Monthly Archives: January 2020

Tech

Platform App Builder Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder (SU18) Exam

About the Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential
The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is designed for individuals who would like to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in designing, building, and deploying custom applications using the declarative customization capabilities of the Lightning Platform. The candidate can create, manage, and update data models, application security, business logic, and process automation.

Here are some examples of the concepts you should understand to pass the exam:

How to design the data model, user interface, business logic, and security for custom applications

How to customize applications for mobile use

How to design reports and dashboards

How to deploy custom applications

Audience Description: Salesforce Platform App Builder

The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is intended for an individual who has experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform, including practical application of the skills and concepts noted in the exam objectives below.

The Salesforce Platform App Builder generally has 6 months to 1 year of experience building applications on the Lightning Platform and/or on a similar technology platform.

The Salesforce Platform App Builder candidate has the experience, skills, and knowledge outlined below:

Familiarity with the capabilities of the Lightning Platform

Awareness of Salesforce license types and related considerations

Ability to design applications to support business processes and reporting requirements

Familiarity with the social and mobile capabilities of the platform; accustomed to using and optimizing business applications on a mobile device

Familiarity with the Salesforce development environments and the options available to deploy applications and manage changes on the Lightning Platform

Study of the resources listed in this exam guide and the additional required study materials provided by Salesforce

A candidate for this exam is not expected to be able to administer Sales Cloud or Service Cloud, have programmatic development experience (Apex, Visualforce, etc.), design custom interfaces using Visualforce, or design custom Lightning components using Apex or JavaScript.
Purpose of this Exam Guide

This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to successfully complete the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam. This guide provides information about the target audience for the certification exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.
About the Exam

Read on for details about the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam.

Content: 60 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions

Time allotted to complete the exam: 105 minutes

Passing score: 63%

Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law

Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law

Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.

References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.

Prerequisite: None; course attendance highly recommended

Recommended Training and References

As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience, training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.

The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:

Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential

Superbadge: Security Specialist

Superbadge: Process Automation Specialist

Superbadge: App Customization Specialist

To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce customers can register for instructor-led courses here.

Instructor-Led Training recommended for this exam:

Declarative Development for Platform App Builders in Lightning Experience (DEX 403)
Certification Preparation for Platform App Builder (CRT 402)

To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides can also be accessed through Help & Training.

Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform App Builder exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.

Salesforce Fundamentals: 8%
Describe the capabilities of the core CRM objects in the Salesforce schema.
Given a scenario, identify the boundaries of declarative customization and the use cases for programmatic customization.
Identify common scenarios for extending an org using the AppExchange.

Data Modeling and Management: 20%
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate data model.
Describe the capabilities of the various relationship types and the implications of each on record access, user interface, and reporting.
Identify the considerations when changing a field’s type.
Given a set of requirements, identify the considerations and select the appropriate field type.
Describe the capabilities and considerations of the schema builder.
Describe the options and considerations when importing and exporting data.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for external objects.

Security: 10%
Describe the features and capabilities available to restrict and extend object, record, and field access.
Given a set of business requirements, determine the appropriate sharing solution.

Business Logic and Process Automation: 27%
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for record types.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for formula fields.
Describe the capabilities of, use cases for, and implications of roll-up summary fields.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for validation rules.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for approval processes.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for workflow, Flow, and Process Builder.
Given a set of business requirements, recommend a solution to automate business processes.
Describe the ramifications of field updates and the potential for recursion.

Social: 3%
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for social features.

User Interface: 14%
Describe the user interface customization options.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for custom buttons, links, and actions.
Describe the declarative options available for incorporating Lightning Components in an application.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate user interface design.

Reporting: 5%
Describe the features and capabilities available when creating reports, report types, and dashboards.

Mobile: 5%
Describe the declarative customization options available for the Salesforce mobile application user interface.
Given a set of requirements, determine the appropriate global and object-specific actions and action layouts to optimize the Salesforce mobile application user experience.

App Development: 8%
Describe the key milestones and considerations when managing the application lifecycle.
Describe the differences between and considerations when using the various types of sandboxes.
Describe the capabilities of and considerations when using change sets.
Describe the use cases of and considerations when using unmanaged packages.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate deployment plan.

Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification
One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to complete the Platform App Builder certification maintenance modules on Trailhead three times a year.

Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.

Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
Overall Maintenance Requirements
Maintenance Exam Due Dates
Verify Your Certification Status
Certification Expiration Details

QUESTION 1
Universal Containers manages internal projects by department using a custom object called Projects. Only
employees in the project’s respective department should have view access to all of the department’s project
records. If an employee changes job roles and moves to another department, the employee should no longer
have access to the projects within their former department.
Which two options will meet these requirements assuming the organization-wide default for Projects is set to Private? (Choose two.)

A. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that grants access to users by profiles.
B. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that grants access to users by permission sets.
C. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that grants access to users by roles.
D. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that grants access to users by public groups.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Universal Containers has a customer base where many customers have the same or similar company names.
Which functionality should be configured to improve an end user’s search experience? (Choose two.)

A. Update the account search layouts search filter fields.
B. Update the account search layouts accounts tab columns displayed.
C. Update the account search layouts search results columns displayed.
D. Update the account search layouts list view filter settings.

Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 3
An app builder creates an Account validation rule on the Industry field that will throw an error if the length of
the field is longer than 6 characters. Another app builder creates a workflow with a field update that sets the
Industry field to Technology whenever the Billing City field is set to San Francisco.
What will happen the next time a sales person saves an Account with a Billing City of San Francisco?

A. The record will save and the Industry field will change to Technology.
B. The record will not save and no error message will be displayed.
C. The record will not save the validation rule’s error message will be displayed.
D. The record will save but the Industry field will not change to Territory.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is a true statement when deleting a dashboard?

A. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it. It does not delete the custom reports used by the components.
B. Deleting a dashboard does not move the dashboard to the Recycle Bin and therefore the dashboard cannot be recovered.
C. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it as well as the custom reports used by the components.
D. Deleting a dashboard requires a user to first edit the components to remove the underlying reports.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A junction object has two Master-Detail relationships, a primary and a secondary master object.
What happens to a junction object record when both associated master records are deleted?

A. The junction object record is permanently deleted and can’t be restored.
B. The delete operation cannot be performed on both master records.
C. The delete operation is not allowed with Roll-up summary fields defined.
D. The junction object records is deleted and placed in the recycle bin.

Correct Answer: D

Click here to view complete Q&A of Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder exam
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Tech

Salesforce MARKETING-CLOUD-CONSULTANT Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant Exam

ABOUT THE SALESFORCE CERTIFIED MARKETING CLOUD CONSULTANT PROGRAM
The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant program is designed for consultants who have hands-on experience implementing Marketing Cloud Email Studio, Journey Builder, Automation Studio, Content Builder, Contact Builder, and Marketing Cloud Connect in a customer-facing role. The audience has proven experience with the administration and configuration of the Marketing Cloud Email application, as demonstrated through successful completion of the Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Email Specialist exam. This credential is targeted toward the Marketing Cloud Consultant or Partner who has mastered the implementation of Marketing Cloud by demonstrating implementation design best practices, executing deployment of campaigns, and finalizing custom solutions for customers. The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant is able to meet customer business requirements that are maintainable, scalable, and contribute to long-term customer success.

SECTION 1. PURPOSE OF THIS EXAM GUIDE
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to successfully complete the Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant exam. This guide provides information about the target audience for the certification exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.

SECTION 2. AUDIENCE DESCRIPTION: SALESFORCE CERTIFIED MARKETING CLOUD CONSULTANT
The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant has experience using the Marketing Cloud Email application tools in executing both tactical and strategic email campaigns. The consultant knows how to build email marketing campaigns, incorporating different tools such as the content system, segmentation, automation, tracking, and analytics to make data-driven decisions to optimize customer email campaigns. The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant is also able to troubleshoot and solve platform issues.

The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant generally has six months to a year implementation experience and/or at least five complex implementation projects with hands-on experience as a Salesforce Marketing Cloud Solutions Architect or similar expertise implementing the Marketing Cloud Email application and associated tools. The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant possesses facilitation and consultative skills at a technical level.

The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant candidate has the experience, skills, knowledge, and ability to:
 Build personalized dynamic emails (AMPscript).
 Incorporate different tools such as segmentation, automation, tracking, and analytics to make data-driven decisions to optimize email campaigns.
 Troubleshoot and solve basic to complex platform issues.
 Write basic SQL, including join statements.
 Configure Contact Builder.
 Build and activate an entry-level (simple) Journey Builder Interaction.
 Utilize scripting for use in Email personalization (AMPscript, Guide Template Language, Server-Side Javascript).
 Configure account setup and administration (BUs, roles and permissions, profiles, SAP, RMM, Users, subscriber filters, FTP).
 Configure data (lists, data extensions, Contact Builder).
 Manage unsubscribes.
 Define and execute email data interactions (import, data extracts, file transfers).
 Configure an automation via Automation Studio.
 Configure a Triggered Send Definition.
 Understand Web Service offerings.
 Understand Marketing Cloud Connect.
 Invest time in studying the resources listed in this Exam Guide and the additional required study materials provided by Salesforce.

A candidate for this exam is not expected to know Social Studio, Audience Builder, Predictive Intelligence, Pardot, or Mobile.

SECTION 3. ABOUT THE EXAM

The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant exam has the following characteristics:
 Content: 60 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions
 Time allotted to complete the exam: 105 minutes
 Passing score: 68%
 Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
 Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
 References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
 Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
 Prerequisite: Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Email Specialist credential

SECTION 4. RECOMMENDED TRAINING AND REFERENCES
As preparation for this exam, Salesforce recommends a combination of: at least six months to a year implementation experience and/or at least five complex implementation projects with hands-on experience as a Salesforce Marketing Cloud Solutions Architect or similar expertise implementing the Marketing Cloud Email application and associated tools, training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.

To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce customers can register for instructor-led courses here.

Instructor-Led Training highly recommended for this exam:
 Instructor-led course: Marketing Cloud Implementation Workshop (MCI-101)
 Instructor-led course: Journey Builder 101 (JB-101)
 Instructor-led course: Marketing Cloud Connect Essentials (MCC-201)

To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides – search for the topics listed in the Exam Outline section of the exam guide and study the information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides can also be accessed through Help & Training.
Trailhead trails can be accessed here.

SECTION 5. EXAM OUTLINE
The Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on experience with the Marketing Cloud Email application and demonstrate the knowledge and expertise in each of the areas below.

DISCOVERY
 Provided with a set of business requirements, determine what additional information is needed to design the recommended solution.
 Provided with a list of branding and creative strategies, probe for additional information that is needed to recommend an appropriate solution.
 Provided a customer environment and goals, determine the viability of external systems that need to be included in the solution (I.e. POS, CRM, ecommerce, data warehouse, data source inputs).
 Demonstrate how to gather requirements in order to put together the data and segmentation strategy for the customer (I.e. frequency, complexity, volume of sending).
 Given a scenario that includes customer information about subscriber acquisition, management, and attrition, utilize this information to select solution components.
 Given a solution, recommend the appropriate customer skill sets required to utilize the Marketing Cloud application.

CONCEPTUAL DESIGN
 Analyze customer data to determine the appropriate data model (I.e. List model, Data Extensions).
 Given a scenario, determine the appropriate solution for given requirements considering technical expertise of personas (I.e. Automation Studio vs. Journey Builder).
 Given a narrative data flow, select the correct data flow diagram that depicts that data flow.
 Given a customer scenario, identify which User Stories are appropriate to use for accessing Marketing Cloud.
 Given a customer scenario, determine the factors to consider when scaling the solution.
 Articulate how data construct will drive one-to-one messaging and content.
 Explain the purpose of IP Warming and make a recommendation based on customer needs.

MARKETING CLOUD CONNECT
 Understand the prerequisites to consider prior to starting a Marketing Cloud Connect configuration (I.e. Salesforce edition, list of integration users, scope user, administrator credentials).
 Understand how to send an email to a contact, lead, campaign, and report via the Sales / Service Cloud and Marketing Cloud (I.e. sending, triggered, automated).
 Understand how Sales / Service Cloud data in the Marketing Cloud can be segmented.

ACCOUNT CONFIGURATION
 Given a customer scenario, recommend the appropriate Marketing Cloud role based on User Stories.
 Determine which type of customer scenario warrants the creation of a business unit (I.e. publication types, demographic, workflow processes, and organizational structure).
 Given a scenario, troubleshoot issues regarding Reply Mail Management.
 Analyze the impact of applying Sender Authentication Package (SAP) to a business unit (I.e. link wrapping, Landing Pages, image URLs).

REPORTING
 Explain how the information in data views and tracking extracts are accessed.
 Compare and contrast standard reports, data views, and tracking extracts.
 Summarize Send Logs including when/why to use it; how to create and manage.

DATA DESIGN
 Explain the various data objects in the Marketing Cloud (I.e. data extensions, list model, data retention model, publication lists, suppression lists).
 Understand available data types, retention, and template options when building a data extension.
 Understand how data is retrieved within a Relational Data Model (I.e. basic SQL).
 Given a customer scenario, recommend appropriate import method with lists or data extensions.
 Understand the implications of a system being database of record.

AUTOMATION
 Given a customer scenario, select the appropriate workflow that meets the business requirement (I.e. import, segmentation, email send).
 Compare and contrast triggered and scheduled interactions.

EMAIL BUILD
 Understand the required steps to build, test, and deploy an email based on customer requirements.
 Explain the various ways to individualize email content (I.e. AMPscript, personalization strings, Dynamic Content, Guide Template Language).
 Compare and contrast the ways to individualize content, such as: SSJS vs AMPscript, Dynamic Content Wizard vs. AMPscript/LookupRows function.
 Explain various Marketing Cloud Email technologies (I.e. Link Alias tags, Impression regions, Web Analytics Connector).

CONTACT BUILDER
 Explain the role and capabilities within Contact Builder.
 Understand how cardinality impacts data modeling.
 Summarize how to use Data Designer to incorporate data source into Contact Builder.
 Given a customer scenario, know how to build an Attribute Group to be used for a simple interaction.

JOURNEY BUILDER
 Compare and contrast automation tools, such as Journey Builder and Automation Studio.
 Given a customer scenario that includes Journey Builder, evaluate the requirements, activities, and steps.
 Explain the requirements for and the methods by which a contact can enter a Journey.

SECTION 6. SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
The following questions are representative of those on the Salesforce Certified Marketing Cloud Consultant exam. These questions are not designed to test your readiness to successfully complete the certification exam, but should be used to become familiar with the types of questions on the exam. The actual exam questions may be more or less difficult than this set of questions.

1. A customer has a group of inside Sales Cloud users that need to see tracking information at the Contact or Lead level, but do not need to send an email.

Which two recommendations should the consultant advise?
Choose two answers

A. Each Sales Cloud user should have a Connected Marketing Cloud user.
B. View Tracking permissions should be enabled for the Sales Cloud user.
C. Select Marketing Cloud for AppExchange user.
D. Add the users to the ConnectedApp permission set.

2. A customer wants to implement a weekly newsletter campaign for an existing brand:’
• The customer will place a DEManager form on the website to capture data.
• The form will qualify the subscriber for the campaign if subscribers enter a particular value for one of the form items.
• The communication will be sent every Tuesday at 9:00 A.M.
• The send will use the default send classification.

Which three questions are relevant to implement a solution?
Choose three answers

A. Will the creative utilize the View as Web Page link?
B. What are the segmentation rules for the audience?
C. How often will data be sent to Salesforce Marketing Cloud?
D. What is the From Name/Address for the newsletter?
E. Will the creative contain any dynamic or personalize?

3. A customer’s marketing manager will use Social Pages to manage the company’s Facebook page.
Which role should the marketing manager have in the Marketing Cloud?
Choose one answer

A. Security Administrator
B. Channel Manager
C. Content Editor/Publisher
D. Viewer

SECTION 7. ANSWERS TO SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
1. C, D
2. A, B, E
3. C

SECTION 8. MAINTAINING A CERTIFICATION
One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being up to date on new product releases. Our release exams are designed to ensure you have the latest information you need to be a successful Salesforce Certified expert.

Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
· Maintenance Exam Due Dates
· Verify Your Certification Status
· Overall Maintenance Requirements

Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! Once you earn the credential, if you do not complete all maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire, or in some cases, become suspended. For more information, click here.

QUESTION 1
A bank wants to send out a series of emails to new customers that open a checking or savings account. The
emails will be used to educate and inform customers regarding their current account and other bank offerings.
Data for the campaign will be in two data extensions: Customer and New Accounts. The Customer data
extension is currently used for multiple campaigns and is updated at 1:00 a.m. The New Accounts data is
encrypted and will be placed on the FTP at 10:00 p.m.
Which automated workflow meets the customers’ requirements?

A. A scheduled automation that starts at 2:00 a.m. that executes Data Extract Activity, Import Activity, Query Activity, Wait Activity, and Send Email Activity.
B. A triggered automation that executes File Transfer Activity, Import Activity, Query Activity, Wait Activity, and Send Email Activity.
C. A scheduled automation that starts at 2:00 a.m. that executes File Transfer Activity, Import Activity, Query Activity, Wait Activity, and Send Email Activity.
D. A scheduled automation that starts at 12:00 a.m. and executes a File Transfer Activity, Import Activity, Query Activities, Wait Activity, and Send Email Activity.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
ABC Company wants to automate the sending of shipping notices and a customer survey.
– Shipping notices will be sent once a day.
– The shipping file will be placed on the FTP some time after 4:00 p.m.
– The shipping data will be sorted in the Shipping Notice data extension.
– A field in the data extension will contain the shipping date.
– The survey needs to be sent at 9:00 a.m., exactly 10 days after the customer’s order ships.
Which workflow would most effectively enable ABC Company to do this?

A. Automation 1: Triggered Import File -> Filter -> Send Email -> Wait-> Filter -> Send Email
B. Automation 1: Scheduled to run daily at 7:00 PM Import File -> Filter -> Send Email -> Wait -> Filter -> Send Email
C. Automation 1: Scheduled to run daily at 7:00 PM Automation 2: Scheduled to run daily at 9:00 AM Import File -> Filter -> Send Email -> Filter -> Send Email
D. Automation 1: Triggered Automation 2: Scheduled to run daily at 9:00 AM Import File -> Filter -> Send Email -> Filter -> Send Email

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
During discovery, the customer outlines data requirements and the anticipated use of Marketing Cloud with the following criteria:
Customer data will be fully refreshed every night via Import Activity from the customer’s data warehouse.
Contact records will be augmented by relational data tables via Contact Builder.
The customer data file will contain 5M records with 40+ attributes.
One attribute will house HTML code, 1000 characters max, that will be used to populate Account access content areas in emails.
A Customer ID will be used as the unique identifier for each contact.
Which statement differentiates the use of data extensions over lists?

A. Data extensions are necessary for Contact Builder.
B. Data extensions allow for add/update Import Activity.
C. Data extensions can store HTML code as an attribute.
D. Data extensions support Customer ID to be used as Subscriber Key.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A customer wants Sales Cloud users to create and send Marketing Cloud emails.
Which two recommendations should the consultant make? (Choose two.)

A. The consultant should enable deep linking in Marketing Cloud Connect configuration.
B. Each user should have a one-to-one relationship between the Marketing Cloud user and the Sales Cloud user.
C. Each Sales Cloud user should have a System Administrator Profile and a Role at the top of the Role Hierarchy.
D. The consultant should enable the Create Email feature on the user Profile in the Sales Cloud.

Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 5
Why would a contact fail to enter a Journey Builder interaction? (Choose three.)

A. The interaction has an A/B/n split, and the contact does not meet the criteria.
B. The interaction allows re-entry only after exiting, and the contact already exists.
C. The contact falls below the High Water Mark.
D. The contact did not meet the entry criteria.
E. The entry event was not fired via Automation Studio.

Correct Answer: B,C,D

Click here to view complete Q&A of Salesforce MARKETING-CLOUD-CONSULTANT exam
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Certified B2C Commerce Developer Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer (WI20)

ABOUT THE SALESFORCE CERTIFIED B2C COMMERCE DEVELOPER CREDENTIAL
The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer credential is designed for individuals who have experience as full stack developers for Salesforce B2C Commerce Digital. This credential is targeted toward Salesforce customers, partners, and employees who want to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in using the B2C Commerce Digital to develop an eCommerce solution, such as: setting up the development environment, working with the Digital data model, working with site content, using Business Manager to perform site configuration tasks, using scripts to extend site business logic, interacting with external applications, optimizing site performance, and troubleshooting common issues.

SECTION 1. PURPOSE OF THIS EXAM GUIDE
This Exam Guide is designed to help candidates evaluate their readiness to pass the Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam. This guide provides information about the target audience for the certification exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives; all with the intent of helping candidates achieve a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, and self-study to maximize the likelihood of passing the exam.

SECTION 2. AUDIENCE DESCRIPTION: SALESFORCE CERTIFIED B2C COMMERCE DEVELOPER

The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer generally has three to six months of experience in a B2C Commerce Developer role and has the skills and knowledge of the following concepts:
 Has knowledge of how the elements of a B2C Commerce Digital site interact.
 Can create cartridges to add reusable functionality to a site.
 Has knowledge of the elements contained within SiteGenesis.
 Can describe the behavior of pipelines in existing sites or LINK cartridges.
 Can create and troubleshoot JavaScript controllers to add business logic to a site.
 Can create reusable code using ISML templates.
 Can use Digital Script API packages to manipulate site elements.
 Can use the Forms Framework to control the validation, rendering, and storing consumer-entered values.
 Can create and manage jobs using the job scheduler.
 Can use Open Commerce APIs and Web Services.
 Can use appropriate techniques to troubleshoot issues with site code or site configuration as well as optimize site performance.

A candidate for this exam will likely need assistance with:
 Troubleshooting front end tool installation and IDE if the developer encounters issues.
 Using front-end build tools, such as those included with SiteGenesis.
 Replicating code and data using the appropriate instances of the B2C Commerce Digital infrastructure.
 Architecting solution elements.
 Managing Certificates and private keys.
 Establishing firewall rules for integrations.

A candidate for this exam is not expected to know how to do the following:
 Design a site, build complex sites, or create complex integrations.
 Perform administrative tasks (e.g., maintain a Primary Instance Group, use Control Center for administrative tasks, whitelist IP addresses).
 Use cartridges from the B2C Commerce Community Suite.
 Know any particular development lifecycle methodology.

Typical job roles a Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer candidate may include:
 Front End Developer
 Full Stack Developer
 Technical Architect

SECTION 3. ABOUT THE EXAM

The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam has the following characteristics:
 Content: 60 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions
 Time allotted to complete the exam: 105 minutes
 Passing Score: 70%
 Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
 Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
 Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
 References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
 Prerequisite: None

SECTION 4. RECOMMENDED TRAINING AND REFERENCES
As preparation for this exam, Salesforce recommends a combination of: hands-on experience, training course completion, and self-study.
The following are links to self-study resources that are associated with the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide:
Xchange Community*
Commerce Cloud Digital online documentation
Click here* for information on how enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online learning courses.
Courses recommended for this exam:
GEN 001 Getting Started with Demandware
DEV 001 Demandware Platform Architecture Overview
CCD 101 Developing for Digital I
CCD 201 Developing for Digital II

*Please note that you will need an Xchange Community username and password to access the Xchange Community. To obtain access to the Xchange Community, please contact your B2C Commerce Account Manager.

SECTION 5. EXAM OUTLINE
The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on experience with B2C Commerce and should be able to demonstrate knowledge and expertise in each of the areas below.

ENVIRONMENT SETUP
 Given a sandbox instance and Eclipse IDE, install UX Studio and upload code to the sandbox environment.
 Given a sandbox instance and data import files, import files using Business Manager Import/Export modules.
 Given the code for a storefront site, add the correct sequence of cartridge names to the provided cartridge path.
 Given a sandbox instance and UX Studio connection, troubleshoot file synchronization issues between UX Studio and the sandbox environment.

DIGITAL ARCHITECTURE
 Given a Business Manager task, work with the product data model to manage products, their categorization, and associated inventory.
 Given a configuration task, use Business Manager to work with storefront data to complete a storefront order.
 Given a configuration task, use Business Manager to work with Content Assets, Content Slots, and Content Folders.

DATA MANAGEMENT/BUSINESS MANAGER USAGE
 Given a business requirement, modify site search preferences and settings to enable searching for a specified product attribute.
 Given a business requirement, create a new search refinement definition that can be used on the storefront.
 Given existing code and a sandbox instance, enable and access logging category in Business Manager.
 Given business requirements, pass data to a downstream system; extend the storefront to expose a new attribute on an existing system object type.
 Given business requirements, create a custom object type to store a custom data type.
 Given a performance issue and sample code, determine the faulty cache configuration and identify the cause.
 Given a specification and a sandbox instance, configure OCAPI permissions for Data and Shop APIs.

APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
 Given a development task, create ISML templates that use the following ISML functionality: local include, remote include, modules, and components.
 Configure and use the debugger to inspect script and pipeline functions.
 Given a requirement, create a JavaScript controller that leverages a script and renders a template/JSON.
 Given a coding scenario, modify a JavaScript controller to alter the control logic.
 Given a requirement, modify the appearance of a form, add validation and CSRF protection, and use bindings to process fields.
 Given localization requirements, implement and enhance templates, form definitions, static files, properties files, and persistent object attributes to ensure that localized pages are displayed as expected.
 Given a logging task, write code that logs non-sensitive data to custom log files with different log levels.
 Given a requirement and a simple service specification, integrate and deploy using Service framework.
 Given a use case, extend functionality with a hook that is not previously defined in hooks.json.
 Given code that violates documented best practices, identify the issues and modify the code to conform to best practices including performance & scalability.
 Given a business requirement, use OCAPI Shop and Data APIs to enable interoperability with an external system.

SECTION 6. SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
The following questions are representative of those on the Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam. These questions are not designed to test your readiness to successfully complete the certification exam, but should be used to become familiar with the types of questions on the exam. The actual exam questions may be more or less difficult than this set of questions.
1. A business user wants to add a link to a category page in the body of a content asset. The category’s ID is: `mens-jeans`.
Which link function will generate the correct link?

Choose One
A) `$url(‘Search-Show’, ‘cgid’, ‘mens-jeans’)$`
B) `$httpUrl(‘Search-Show’, ‘cid’, ‘mens-jeans’)$`
C) `$include(‘Products-Show’, ‘cgid’, ‘mens-jeans’)$`
D) `$url(‘Products-Show’, ‘cid’, ‘mens-jeans’)$`
2. A Developer has been asked to configure a content slot with featured products.

Which two slot content types can the developer configure to achieve the requirement?
Choose Two
A) Content Asset
B) HTML
C) Product
D) Recommendation

3. Given the resource bundle files below:
The file hello.properties contains:
greeting=Hello!
The file hello_fr.properties contains:
greeting=Bonjour!
Which sample code returns the value from the greeting key
in hello_fr.properties?
Choose One
A) dw.web.Resource.msg(‘greeting_fr’, ‘hello’, null)
B) dw.web.Resource.msg(‘greeting’, ‘hello_fr’, null)
C) dw.web.Resource.msg(‘greeting’, ‘hello’, ‘fr’)
D) dw.web.Resource.msg(‘greeting’, ‘hello’, null)

4. A Developer is tasked with converting the Universal Containers site from using pipelines to using controllers. As a temporary fix, the Developer wants to call the Account-Login pipeline from a new controller and return to the new controller after login. The Account-Login pipeline has a login form.
What should the Developer do to accomplish this?
Choose One
A) Convert the Account-Login pipeline to a controller.
B) Use the Pipeline.execute() method to call the Account-Login pipeline.
C) Use the Pipeline.call() method to call the Account-Login pipeline.
D) Add a URL Redirect to the Account-Login pipeline.

SECTION 7. ANSWERS TO SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
1. A
2. C & D
3. D
4. A

SECTION 8. MAINTAINING A CERTIFICATION
One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being up to date on new product releases. Our release exams are designed to ensure you have the latest information you need to be a successful Salesforce Certified expert.
Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
· Maintenance Exam Due Dates
· Verify Your Certification Status
· Overall Maintenance Requirements
Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! Once you earn the credential, if you do not complete all maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire, or in some cases, become suspended. For more information, click here.

QUESTION 1
A Digital Developer has been given a specification to integrate with a REST API for retrieving weather conditions. The service expects parameters to be form encoded.

Which service type should the Developer register?

A. FTP
B. SOAP
C. https: Form
D. WebDAV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What happens if the log file size limit is reached in custom logging?

A. Logging is suspended for the day.
B. Logging is suspended for two hours.
C. The log file is deleted and recreated from scratch.
D. The log file rolls over and the last used log is overwritten.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://documentation.b2c.commercecloud.salesforce.com/DOC2/index.jsp?topic=%
2Fcom.demandware.dochelp%2FSiteDevelopment%2FUnderstandingLogFiles.html

QUESTION 3
Which line of code creates a content slot that can be included on homepage.isml to display on the home page?
A. <isslot id=”my_banner ” description=”for home page” type=”global” context=”content” contextobject=”${ pdict.ContentSearchResult.content}”/>
B. <isslot id=”my_banner ” description=”for home page” type=”global” context=”homepage”/>
C. <isslot id=”my_banner ” description=”for home page” context=”global”>
D. <isslot id=”my_banner ” description=”for home page” context=”global” contextobject=”${ pdict.CurrentHomePage}”/>

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A Digital Developer selects “Show Orderable Products Only” in the Search > Search Preferences Business Manager module.
Which business goal does this accomplish?

A. Exclude products from search results if Available to Sell (ATS) = 0.
B. Exclude back-ordered products from showing on the website.
C. Block displaying the product detail page if Available to Sell (ATS) = 0.
D. Exclude pre-order products from search results.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Universal Containers created a site export file from staging in the global export directory.
How should the Digital Developer update their sandbox using this staging site export file?

A. Perform a data replication from staging.
B. Use the Site Development > Site Import & Export Business Manager module.
C. Download the site export file and use UX Studio to transfer the data to the sandbox.
D. Use the Site Development > Import & Export Business Manager module.

Correct Answer: B
 

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Tech

VCS-279 Administration of Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2 and NetBackup Appliances 3.1.2 Exam

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams target customers in an administrative role, cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as configuration, product administration, day-to-day monitoring, maintenance, and basic troubleshooting (diagnosis and/or repair).

This program consists of technical exams at a product/version level that validate that the successful candidate has knowledge and skills necessary to configure and maintain NetBackup version 8.1.2 and NetBackup Appliances 3.1.2.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Data Protection.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 80 – 90
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 65%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Recommended Courses:
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2: Administration
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2: Advanced Administration
Veritas NetBackup Appliances 3.1.2: Configuration and Management

Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.
Gain hands-on experience with the product. 6-9 months experience administering NetBackup 8.1.x and NetBackup Appliances 3.1.x is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample exam.

In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2 Release Notes
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2 Compatibility Lists
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2 Administrator’s Guide, Volume I
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2 Installation Guide
Veritas NetBackup 8.1.2 Upgrade Guide
Veritas NetBackup Deduplication Guide
Veritas NetBackup Cloud Administrator’s Guide
Veritas NetBackup Commands Reference Guide
Veritas NetBackup Backup, Archive and Restore Getting Started Guide
Veritas NetBackup Read This First Guide for Secure Communications
Veritas NetBackup Security and Encryption Guide
Veritas NetBackup Status Codes Reference Guide
Veritas NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
Veritas NetBackup Appliance 3.1.2 Administrator’s Guide
Veritas NetBackup Appliance Upgrade Guide
Veritas NetBackup Appliance Security Guide
Veritas Appliance Management Guide
Veritas NetBackup Appliance Capacity Planning and Performance Tuning Guide
Veritas NetBackup Appliance Troubleshooting Guide
NetBackup 8.1.2 Product Documentation
Appliances 3.1.2 Product Documentation
NetBackup Product Page
NetBackup Appliances Product Page
NetBackup 8.1.2 Updates, Patches and News
Appliances 3.1.2 Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities

Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual):
Describe basic NetBackup architecture
Describe the functionality of NetBackup product features, options, transport modes, and advanced file system backup methods (e.g., Bare Metal Restore (BMR), NetBackup Vault, Enterprise Client, SAN Client, Cloud, OpsCenter, Database agents, virtual machine protection, Media Server and client-side Deduplication, OST, NetBackup Accelerator, Storage Lifecycle Policies, AIR, Replication Director, and NetBackup Access Control)
Configure core components of NetBackup including devices, storage units, volumes, and volume pools using the NetBackup Administration Console
Configure storage servers and disk pools including media server and client-side deduplication
Describe the functionality of NetBackup Appliances
Configure backup policy attributes, schedules, clients, and backup selection lists
Run and monitor backups, duplications, replications and restores
Monitor, configure and manage NetBackup Appliances including Appliance Shell Menu (CLISH) and Appliance Web Console
Describe the functionality of the Appliance Management Server (AMS)
Monitor daily activity and availability of the NetBackup environment by analyzing reports and reviewing activity logs
Verify tape drive operation and maintain media rotation and availability
Manage and maintain disk storage devices
Troubleshoot or diagnose basic NetBackup issues
Access and install NetBackup release updates
Access NetBackup documentation and the online Knowledge Base
Configure a backup of the NetBackup catalog
Modify basic NetBackup behavior using host properties (e.g., jobs per client, general attributes, media overwrite)
Configure Storage Lifecycle Policies including AIR
Configure Protection Plans

QUESTION 2
An administrator has a backup for client Linux1 using the LinuxClients policy complete successfully. Even
though the policy Backup Selections are NOT modified, the backup job fails the next day with the following status code:
Error 71: none of the files in the file list exist.
What is a possible reason the job failed?

A. The “Enable granular recovery” option was unset.
B. The client was added to another backup policy.
C. The file systems have been unmounted on the client.
D. The client was temporarily shut down.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the maximum age of the host’s Certificate Revocation List (CRL) before communication with the host is prevented?

A. 48 hours
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 30 days

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Upon arriving at work on a Monday, an administrator sees several replication jobs that have failed with the following error message:
no images were successfully processed
Which two reasons may be the cause for the error code? (Choose two.)

A. The checkpoint restart is disabled for the replication jobs.
B. There are network connectivity issues between the source and target domains.
C. The NetBackup host ID-based certificate was revoked.
D. There is insufficient storage space on the target storage server.
E. There are insufficient tapes in the replication volume pool.

Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 6
NetBackup has frozen some of the tapes added to the robot.
Which log must be enabled to determine why the tapes were frozen?

A. ltid
B. robots
C. bptm
D. vmd

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the definition of a Storage Unit?

A. It is a label that lets the administrator create a storage plan.
B. It is a label that the Media Manager associates with physical storage.
C. It is a label that defines where storage is physically located.
D. It is a label that NetBackup associates with physical storage.

Correct Answer: D

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SAP

C_TADM51702 SAP Certified Technology Associate – System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 EHP2

QUESTION 1
Your customer is configuring a Central User Administration (CUA) in AS ABAP connecting to multiple child
systems. Changes of the attribute “mobile telephone number” in the user master record in one child system
should be transferred to the other relevant child systems.
Which setting for the attribute “mobile telephone number” in parameters for field distribution via transaction
SCUM (Central User Administration) do you use to fulfill this requirement?

A. Global
B. Redistribution
C. Everywhere
D. Local

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You analyze the Oracle database alert log and discover the error message “Unable to extend tablespace”.
What can you do to solve this issue? (Choose three)

A. Set at least one data file of the tablespace to “autoextensible” (AUTOEXTEND ON).
B. Add a new data file.
C. Assign a data file to a different tablespace with more free space.
D. Enlarge a data file of the tablespace with a fixed size.
E. Create a new tablespace.

Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following activities are executed by JControl? (Choose three)

A. In an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) system: Start the ABAP Dispatcher.
B. Start one or more server processes as JLaunch processes.
C. Synchronize binaries.
D. Start the Java Message service.
E. Connect to the Central Service Instance.

Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 4
You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system. You have changed a dynamically switchable profile
parameter in transaction RZ11 (Maintain Profile Parameters). These settings become effective immediately.
You want to make sure that the new settings are still valid after the next restart of your system.
How do you fulfill this requirement?

A. No further steps are necessary in this scenario.
B. Maintain the same profile parameter in transaction RSPFPAR (Display Profile Parameter).
C. Mark check box “Activate in profile” in transaction RZ11.
D. Maintain the same profile parameter in transaction RZ10 (Edit Profiles) and activate the changes.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An Oracle database instance is running in MOUNT mode.
Which tasks can be performed by a database administrator? (Choose two)

A. Perform a media recovery.
B. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
C. Recreate a missing control file.
D. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.

Correct Answer: A,D

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Nokia

4A0-104 Nokia Services Architecture Exam

Written Exams
Nokia written exams are delivered through Nokia’s test delivery partner, Pearson VUE. Exams are offered in a secure and proctored environment with global test sites. Written exams can be attempted in any order. All exams are offered in English only. If candidates fail to pass a written exam, there is no waiting period required before retaking the exam and no limit on how many times an exam can be rewritten. It may take up to five (5) business days for Nokia to receive an exam result from the test center. Once Nokia has received the result for your exam, we will send you an acknowledgment of your result and post the result to your personalized Student Portal page.

The Student Portal lets program participants manage exams online through a single portal. This includes scheduling, rescheduling, and cancelling exams. For more information on scheduling, see the Nokia Learning Services Written Exam Registration Guide.

Practice Exams
Practice exams are available to help you prepare for the written exams. You can find the list of downloadable practice exams at the bottom of this page.

Practical Lab Exams
The Nokia NRS II Lab Exam and SRA Lab Exam are available from select Nokia facilities.

Prerequisites for practical lab exams are defined below. In the event that a candidate fails a practical lab exam, there is a mandatory 3-month waiting period before the exam can be attempted again.

Additional information and pricing for Nokia SRC written and lab exams can be found by clicking on the exam links below.

QUESTION 1
VPWS allows carriers to offer services such as point-to-point frame-relay, ATM, and Ethernet on a single platform without the need for multiple overlay networks.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes a VPLS?

A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service

Answer: C

Section: Volume A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a VPWS service supported on the Nokia 7750 SR?

A. E-pipe
B. F-pipe
C. A-pipe
D. I-pipe
E. C-pipe
F. G-pipe

Answer: F

QUESTION 4
A service can be either local or distributed.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered best practice to configure which of the following parameters as globally significant? (Choose two.)

A. SDP ID
B. Service ID
C. Customer ID
D. SAP ID

Answer: B,C

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HP

HPE0-S58 Implementing HPE Composable Infrastructure Solutions Exam

Exam ID HPE0-S58
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 60%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Korean
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing HPE Composable Infrastructure Solutions, Rev. 19.21

Additional study materials

HPE ASE – Composable Infrastructure Integrator V1 (HPE0-S58) Study Guide

Exam description
This certification validates candidates’ ASE level skills integrating HPE Hybrid IT compute solutions. Successful candidates will be able to demonstrate appropriate expertise with planning and implementing integrations of HPE compute solutions within a customer environment.
Ideal candidate for this exam
The candidate has implementation experience with HPE compute solutions, including the ability to install, configure, optimize, and resolve issues related to integration and operation. The candidate uses their extensive knowledge of HPE terms, tools, technologies, processes, products, and services to perform the related tasks for HPE solutions. The candidate uses analysis of information and decision making skills to implement solutions to meet customers’ server requirements.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:

13%  Understand the mainstream HPE enterprise compute product portfolio
13% Review and Validate designs for Compute Solution implementation

Given the architect’s design, validate the solution is complete and the site is prepared for implementation
Given a scenario, validate the solution design for compatibility with the existing infrastructure
Given a scenario, identify the required components for an implementation plan

38%  Install, Configure, and Set Up, HPE Compute Solutions

Describe installation and start-up procedure for solution components
Describe how the advanced configuration of the solution components is performed.
Describe how to validate proper solution functionality.

18%  Troubleshoot HPE Compute Solutions

Given a scenario, use the appropriate tools to identify and analyze an issue.
Given a scenario with an issue, explain the action plan for resolution.
Given a defined issue and action plan, explain the effects and results of the proposed actions

18% Monitor, Maintain, and Manage Solutions

Given a customer scenario, identify potential impacts of a change
Given a customer’s performance data and solution design, identify the bottleneck
Given a scenario, identify changes in customer compute resource requirements.
Using support matrices, evaluate software and firmware compatibility
Describe methods for modifying configuration of components to meet changing customer requirements

 

QUESTION 1
During an initial setup of a Synergy environment, an integrator needs to enable or disable authorized Service access.
What will be the outcome when the integrator disables this service?

A. Authenticated administrators will be unable to make changes to the system
B. Authorized users will be unable to generate a support dump
C. Authenticated administrators will be unable to access the system
D. Authorized support will be unable to diagnose the system

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c05098314 (62)

QUESTION 2
FILL BLANK
A customer has the following configuration:
Frame 1
Bay 1 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 2
Bay 3 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 40 GB F8 Module
Bay 4 – HPE Synergy 12GB SAS Connection Module
Bay 5
Bay 6 – HPE Synergy 10 Gb Interconnect Link Module
Frame 2
Bay 1 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 2
Bay 3 – HPE Synergy 10Gb Interconnect Link Module
Bay 4 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 5
Bay 6 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8 Module
How many more frames can the customer add to their Synergy composable fabric? (Note: Enter your answer
in the answer field below.)

Answer: See explanation below.
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Frame 1 – Bay 2 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 100Gb F32 Module for Synergy
(867796-B21)
Frame 1 – Bay 5 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb Fibre Channel Module for
Synergy (779227-B21)
Frame 2 – Bay 2 – Brocade 16Gb/24 Power Pack+ Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy
(K2Q86A)
Frame 2 – Bay 5 – HPE Synergy 4820C 10/20/25Gb Converged Network Adapter (876449-B21)

QUESTION 3
In a 3-frame HPE Synergy environment, how should an integrator place the image Streamer modules to allow
for redundancy to all of the management connections?

A. one Image Streamer module in frame 2, and a second Image Streamer Module in frame 3 (2 total)
B. two Image Streamer modules in frame 2, and two Image Streamer modules in frame 3 (4 total)
C. one Image Streamer module in each Synergy frame (3 total)
D. two Image Streamer modules in frame 1 (2 total)

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.karma-group.ru/upload/iblock/2be/synergy_image_streamer.pdf (page 7)

QUESTION 4
What must an integrator do before an existing cluster can be imported to the HPE Composer?

A. The vCenter Server must be integrated with the HPE Composer
B. The cluster must be vSAN enabled
C. The HPE Composer must have at least two management interfaces to connect to the cluster
D. The cluster must be enabled for HPE Composer integration

Answer: A

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Adobe

AD0-E106 Adobe Experience Manager Dev/Ops Engineer Exam

Get instant access to AD0-E106 practice exam questions
– Get ready to pass the AD0-E106 exam right now using our Adobe AD0-E106 exam package, which includes Adobe AD0-E106 dumps plus an Adobe AD0-E106 Exam Simulator and Mobile App.

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QUESTION 1
A DevOps Engineer has cloned an environment, and configurations must be adjusted for the environment to
function correctly. Due to the cloning, the domain and IPs changed during the process.
Specifically for content activation, which two parts of the configurations must be altered? (Choose two.)

A. The user of the flush agents
B. The transport URI of the replication agents
C. The transport URI of the flush agents
D. The transport URI of the dispatcher configuration
E. The user of the static content agent

Correct Answer: C,E

QUESTION 2
An html page is published and is accessible through the dispatcher. A client is trying to access the updated
page but is not getting the updated content.
A rule /type “allow” /glob “*.html” is present in the dispatcher /cache /rules configuration
The https: header “Cache-Control: max-age=3600” is set for all requests with the html extension
The /invalidate section is not set in the dispatcher configuration
A flush agent is configured on the publish instance
A CDN is serving all static content including html files and was flushed manually
Why does the content fail to update on the client side?

A. The file was cached on the client side in the browser cache.
B. There is no /invalidate section present in the dispatcher configuration to invalidate the updated content.
C. The flush occurred before the content was replicated because there are a lot of items in the queue.
D. The content is still cached in the dispatcher after the CDN flush.

Correct Answer: C
 

QUESTION 3
After which maintenance processes can a datastore garbage collection achieve the most regain of disk space?

A. Re-index
B. Compaction
C. Version purge
D. Workflow purge

Correct Answer: B

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Tech

CTFL-2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level 2018 Exam

1. General

1.1. Validity
This document pertains only to the Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus Version 2018.
All ISTQB Foundation Level Version 2018 examinations run after 4 June, 2019 (if running English exams) or 4 December, 2019 (if exams run in a language other than English) shall comply with the structure and rules described in this document, regardless of language and media.

1.2. Purpose
This document contains structure and rules for the setup of examinations related to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus Version 2018.

1.3. Scope
This document covers:
a) the number of questions per examination;
b) the length of the examination;
c) the distribution of questions per topic (chapter); and,
d) the distribution of questions per learning objective.

1.4. References
[QWRR_2017] ISTQB – Question Writing Rules & Recommendations Version 2017
[CTFL_2018] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus Version 2018

1.5. Document Responsibility
General responsibility for this document is under the ISTQB Examination Working Group.

3. Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Rules
3.1. The Certified Tester Foundation Level Examinations
3.1.1. The Certified Tester Foundation Level examinations shall be based on the Certified Tester Foundation Level syllabus [CTFL_2018]. Answers to examination questions may require the use of material from more than one section of the syllabus.
3.1.2. All learning objectives (on cognitive levels K1 to K3) in the syllabus are examinable.
3.1.3 All keywords in the syllabus are examinable for their definition (K1).
3.2. General Foundation Level Exam Structure
3.2.1. Each Certified Tester Foundation Level examination shall comprise a set of multiple-choice questions based on the Learning Objectives for that specific syllabus. The level of coverage and distribution of questions has been based on the Learning Objectives, their K-levels, and their level of importance as evaluated by the ISTQB. Details on the structure for each examination module are provided in section 4 below.
3.2.2. In general, K1 and K2 questions are expected to take no more than 1 minute to read and answer, K3 questions are expected to take 3 minutes. The exam author should keep in mind that this is only a guideline for an average time, and that it is likely that some questions will take longer and others will take less time for examinees to complete.
3.2.3. The exam shall comprise 40 multiple-choice questions. Each correct answer has a value of one point. The maximum possible score for each examination is 40 points.
3.2.4. The time allowed for each examination is exactly 60 minutes. If the candidate’s native language is not the examination language, the candidate is allowed an additional 25% time.
3.2.5. A score of at least 65% (26 points or more) is required to pass:
3.3. Specific Rules
3.3.1. For the rules and recommendations for writing multiple-choice questions see the ISTQB – Question Writing Rules & Recommendations [QWRR_2017].
3.3.2. All questions shall assess at least one Learning Objective from the Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus under examination or test for recall of Glossary terms. Questions may use terms and concepts that exist in K1 level sections as the candidates are expected to Module Number of questions Number of possible points Passing score (65%) Exam Length (in minutes) Exam Length + 25% (in minutes)
3.4. Question Distribution
3.4.1. The exam structure for the Certified Tester Foundation Level examination is provided in the following table. Each of the exams requires mandatory questions targeted to specific Learning Objectives as well as a specified number of questions based on “selectable” Learning Objectives.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes a Test Case?
A. A statement about “what to test” in terms of measurable coverage criteria from analysis of the test basis.
B. A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and postconditions developed based on test conditions.
C. A description of the test objectives to be achieved and the means and the schedule for achieving them.
D. A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result of the system under test.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Testing and Debugging are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are DEBUGGING activities?

a) Designing tests to find failures.
b) Locating the cause of failures.
c) Analysing and fixing the defects.
d) Executing tests to show failures.

A. a and d.
B. a and b.
C. b and c.
D. c and d.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following options describe the chain of events in the correct sequence?

A. Error, fault, failure.
B. Fault, bug, mistake.
C. Mistake, failure, fault.
D. Failure, bug, error.

Correct Answer: A

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Tech

Mulesoft MCD – ASSOC MuleSoft Certified Developer – Integration and API Associate (Mule 3) Exam

Description
MuleSoft Certified Developer – API Design Associate (RAML 1.0)A MuleSoft Certified Developer – API Design Associate should be able to create well-designed, modular API definitions using RAML 1.0 and Anypoint Platform. The MCD – API Design Associate (RAML 1.0) exam validates that an API designer has the required knowledge and skills to:

Translate design requirements into API resources and methods.
Use RAML to define API resources, methods, parameters, and responses.
Model data in APIs using data types.
Minimize repetition in API definitions using resource types and traits.
Modularize APIs using libraries, overlays, and extensions.
Specify API security schemes.
Version APIs.
Document and test APIs and make them discoverable.

A downloadable datasheet for the exam can be found here.

Format Format: Multiple-choice, open book, unproctored online or in a testing center
Length: 47 questions
Duration: 90 minutes
Pass score: 75%
Language: English

The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each attempt.
Cost $125
0.5 Flexible Training Credit
A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform: API Design course

Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.

Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint Platform: API Design course. Candidates should be familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the concepts in actual projects.

Explaining RESTful API Design
Describe the common web API formats including SOAP, RPC, and REST
Describe REST API architecture
List the rules for retaining REST principles in APIs
Describe design-first approach for REST APIs

API:DES Module 1

Translating Functional Requirements for APIs
Identify different categories and actions for a REST API
Convert categories to resources
Select https: methods to support the actions on the categories

API:DES Module 2

Describing API-Led Connectivity and the API Lifecycle
Describe the API development lifecycle
Explain MuleSoft’s API-led connectivity approach
Describe the API design lifecycle with Anypoint Platform

API:DES Module 3

Defining Resources and Methods
Use RAML 1.0 to create API definitions
Define resources and methods in RAML API definitions
Specify URI parameters for necessary resource methods

API:DES Module 4

Specifying Responses
Describe response structure in https: methods
Use status codes in https: responses
Add error handling and caching information to https: responses
Select and specify the types of content returned in https: responses

API:DES Module 5

Documenting and Testing APIs

Add documentation and description nodes to RAML definitions
Use the mocking service to create API endpoints
Use the API Console to test API endpoints

API:DES Module 6

Making APIs Discoverable
Create API Portals for learning about and testing APIs
Customize API Portals with themes
Publish API definitions to the Anypoint Exchange for discovery
Gather feedback from API consumers

API:DES Module 7

Modeling Data
Create datatypes and their properties for resources
Create examples for datatypes
Include datatypes and examples in resource methods
Create scenarios in API Notebook to manipulate data

API:DES Module 8

Reusing Patterns
Create and reference resource types patterns for reusability
Use traits to modularize methods

API:DES Module 9

Modularizing APIs
Use libraries for greater API composability
Use overlays to internationalize resources
Use extensions to promote portability to test APIs in multiple environments

API:DES Module 10

Securing APIs
Define API security requirements
Use security schemes to apply resource and method level policies
Define custom security schemes for APIs
Apply an OAuth2.0 external provider policy to resource methods

API:DES Module 11

Enhancing API Responses using Hypermedia
Describe hypermedia
Simplify API discoverability using hypermedia
Use hypermedia to enhance API responses
Modify API definitions to generate state-specific client responses in resource methods

API:DES Module 12

Versioning APIs
Explain when and when not to version APIs
Describe the methods for versioning APIs
Document changes in new API versions using shared API Portals
Deprecate older versions of APIs

API:DES Module 13
Explain when and when not to version APIs
Describe the methods for versioning APIs
Document changes in new API versions using shared API Portals
Deprecate older versions of APIs
 

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