Category Archives: CompTIA IT Fundamentals

CS0-002 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Updated

These CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exams provide you with realistic test questions and interactive, question-level feedback.

1 = 295 Q&A and 7 full-length practice exams of 75 unique questions, We have carefully hand-crafted each question to put you to the test and prepare you to pass the exam with confidence.

All questions are based on the Exam Objectives for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) exam for all 5 domains of the exam, so you can take and pass the actual CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam with confidence!

Threat and Vulnerability Management (22%)
Software and Systems Security (18%)
Security Operations and Monitoring (25%)
Incident Response (25%)
Compliance and Assessment (13%)

After taking this CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exam course, you won’t be hoping you are ready, you will know you are ready to sit for and pass the exam.

After practicing these tests and scoring an 90% or higher on them, you should be ready to PASS on the first attempt and avoid costly re-schedule fees, saving you time and money.

You will receive your total final score, a breakdown of how you did in each of the five domains, and a detailed explanation for every question in our database, telling you exactly why each option was correct or wrong. This way, you can pinpoint the areas in CySA+ which you need to improve and study further.

This course stays current and up-to-date with the latest release of the CompTIA CySA+ exam (CS0-002), and also provides a 30-day money-back guarantee if you are not satisfied with the quality of this course for any reason!

What you’ll learn
Take and pass the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) certification exam

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
You should have a basic understanding of networks and network security
You should have read a book, watched a video series, or otherwise started studying for the CySA+ exam

Who this course is for:
Students preparing for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam

This Course Included

Threat and Vulnerability Management
Utilize and apply proactive threat intelligence to support organizational security and perform vulnerability management activities

Security Operations and Monitoring
Analyze data as part of continuous security monitoring activities and implement configuration changes to existing controls to improve security

Software and Systems Security
Apply security solutions for infrastructure management and explain software & hardware assurance best practices

Incident Response
Apply the appropriate incident response procedure, analyze potential indicators of compromise, and utilize basic digital forensics techniques

Compliance and Assessment
Apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigation and understand the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls

Jobs that use CompTIA CySA+

Security analyst
-Tier II SOC analyst
-Security monitoring

Threat intelligence analyst
Security engineer

Application security analyst
Incident response or handler

Compliance analyst
Threat hunter

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Question 1:
Which of the following would be used to prevent a firmware downgrade?

A. A. TPM
B. B. HSM
C. C. SED
D. D. Efuse

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-4.2: eFUSE is an Intel-designed mechanism to allow software instructions to blow a transistor in the hardware chip. One use of this is to prevent firmware downgrades, implemented on some game consoles
and smartphones. Each time the firmware is upgraded, the updater blows an eFUSE. When there is a firmware update, the updater checks that the number of blown eFUSEs is not less than the firmware version
number. A self-encrypting drive (SED) uses cryptographic operations performed by the drive controller to encrypt a storage device’s contents. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information. The TPM is implemented either as part of the chipset or as an embedded
function of the CPU. A hardware security module (HSM) is an appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys. An HSM solution may be less susceptible to tampering and insider threats than
software-based storage.

Question 2
After 9 months of C++ programming, the team at Whammiedyne systems has released their new software application. Within just 2 weeks of release, though, the security team discovered multiple
serious vulnerabilities in the application that must be corrected. To retrofit the source code to include the required security controls will take 2 months of labor and will cost $100,000. Which
development framework should Whammiedyne use in the future to prevent this situation from occurring in other projects?

A. A. Agile Model
B. B. DevOps
C. C. Waterfall Model
D. D. DevSecOps

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-3.4: DevSecOps is a combination of software development, security operations, and systems operations and refers to the practice of integrating each discipline with the others. DevSecOps approaches
are generally better postured to prevent problems like this because security is built-in during the development instead of retrofitting the program afterward. The DevOps development model incorporates
IT staff but does not include security personnel. The agile software development model focuses on iterative and incremental development to account for evolving requirements and expectations. The waterfall
software development model cascades the phases of the SDLC so that each phase will start only when all of the tasks identified in the previous phase are complete. A team of developers can make secure software using either the waterfall or agile model. Therefore, they are not the right answers to solve this issue.

Question 3:
Which of the following secure coding best practices ensures a character like < is translated into the &lt string when writing to an HTML page?

A. A. Output encoding
B. B. Error handling
C. C. Session management
D. D. Input validation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the &lt;
string when writing to an HTML page. Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering the malfunction of various downstream components. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID.

Question 4
Which of the following tools is useful for capturing Windows memory data for forensic analysis?

A. A. dd
B. B. Memdump
C. C. Wireshark
D. D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B

Explanation
OBJ-4.4: The Memdump, Volatility framework, DumpIt, and EnCase are examples of Windows memory capture tools for forensic use. The dd tool is used to conduct forensic disk images. Wireshark is used for
packet capture and analysis. Nessus is a commonly used vulnerability scanner.

Question 5
Hilda needs a cost-effective backup solution that would allow for the restoration of data within a 24 hour RPO. The disaster recovery plan requires that backups occur during a specific timeframe each
week, and then the backups should be transported to an off-site facility for storage. What strategy should Hilda choose to BEST meet these requirements?

A. A. Create a daily incremental backup to tape
B. B. Create disk-to-disk snapshots of the server every hour
C. C. Conduct full backups daily to tape
D. D. Configure replication of the data to a set of servers located at a hot site


Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-5.2: Since the RPO must be within 24 hours, daily or hourly backups must be conducted. Since the requirement is for backups to be conducted at a specific time each week, hourly snapshots would not meet this requirement and are not easily transported since they are being conducted as a disk-to-disk backup. Replication to a hot site environment also doesn’t allow for transportation of the data to an off-site facility for storage, and replication would continuously occur throughout the day. Therefore, a daily incremental backup should be conducted since it will require the least amount of time to conduct. The tapes could be easily transported for storage and restored incrementally from tape since the last full backup was conducted.

FC0-U61 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam Updated Version Syllabus

CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Exam Summary:
Exam Name CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
Exam Code FC0-U61
Exam Price $126 (USD)
Duration 60 mins
Number of Questions 75
Passing Score 650 / 900
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Sample Questions
Practice Exam CompTIA FC0-U61 Certification Practice Exam

CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) is an introduction to basic IT knowledge and skills.

Why is it different?
CompTIA ITF+ helps professionals to decide if a career in IT is right for them or to develop a broader understanding of IT.

ITF+ is the only pre-career certification that helps students or career changers determine if they have a competency for information technology and if it is the right career path for them.
ITF+ is the only single certification that covers all areas of IT foundations, creating a broader understanding of IT making it ideal for non-technical professionals.
ITF+ establishes an IT education framework for students in secondary and post-secondary settings.

About the exam
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
Identifying common software applications and their purpose
Using security and web browsing best practices

This exam is intended for candidates who are advanced end users and/or are considering a career in IT. The exam is also a good fit for individuals interested in pursuing professional-level certifications, such as A+.


Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ (FC0-U61) Certification exam. This study guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for items on the FC0-U61 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ exam. The Sample Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual CompTIA ITF+ certification exam.

The CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ certification is mainly targeted to those candidates who want to build their career in Core domain. The CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of CompTIA ITF+.

IT Concepts and Terminology – 17%
Compare and contrast notational systems. 1. Binary
2. Hexadecimal
3. Decimal
4. Data representation

ASCII Unicode

Compare and contrast fundamental data types and their characteristics.
1. Char
2. Strings
3. Numbers
4. Boolean Illustrate the basics of computing and processing.

Integers Floats
1. Input
2. Processing
3. Output
4. Storage

Explain the value of data and information.
1. Data and information as assets
2. Importance of investing in security
3. Relationship of data to creating information
4. Intellectual property
5. Digital products
6. Data-driven business decisions

Data capture and collection
Data correlation
Meaningful reporting

Compare and contrast common units of measure.

1. Storage unit
Bit
Byte
KB
MB
GB
TB
PB

2. Throughput unit
bps
Kbps
Mbps
Gbps
Tbps

3. Processing speed
MHz
GHz

Explain the troubleshooting methodology.

1. Identify the problem
Gather information
Duplicate the problem, if possible
Question users
Identify symptoms
Determine if anything has changed
Approach multiple problems individually

2. Establish a theory of probable cause

Question the obvious
Consider multiple approaches
Divide and conquer

3. Test the theory to determine the cause

Once the theory is confirmed (confirmed root cause), determine the next steps to resolve the problem
If the theory is not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate

4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects
5. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary
6. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
7. Document findings/lessons learned, actions, and outcomes

Infrastructure – 22%


Classify common types of input/output device interfaces. 1. Networking
Wired
Telephone connector (RJ-11)
Ethernet connector (RJ-45)
Wireless
Bluetooth
NFC

2. Peripheral device
USB
FireWire
Thunderbolt
Bluetooth
RF

3. Graphic device
VGA
HDMI
DVI
DisplayPort
Mini DisplayPort

Given a scenario, set up and install common peripheral devices to a laptop/PC.

1. Devices
Printer
Scanner
Keyboard
Mouse
Camera
External hard drive
Speakers
Display

2. Installation types
Plug-and-play vs. driver installation
Other required steps
IP-based peripherals
Web-based configuration steps

Explain the purpose of common internal computing components.

1. Motherboard/system board
2. Firmware/BIOS
3. RAM
4. CPU
5. Storage Hard drive SSD6. GPU
7. Cooling
8. NIC

ARM
Mobile phone
Tablet
32-bit
Laptop
Workstation
Server
64-bit
Laptop
Workstation
Server

Wired vs. wireless
On-board vs. add-on card

Compare and contrast common Internet service types.
1. Fiber optic
2. Cable
3. DSL
4. Wireless

Radio frequency
Satellite
Cellular

Compare and contrast storage types.
1. Volatile vs. non-volatile
2. Local storage types
3. Local network storage types
4. Cloud storage service

RAM
Hard drive
Solid state vs. spinning disk
Optical
Flash drive
NAS
File server

Compare and contrast common computing devices and their purposes.
1. Mobile phones
2. Tablets
3. Laptops
4. Workstations
5. Servers
6. Gaming consoles
7. IoT

Home appliances
Home automation devices
Thermostats
Security systems
Modern cars
IP cameras
Streaming media devices
Medical devices

Explain basic networking concepts.
1. Basics of network communication

Basics of packet transmission
DNS
URL-to-IP translation
LAN vs. WAN

2. Device addresses
IP address
MAC address

3. Basic protocols
https:/S
POP3
IMAP
SMTP

4. Devices
Modem
Router
Switch
Access point
Firewall

Given a scenario, install, configure and secure a basic wireless network.
1. 802.11a/b/g/n/ac

Older vs. newer standards
Speed limitations
Interference and attenuation factors

2. Best practices
Change SSID
Change default password
Encrypted vs. unencrypted
Open – Captive portal
WEP
WPA
WPA2

Applications and Software – 18%

Explain the purpose of operating systems. 1. Interface between applications and hardware
2. Disk management
3. Process management/scheduling
4. Application management
5. Memory management
6. Device management
7. Access control/protection
8. Types of OS

Kill process/end task
Mobile device OS
Workstation OS
Server OS
Embedded OS
Firmware
Hypervisor (Type 1)

Compare and contrast components of an operating system.

1. File systems and features
File systems
NTFS
FAT32
HFS
Ext4

2. Features
Compression
Encryption
Permissions
Journaling
Limitations
Naming rules

3. File management
Folders/directories
File types and extensions
Permissions

4. Services
5. Processes
6. Drivers
7. Utilities

Task scheduling

8. Interfaces

Console/command line
GUI

Explain the purpose and proper use of software. 1. Productivity software

Word processing software
Spreadsheet software
Presentation software
Web browser
Visual diagramming software

2. Collaboration software

Email client
Conferencing software
Instant messaging software
Online workspace
Document sharing

3. Business software

Database software
Project management software
Business-specific applications
Accounting software

Explain methods of application architecture and delivery models. 1. Application delivery methods

Locally installed
Network not required
Application exists locally
Files saved locally
Local network hosted
Network required
Internet access not required
Cloud hosted
Internet access required
Service required
Files saved in the cloud

2. Application architecture models

One tier
Two tier
Three tier
n-tier

Given a scenario, configure and use web browsers. 1. Caching/clearing cache
2. Deactivate client-side scripting
3. Browser add-ons/extensions

Add
Remove
Enable/disable

4. Private browsing
5. Proxy settings
6. Certificates

Valid
Invalid

7. Popup blockers
8. Script blockers
9. Compatible browser for application(s)
Compare and contrast general application concepts and uses. 1. Single-platform software
2. Cross-platform software

Compatibility concerns

3. Licensing

Single use
Group use/site license
Concurrent license
Open source vs. proprietary
Subscription vs. one-time purchase
Product keys and serial numbers

4. Software installation best practices

Reading instructions
Reading agreements
Advanced options

Software Development Concepts – 12%
Compare and contrast programming language categories. 1. Interpreted

Scripting languages
Scripted languages
Markup languages

2. Compiled programming languages
3. Query languages
4. Assembly language
Given a scenario, use programming organizational techniques and interpret logic. 1. Organizational techniques

Pseudocode concepts
Flow-chart concepts
Sequence

2. Logic components

Branching
Looping

Explain the purpose and use of programming concepts. 1. Identifiers

Variables
Constants

2. Containers

Arrays
Vectors

3. Functions
4. Objects

Properties
Attributes
Methods

Database Fundamentals – 11%
Explain database concepts and the purpose of a database. 1. Usage of database

Create
Import/input
Query
Reports

2. Flat file vs. database

Multiple concurrent users
Scalability
Speed
Variety of data

3. Records
4. Storage

Data persistence

Compare and contrast various database structures. 1. Structured vs. semi-structured vs. non-structured

2. Relational databases
Schema
Tables
Rows/records
Fields/columns
Primary key
Foreign key
Constraints

3. Non-relational databases

Key/value databases
Document databases

Summarize methods used to interface with databases. 1. Relational methods

Data manipulation
Select
Insert
Delete
Update
Data definition
Create
Alter
Drop
Permissions

2. Database access methods

Direct/manual access
Programmatic access
User interface/utility access
Query/report builders

3. Export/import

Database dump
Backup

Security – 20%
Summarize confidentiality, integrity and availability concerns. 1. Confidentiality concerns

Snooping
Eavesdropping
Wiretapping
Social engineering
Dumpster diving

2. Integrity concerns

Man-in-the-middle
Replay attack
Impersonation
Unauthorized information alteration

3. Availability concerns

Denial of service
Power outage
Hardware failure
Destruction
Service outage

Explain methods to secure devices and best practices. 1. Securing devices (mobile/workstation)

Antivirus/Anti-malware
Host firewall
Changing default passwords
Enabling passwords
Safe browsing practices
Patching/updates

2. Device use best practices

Software sources
Validating legitimate sources
Researching legitimate sources
OEM websites vs. third-party websites
Removal of unwanted software
Removal of unnecessary software
Removal of malicious software

Summarize behavioral security concepts. 1. Expectations of privacy when using:

The Internet
Social networking sites
Email
File sharing
Instant messaging
Mobile applications
Desktop software
Business software
Corporate network

2. Written policies and procedures
3. Handling of confidential information

Passwords
Personal information
Customer information
Company confidential information

Compare and contrast authentication, authorization, accounting and non-repudiation concepts. 1. Authentication

Single factor
Multifactor
Examples of factors
Password
PIN
One-time password
Software token
Hardware token
Biometrics
Specific location
Security questions
Single sign-on

2. Authorization

Permissions
Least privilege model
Role-based access
User account types
Rule-based access
Mandatory access controls
Discretionary access controls

3. Accounting

Logs
Tracking
Web browser history

4. Non-repudiation

Video
Biometrics
Signature
Receipt

Explain password best practices. 1. Password length
2. Password complexity
3. Password history
4. Password expiration
5. Password reuse across sites
6. Password managers
7. Password reset process
Explain common uses of encryption. 1. Plain text vs. cipher text
2. Data at rest

File level
Disk level
Mobile device

3. Data in transit

Email
HTTPS
VPN
Mobile application

Explain business continuity concepts. 1. Fault tolerance

Replication
Redundancy
Data
Network
Power
Backup considerations
Data
– File backups
– Critical data
– Database
– OS backups
Location
– Stored locally
– Cloud storage
– On-site vs. off-site
Contingency plan

2. Disaster recovery

Data restoration
Prioritization
Restoring access

To ensure success in CompTIA ITF+ certification exam, we recommend authorized training course, practice test and hands-on experience to prepare for CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ (FC0-U61) exam.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?

A. Eavesdropping
B. Impersonating
C. Destructing
D. Altering

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A software developer develops a software program and writes a document with step-by-step instructions on
how to use the software. The developer wants to ensure no other person or company will publish this
document for public use. Which of the following should the developer use to BEST protect the document?

A. Patent
B. Trademark
C. Watermark
D. Copyright

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file?

A. Data querying
B. Data reports
C. Data importing
D. Data persistence

Correct Answer: B

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Pass Your CV0-003 CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam in 7 days

Career growth continues to boom in the infrastructure space as more workers telecommute and businesses move to off-premises cloud solutions. The new CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-003), which will be available in May 2021, reflects these changes with an increased focus on the skills needed to make the cloud more secure and available. Here’s what you need to know about the new CompTIA Cloud+.

How Is the New CompTIA Cloud+ Different?

While still covering the foundational aspects of cloud technology emphasized in CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002), the refreshed offering expands in two important areas – security and high-availability.

The new CompTIA Cloud+ covers in greater depth the skills and abilities needed to secure the cloud, validating that candidates have the hands-on experience needed to secure environments regardless of the vendor solution.

In addition to validating the technical security skills cloud engineers need, the exam continues to highlight the importance of compliance requirements – a key function in today’s ever-changing regulatory world.

The refreshed CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-003) also includes an entire objective dedicated to high-availability – the goal of ensuring around-the-clock access to all your data and software as a service (SaaS) applications. This highlights the move toward cloud-hosted solutions throughout enterprise and small-business.

CompTIA recognizes that in a work-from-home world, it is critical for remote employees to have secure, uninterrupted access to data, applications and the solutions that allow business to succeed. CompTIA Cloud+ validates the skills and abilities that make this possible.

Overall, the CompTIA Cloud+ exam tests candidates in the following areas of cloud computing:
Cloud architecture and design
Securing the cloud
Automation and virtualization
Optimization of cloud environments
Disaster recovery
Multicloud environments

The Importance of Multi-Vendor Cloud Skills
I heard from an IT industry vice president recently that mergers and acquisitions were starting to “take off again.” The effect of this is that if a large enterprise running Amazon Web Services (AWS) acquires two or three smaller organizations running Microsoft Azure and Google Cloud, then cloud engineers would need to understand not just the vendor platform, but the technical underpinnings of the cloud itself so they could work between all the elements of the full cloud stack.

Some enterprises might run multiple infrastructure as a service (IaaS) platforms for years, requiring staff to be able to operate between the major platforms. IT pros who have CompTIA Cloud+ understand the danger of vendor lock-in, and this certification validates they have the skills and knowledge to work across multi-vendor systems.

CompTIA Cloud+ is intended as a mid-career certification, for IT pros with 2 to 3 years of systems administration experience.

Cloud Smart and DoD Proven
CompTIA Cloud+ has been adopted by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to ensure that its personnel and contractors are appropriately trained. In February 2020, CompTIA Cloud+ met the DoD Manual 8570.01 requirements for those who work with sensitive information and need to satisfy specific job requirements.

The DoD approved CompTIA Cloud+ for three vital workforce categories:
Information Assurance Manager Level I (IAM I)
Cybersecurity Service Provider Infrastructure Support (CSSP-IS)
CSSP Analyst (CSSP-A)

In addition to these workforce categories, CompTIA Cloud+ aligns with the U.S. Government Cloud Smart initiative. The cloud is about creating continuously updated, secure and highly available solutions – all of which are key components of the new CompTIA Cloud+ exam and illustrate the need for a security-first mindset that allows for flexible implementations of new technologies.

See What’s on the New CompTIA Cloud+
You can begin preparing for the new CompTIA Cloud+ exam now by downloading the exam objectives for free from our website. They can serve as a roadmap for your studies and get you started on the right foot.

CompTIA Cloud+ is a global certification that validates the skills needed to deploy and automate secure cloud environments that support the high availability of business systems and data.

CompTIA Cloud+ is the only performance-based IT certification that views cloud-based infrastructure services in the context of broader IT systems operations regardless of the platform. Migrating to the cloud presents opportunities to deploy, optimize, and protect mission critical applications and data storage. CompTIA Cloud+ validates the technical skills needed to secure these valuable assets.

The reality of operating multicloud environments poses new challenges. CompTIA Cloud+ is ideal for cloud engineers who need to have expertise across multiple products and systems.

CompTIA Cloud+ is the only cloud focused certification approved for DoD 8570.01-M, offering an infrastructure option for individuals who need to certify in IAM Level I, CSSP Analyst and CSSP Infrastructure Support roles.

CompTIA Cloud+ now features flexible training options including self-paced learning, live online training, custom training and labs to advance the career development of IT professionals in server administration.

Official CompTIA Content has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

Clearly written and structured
Flexible so you can learn at any pace
Focused on your exam success
Bundled with a certification voucher or other learning tools to save you money

CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

QUESTION 1
An organization suffered a critical failure of its primary datacenter and made the decision to switch to the DR
site. After one week of using the DR site, the primary datacenter is now ready to resume operations.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to bring the block storage in the primary datacenter up to date with the DR site?

A. Set up replication.
B. Copy the data across both sites.
C. Restore incremental backups.
D. Restore full backups.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following service models would be used for a database in the cloud?

A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. SaaS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A systems administrator is troubleshooting network throughput issues following a deployment. The network is
currently being overwhelmed by the amount of traffic between the database and the web servers in the
environment. Which of the following should the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A. Set up affinity rules to keep web and database servers on the same hypervisor.
B. Enable jumbo frames on the gateway.
C. Move the web and database servers onto the same VXLAN.
D. Move the servers onto thick-provisioned storage.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator is building a new visualization cluster. The cluster consists of five virtual hosts, which
each have flash and spinning disks. This storage is shared among all the virtual hosts, where a virtual
machine running on one host may store data on another host. This is an example of:

A. a storage area network.
B. a network file system.
C. hyperconverged storage.
D. thick-provisioned disks.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A cloud administrator is designing a multiregion network within an IaaS provider. The business requirements
for configuring the network are as follows:
Use private networking in and between the multisites for data replication.
Use low latency to avoid performance issues.
Which of the following solutions should the network administrator use within the IaaS provider to connect multiregions?

A. Peering
B. Gateways
C. VPN
D. Hub and spoke

Correct Answer: C

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PK0-004 CompTIA Project+ Exam

CompTIA Project+ gives business professionals – inside and outside of IT – the basic concepts to successfully manage small- to medium-sized projects.

Why is it different?

CompTIA Project+ is ideal for professionals who need to manage smaller, less complex projects as part of their other job duties but still have foundational project management skills. Project+ is more versatile than other certifications because it covers essential project management concepts beyond the scope of just one methodology or framework.

About the exam
The CompTIA Project+ examination is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-sized projects. The successful candidate will have the knowledge and skills required to:

Manage the project life cycle
Ensure appropriate communication
Manage resources and stakeholders
Maintain project documentation

Exam Details
Exam Codes PK0-004
Exam Description CompTIA Project+ is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-size projects, inside and outside of IT. The exam certifies the knowledge and skills required to manage the project life cycle, ensure appropriate, communication, manage resources, manage stakeholders, and maintain project documentation.
Number of Questions Maximum of 95 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response), and drag and drops
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 710 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience At least 12 months of cumulative project management experience or equivalent education
Launch Date March 15 2017
Retirement N/A
Languages English, Japanese
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers Online Testing

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PROJECT BASICS

Summarize the properties of project, phases, schedules, roles and responsibilities, and cost controls, as well as identifying the basic aspects of Agile methodology
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
PROJECT CONSTRAINTS

Predict the impact of various constraint variables and influences throughout the project and explain the importance of risk strategies and activities
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
COMMUNICATION & CHANGE MANAGEMENT

Understand appropriate communication methods of influence and use change control processes within the context of a project
NETWORKING
PROJECT TOOLS & DOCUMENTATION

Compare and contrast various project management tools and analyze project and partner-centric documentation

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Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
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QUESTION 1
A project manager is attempting to establish the proper sequencing and duration of project activities.
Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial?

A. Network diagram
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. WBS
D. Gantt chart

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Ongoing
B. Temporary
C. Start and finish
D. Achieving a goal
E. Consisting of milestones
F. Restricting the budget

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A company has determined it does not have the in-house capability to perform a project and wants to procure third-party services.
Which of the following documents will the company MOST likely release FIRST?

A. RFO
B. RFI
C. RFP
D. RFQ

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was
scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation?
(Choose two.)

A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.
B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.
C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.
D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.
E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
A project manager is creating the WBS.
In which of the following phases is the project?

A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Correct Answer: D

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FC0-U61 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ FC0-U61 Certification Study Guide

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Description
CompTIA is proud to offer you high quality study materials that are based more than 20 years of experience in helping learners successfully prepare for certification exams.

The IT Fundamentals+ Certification Study Guide was designed to help you acquire the knowledge and skills to set up and use a computer at home securely and keep it in good working order, as well as provide informal support for PCs and simple computer networks to your colleagues in a small business. It will also assist you in preparation for the CompTIA A+ certification exam.

After reading this text, you will be able to:
Set up a computer workstation running Windows and use basic software applications.
Understand the functions and types of devices used within a computer system.
Apply basic computer maintenance and support principles.
Understand some principles of software and database development.
Configure computers and mobile devices to connect to home networks and to the internet.
Identify security issues affecting the use of computers and networks.

Prerequisites
CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ is aimed at those considering a career in IT and computer-related fields. There are no special prerequisites for you to meet to successfully start this course.

What’s Included
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide is available in print ​or ebook. This fully illustrated book covers all the latest FC0-U61 exam objectives and is packed with informative and accessible content.

The eBook is delivered through the Skillpipe eBook reader.

The CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Study Guide includes:

Review questions designed to test your knowledge of the topics covered in each unit

Glossary
Content mapping of the course topics with the exam objectives

Question: 1
Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?
A. Eavesdropping
B. Impersonating
C. Destructing
D. Altering

Answer: A

Question: 2
A software developer develops a software program and writes a document with step-by-step instructions on how to use the software. The developer wants to ensure no other person or company
will publish this document for public use. Which of the following should the developer use to BEST protect the document?
A. Patent
B. Trademark
C. Watermark
D. Copyright
Answer: D

Question: 3
Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file?
A. Data querying
B. Data reports
C. Data importing
D. Data persistence

Answer: B

Question: 4
A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Check Knowledge Base.
B. Search local logs.
C. Research possible theories.
D. Question: users.

Answer: A

Click here to view complete Q&A of FC0-U61 exam
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