloud engineers who need to have expertise across multiple products and systems.

CompTIA Cloud+ is the only cloud focused certification approved for DoD 8570.01-M, offering an infrastructure option for individuals who need to certify in IAM Level I, CSSP Analyst and CSSP Infrastructure Support roles.

CompTIA Cloud+ now features flexible training options including self-paced learning, live online training, custom training and labs to advance the career development of IT professionals in server administration.

Official CompTIA Content has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

Clearly written and structured
Flexible so you can learn at any pace
Focused on your exam success
Bundled with a certification voucher or other learning tools to save you money

CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

QUESTION 1
An organization suffered a critical failure of its primary datacenter and made the decision to switch to the DR
site. After one week of using the DR site, the primary datacenter is now ready to resume operations.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to bring the block storage in the primary datacenter up to date with the DR site?

A. Set up replication.
B. Copy the data across both sites.
C. Restore incremental backups.
D. Restore full backups.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following service models would be used for a database in the cloud?

A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. SaaS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A systems administrator is troubleshooting network throughput issues following a deployment. The network is
currently being overwhelmed by the amount of traffic between the database and the web servers in the
environment. Which of the following should the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A. Set up affinity rules to keep web and database servers on the same hypervisor.
B. Enable jumbo frames on the gateway.
C. Move the web and database servers onto the same VXLAN.
D. Move the servers onto thick-provisioned storage.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator is building a new visualization cluster. The cluster consists of five virtual hosts, which
each have flash and spinning disks. This storage is shared among all the virtual hosts, where a virtual
machine running on one host may store data on another host. This is an example of:

A. a storage area network.
B. a network file system.
C. hyperconverged storage.
D. thick-provisioned disks.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A cloud administrator is designing a multiregion network within an IaaS provider. The business requirements
for configuring the network are as follows:
Use private networking in and between the multisites for data replication.
Use low latency to avoid performance issues.
Which of the following solutions should the network administrator use within the IaaS provider to connect multiregions?

A. Peering
B. Gateways
C. VPN
D. Hub and spoke

Correct Answer: C

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PK0-004 CompTIA Project+ Exam

CompTIA Project+ gives business professionals – inside and outside of IT – the basic concepts to successfully manage small- to medium-sized projects.

Why is it different?

CompTIA Project+ is ideal for professionals who need to manage smaller, less complex projects as part of their other job duties but still have foundational project management skills. Project+ is more versatile than other certifications because it covers essential project management concepts beyond the scope of just one methodology or framework.

About the exam
The CompTIA Project+ examination is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-sized projects. The successful candidate will have the knowledge and skills required to:

Manage the project life cycle
Ensure appropriate communication
Manage resources and stakeholders
Maintain project documentation

Exam Details
Exam Codes PK0-004
Exam Description CompTIA Project+ is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-size projects, inside and outside of IT. The exam certifies the knowledge and skills required to manage the project life cycle, ensure appropriate, communication, manage resources, manage stakeholders, and maintain project documentation.
Number of Questions Maximum of 95 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response), and drag and drops
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 710 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience At least 12 months of cumulative project management experience or equivalent education
Launch Date March 15 2017
Retirement N/A
Languages English, Japanese
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers Online Testing

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PROJECT BASICS

Summarize the properties of project, phases, schedules, roles and responsibilities, and cost controls, as well as identifying the basic aspects of Agile methodology
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
PROJECT CONSTRAINTS

Predict the impact of various constraint variables and influences throughout the project and explain the importance of risk strategies and activities
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
COMMUNICATION & CHANGE MANAGEMENT

Understand appropriate communication methods of influence and use change control processes within the context of a project
NETWORKING
PROJECT TOOLS & DOCUMENTATION

Compare and contrast various project management tools and analyze project and partner-centric documentation

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

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QUESTION 1
A project manager is attempting to establish the proper sequencing and duration of project activities.
Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial?

A. Network diagram
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. WBS
D. Gantt chart

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Ongoing
B. Temporary
C. Start and finish
D. Achieving a goal
E. Consisting of milestones
F. Restricting the budget

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A company has determined it does not have the in-house capability to perform a project and wants to procure third-party services.
Which of the following documents will the company MOST likely release FIRST?

A. RFO
B. RFI
C. RFP
D. RFQ

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was
scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation?
(Choose two.)

A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.
B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.
C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.
D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.
E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
A project manager is creating the WBS.
In which of the following phases is the project?

A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Correct Answer: D

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N10-007 Official CompTIA Study Guide for Network+

Description
When you’re ready to begin learning for your Network+ certification exam, count on more than 20 years of our experience in creating and improving learning materials.

The Network+ Certification ​Study Guide is built around the learner’s needs, to take you on a path of steady learning progress. Get started immediately with a clear learning process and schedule and familiarize yourself with all certification topics. Adjust the schedule to make the guide work for you and acquire the knowledge you need to go into the exam.

All learning content is presented in modules to simplify your learning and adjust the pace of your progress. Spend as much time as you need on each module to soak up new knowledge: Breeze through the topics you may already have mastered and dive into those you don’t know about.

To get the most out of the CompTIA Network+ ​Study Guide and be able to prepare for your exam you Ideally, you should have successfully completed the “CompTIA A+ Support Skills” course, earned the CompTIA A+ certification, and have about 9-12 months of experience of networking support or IT administration. It is not necessary that you pass the A+ exams before completing Network+ certification, but it is recommended.

Regardless of whether you have passed A+, it is recommended that you have the following skills and knowledge before starting this course:

Configure and support PC, laptop, mobile (smartphone / tablet), and print devices.
Know basic network terminology and functions (such as Ethernet, TCP/IP, switches, routers).
Configure and manage users, groups, and shared resources in a simple SOHO network.
Understand the use of basic access control measures, such as authentication, security policy, encryption, and firewalls.
Understand TCP/IP addressing, core protocols and troubleshooting tools.

What’s Included
The CompTIA Network+ ​Study Guide is available as printed version, as eBook as well as a CompTIA Security+ voucher and training bundles.

The printed version comes as 2 separate textbooks – the CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide for the Security+ certification exam N10-007, as well as 1 Classroom Labs book, which will guide you through hands-on exercises and practice, includes exam objectives mapping, exam information, practical labs, answers to the review questions and a comprehensive glossary.

The CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide includes
Integrated training videos by Professor Messer and

Online practice tests

The eBook includes all content of the textbooks in a Skillpipe eBook format.

Consider a CompTIA Network+ voucher and training bundle to combine an exam voucher, training as well as a free exam retake in one package.

Course Overview

Topologies and Infrastructure
Topologies and the OSI Model
Ethernet
Hubs, Bridges, and Switches
Infrastructure and Design

Addressing and Routing
Internet Protocol
IPv4 Addressing
IPv6 Addressing
Routing

Troubleshooting and Management
Transport Protocols
Name Resolution
Troubleshooting
Applications and Services
Management and Monitoring
Cloud and Virtualization

Installation

Network Sites
Installing Cable
Installing Wireless Networks
WAN Technologies
Remote Access

Security
Vulnerabilities and Threats
Security Appliances
Authentication
Incident Response
Change and Configuration Management


QUESTION 1
Keeping an authoritative and timely record of network devices and their settings is a key activity of which of the following?

A. Project management
B. Quality of service
C. Configuration management
D. Bandwidth shaping

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which of the following ports should be allowed through a firewall to allow DNS resolution to occur to an outside DNS server?

A. 20
B. 53
C. 80
D. 3389

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which of the following separates broadcast domains?

A. Port mirroring
B. Router
C. Convergence
D. Switch

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
A small office home office (SOHO) customer is going to be replacing their switch. The customer also wants to add a WAP in a dropped ceiling; however, there are no power outlets above the drop ceiling, but there is a CAT5e network jack. Which of the following technologies should the new switch have to allow this WAP to be placed where the customer requests, without any other major changes to the environment?

A. PoE
B. Layer 3 switching
C. STP
D. VLAN

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which of the following 802.11n features allows for the use of multiple simultaneous frequencies in order to increase usable bandwidth?

A. Channel bonding
B. MIMO
C. Spartial reuse
D. 20MHz channel spacing

Answer: A

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Exam RC0-N06 CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam for Continuing Education

Eligibility Candidates MUST have:
An active Network+ CE certification earned by passing exam N10-005 or earlier.
Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description
The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:

1.0 Network Architecture (17% of total)
2.0 Network Operations (15% of total)
3.0 Network Security (20% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (28% of total)
5.0 Industry standards, practices, and network theory (20% of total)

Number of Questions 45
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 7​20 (on a scale of 100-900)

Only candidates with an active Network+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing Network+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.

INTRODUCTION
The  CompTIA Network

Re certification  Exam is one way for CompTIA certified professionals to keep their Network+ certification active. A CompTIA Network+ certification earned on or after January 1st, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:

Re-take (and pass) the current certification exam (N10-006)
Participate in continuing education activities

Take (and pass) the Network+ recertification exam (RC0-N06)

The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam RC0-N06 bridges the competencies measured by the Network+ N10-005 series and the N10-006 series. The exam (RC0-N06) blueprint includes the objectives new to the N10-006 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on the exam (i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on-the-job -performance).

NOTE: Availability of RC0-N06 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their Network+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current N10-006 series exam.
CompTIA Network+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA Network+ Recertification RC0-N06 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry-level IT technical support professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a
comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA Network+ RC0-N06 exam is based on these objectives
QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, needs to troubleshoot a recently installed NIC. He decides to ping the local loopback address. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 loopback address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.16.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The loopback address is a special IP address that is designated for the software loopback interface of a computer. The loopback interface has no hardware associated with it, and it
is not physically connected to a network. The loopback address causes any messages sent to it to be returned to the sending system. The loopback address allows client software to communicate with server software on the same computer. Users specify the loopback address which willpoint back to the computer’s TCP/IP network configuration.
In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1.
In IPv6, the loopback address is 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, more commonly notated as follows. ::1


QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?

A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations

Answer: D

Explanation:
A reservation is used in DHCP to ensure that a computer always receives the same IP address. To create a reservation, you need to know the hardware MAC address ofthe network interface card that should receive the IP address.
For example, if Server1 has MAC address of 00:A1:FB:12:45:4C and that computer should always get 192.168.0.7 as its IP address, you can map the MAC address of Server1 with the IP address to configure reservation.


QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, has been tasked with assigning two IP addresses to WAN interfaces on connected routers. In order to conserve address space, which of the following subnet masks should Joe use for this subnet?

A. /24
B. /32
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30

Answer: E

Explanation:
An IPv4 addressconsists bits. The first x number of bits in the address is the network address and the remaining bits are used for the host addresses. The subnet mask defines how many bits form the network address and from that, we can calculate how many bits are used for the host addresses.
In this question, the /30 subnet mask dictates that the first 30 bits of the IP address are used for network addressing and the remaining 2 bits are used for host addressing. The formula to calculate the number of hosts in a subnet is 2n – 2. The “n” in the host’s formula represents the number of bits used for host addressing. If we apply the formula (22 – 2), a /30 subnet mask will provide 2 IP addresses.


QUESTION 4 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?

A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem

Answer: C

Explanation:
Before ADSL broadband connections became the standard for Internet connections, computers used analog modems to connect to the Internet. By today’s standards, analog modems are very slow typically offering a maximum bandwidth Kbps.
An analog modem (modulator/demodulator) converts (modulates) a digital signal from a computerto an analog signal to be transmitted over a standard (POTS) phone line. The modem then converts (demodulates) the incoming analog signal to digital data to be used by the computer.
An analog modem uses an RJ-11 connector to connect to a phone line (POTS)in the same way a phone does.


QUESTION 5 – (Topic 1)
A host has been assigned the address 169.254.0.1. This is an example of which of the following address types?

A. APIPA
B. MAC
C. Static
D. Public

Answer: A

Explanation:
APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing and is a feature of Windows operating systems. When a client computer is configured to use automatic addressing (DHCP), APIPA assigns a class B IP address from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 to the client when a DHCP server is unavailable.
When a client computer configured to use DHCP boots up, it first looks for a DHCP server to provide the client with IP address and subnet mask. If the client is unable to contact a DHCP server, it uses APIPA to automatically configure itself with an IP address from a range that has been reserved especially for Microsoft. The client also configures itself with a default class Bsubnet mask .255.0.0. The client will use the self-configured IP address until a DHCP server becomes available.


QUESTION 6 – (Topic 1)
A network engineer needs to set up a topology that will not fail if there is an outage on a single piece of the topology. However, the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions. Which of the following topologies would the engineer implement?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh

Answer: C

Explanation:
Token Ring networks are quite rare today. Token Ring networks use the ring topology. Despite being called a Ring topology, the ring is logical and the physical network structure often forms a ‘star’ topology with all computers on the network connecting to a central multistation access unit (MAU). The MAU implements the logical ring by transmitting signals to each node in turn and waiting for the node to send them back before it transmits to the next node. Therefore, although the cables are physically connected in a star, the data path takes the form of a ring. If any computer or network cable fails in a token ring network, the remainder of the network remains functional. The MAU has the intelligence to isolate the failed segment.
To ensure that the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions, a Token Ring network uses a ‘token’. The token continually passes around the network until a computer needs to send data. The computer then takes the token and transmits the data beforereleasing the token. Only a computer in possession of the token can transmit data onto the network.

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