1Z0-1104-22 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Security 2022 Professional Exam

Earn associated certifications

Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Certified Security Professional

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1104-22
This certification comes under the Cloud Recertification policy

The Oracle Cloud ​Infrastructure Security ​certification is intended for ​professionals who are ​responsible for security in ​their Oracle Cloud ​Infrastructure environments. ​The target candidate should ​have 2+ years of experience ​in designing and implementing ​security solutions. ​Additionally, the ​candidate should have 6 ​months or more of hands-on ​experience in securing ​workloads on OCI. The exam ​validates the following OCI ​Security topics:​

Working knowledge of OCI security services to provide a secure cloud environment
Understanding of OCI Identity and Access Management service and features
Understanding of OCI mechanisms to secure data and database workloads
Understanding of network security in OCI
Understanding of how to secure applications in OCI
Understanding of security operations, including monitoring, logging, and alerting
Familiarity with compliance frameworks
Up-to-date OCI training and hands-on experience are recommended. This certification is available to all candidates.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
Cloud Security Business Drivers and Challenges
Identify the Cloud Security use cases, challenges, and trends (e.g. IDaaS, SIEM, etc)
Manage Identity and Access
Design a scalable authorization model with users, groups, and policies
Implement conditional and advanced policies
Use Compartments to isolate resources
Configure Dynamic Groups, Network Sources, and Tag-Based Access Control
Understand MFA, Identity Federation, and SSO

Implement Infrastructure Security
Secure connectivity of virtual networks (DRG v2, Peering)
Secure connectivity of hybrid networks (Site-to-Site VPN, FastConnect)
Configure Network Security Groups (NSGs) and Security Lists
Describe the use case for VCN Flow Logs
Implement OCI Bastion
Configure Vulnerability Scanning
Configure security for OKE and Oracle Functions

Secure your Apps and Data
Configure and manage Keys in OCI Vault
Configure and manage Secrets in OCI Vault
Describe key capabilities provided by Data Safe
Configure security for Oracle Autonomous Database and DB Systems
Configure security for OCI storage services
Create and configure Web Application Firewall

Improve Cloud Security Posture
Discuss typical use cases for Cloud Guard
Execute configurations on Cloud Guard
Understand and implement Security Zones and Security Advisor

Manage Security Operations
Implement security monitoring and alerting
Design and implement a logging and logging analytics solution
Describe the use case for auditing and review OCI Audit Logs

Design for Security and Compliance
Describe OCI Shared Security Responsibility Model
Describe the use case for Penetration and Vulnerability Testing

 

Examkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1104-22 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1104-22 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Oracle 1Z0-1104-22 Certification, Oracle 1Z0-1104-22 Brain Dumps Training at Certkingdom.com


QUESTION 1
A number of malicious requests for a web application is coming from a set of IP addresses
originating from Antartica. Which of the following statement will help to reduce these types of unauthorized requests ?

A. Delete NAT Gateway from Virtual Cloud Network
B. Use WAF policy using Access Control Rules
C. List specific set of IP addresses then deny rules in Virtual Cloud Network Security Lists
D. Change your home region in which your resources are currently deployed

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Logical isolation for resources is provided by which OCI feature?

A. Tenancy
B. Availability Zone
C. Region
D. Compartments

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
As a security architect, how can you prevent unwanted bots while desirable bots are allowed to enter?

A. Data Guard
B. Vault
C. Compartments
D. Web Application Firewall (WAF)

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
As a solutions architect, you need to assist operations team to write an I AM policy to give users in group-uat1 and group- uat2 access to manage all resources in the compartment Uat. Which is the
CORRECT IAM policy ?

A. Allow any-user to manage all resources in tenancy where target.compartment= Uat
B. Allow any-user to manage all resources in compartment Uat where request.group=/group-uat/*
C. Allow group /group-uat*/ to manage all resources in compartment Uat
D. Allow group group-uat1 group-uat2 to manage all resources in compartment Uat

Answer: D

Explanation:

700-760 Cisco Security Architecture for Account Managers Exam

700-760 SAAM
Security Architecture for Account Managers
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English

Exam overview

This exam is for the required knowledge across the Cisco Security portfolio for a registered partner organization to obtain the Security specialization in the AM role.

Exam topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Threat Landscape and Security Issues
1.1 Identify the role of digitization in cyber security
1.2 Identify cyber security challenges
1.3 Identify causes of fragmented security
1.4 Identify security opportunities and obstacles

15% 2.0 Selling Cisco Security
2.1 Identify how Cisco supports practice development
2.2 Identify areas of the Cisco security portfolio
2.3 Identify Cisco programs for partner support
2.4 Identify Cisco programs for partner profitability

15% 3.0 Customer Conversations
3.1 Identify Cisco portfolio components
3.2 Identify Cisco security solutions
3.3 Identify customer security challenges
3.4 Identify components of Cisco’s best-in-class technology

15% 4.0 IoT Security

4.1 Identify IoT solutions critical to business
4.2 Identify the evolution of and need for IoT security
4.3 Identify how Cisco IoT Security solutions provide layered protection
4.4 Identify components of Cisco’s IoT security

15% 5.0 Cisco Zero Trust
5.1 Identify the value of and drivers for trust-centric security
5.2 Identify the value of zero trust
5.3 Identify zero-trust solutions
5.4 Identify Cisco Zero Trust outcomes

20% 6.0 Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio
6.1 Identify the requirements of modern network environments
6.2 Identify the challenges of next generation networks
6.3 Identify Cisco solutions for next generation network security
6.4 Identify Cisco security solution sets

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Security Architecture for Account Managers
Cisco Partners can access Sales Connect for access to a variety of training content to help them prepare for this exam.

Examkingdom Cisco 700-760 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Cisco 700-760 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Cisco 700-760 Certification, Cisco 700-760 Brain Dumps Training at certkingdom.com


QUESTION 1
Which component of StealthWatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat
response times

A. Network control
B. Investigation
C. Anomaly detection
D. Threat protection

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which three products are Cisco Visibility & Enforcement solutions (Choose three.)

A. Web Security
B. AnyConnect
C. TrustSec
D. Identity Services Engine (ISE)
E. Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW)
F. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS)
G. Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints

Answer: B,C,D


QUESTION 3
Which three products are in Cisco’s Web & Email Security portfolio (Choose three.)

A. Meraki
B. ESA
C. Investigate
D. WSA
E. Umbrella
F. CES

Answer: B,D,F


QUESTION 4
What is used to reduce attack surfaces

A. Access
B. Remediation
C. Segmentation
D. Device trust

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two benefits of flexible purchasing does Cisco provide (Choose two.)

A. Simplify the datacenter
B. Meet immediate needs
C. Roll out more solutions
D. Plan for the future
E. Reduce training needs

Answer: B,D

MKT-101 Salesforce Build and Analyze Customer Journeys using Marketing Cloud Exam

Build and Analyze Customer Journeys using Marketing Cloud ( MKT101 )
Start your journey to becoming a Marketing Cloud Specialist. In this 5-day, expert-led class, you will learn how to build customer journeys within Marketing Cloud. Our team of Marketing Cloud pros will walk you through best practices related to executing, monitoring, and analyzing your journeys, arming you with the tools and know-how to design personalized journeys and engage with your customers in a whole new way.

Job Role Marketer, Business User
Duration Virtual: 50 Min
User Interface Lightning Experience

Overview
Who should take this course?

This class is designed for email digital marketers who manage the email channel for their organization. Whether you are new to Marketing Cloud or looking for tips on how to improve your existing customer journeys, this class is a great place to start. No prior knowledge of Marketing Cloud is needed.

When you complete this course, you will be able to:
Explain compliance concepts to ensure optimal deliverability.
Use tools within Marketing Cloud to uphold deliverability standards.
Utilize Email Design best practices to ensure the best customer experience.
Develop effective, relevant messages using Content Builder.
Design and test different delivery methods and options when sending an email message.
Design and execute customer journeys using automation tools within Marketing Cloud.
Differentiate the use cases for different automation activities in Automation Studio and Journey Builder.
Define fundamental data management and structure terminology.
Use data segmentation tools to create targeted emails.
Apply a simple data model concept to a real-world scenario.
Define subscriber statuses, unsubscribe methods, and preferences.
Analyze marketing campaigns using common KPIs.
Solve a common marketing problem using troubleshooting guidance.
Prioritize testing methods and tools to ensure quality control.
Explain fundamental account and sending administration.
Know where to go for more information, guidance, and support.
Describe capabilities across the platform.

Examkingdom Salesforce MKT-101 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Salesforce MKT-101 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Salesforce MKT-101 Certification, Salesforce MKT-101 Dumps Training at certkingdom.com

Question: 1
Northern Train Outfitters sends email order confirmations to customers who have made online
purchases. These emails must follow the “Transactional” CAN-SPAM classification requirements.
Which feature would a marketer use to classify a send under this CAN-SPAM classification?

A. Send Classification
B. Send Definition
C. Delivery Profile
D. Sender Profile

Answer: A

Question: 2
Which feature would a marketer use to build a Send Classification? (Choose 2)

A. Custom Profile Center
B. Delivery Profile
C. Reply Mail Profile
D. Sender Profile

Answer: B, D

Question: 3
Northern Train Outfitters wants the From Name on the monthly Newsletter to come from a specific
User who is set up in the Marketing Cloud. Which feature would be used to set up this From Name selection?

A. Sender Profile
B. Content information
C. Can-SPAM classification
D. Delivery Profile

Answer: C

Question: 4
NTO wants to improve open rates. The email tracking team would like each of its campaign
to have an engaging firm name, what should the email team setup for each campaign.

A. Delivery profiles
B. Sender profile
C. Profile attributes
D. send flow

Answer: B

Question: 5
Which send process can use Sender Profiles? (Choose 3)

A. Simple Automated Sends
B. Guided Sends
C. User-Initiated Sends
D. Test Sends
E. Triggered Sends

Answer: A, B, E

 

JN0-349 Juniper Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist Exam

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code: JN0-349
Prerequisite Certification: JNCIA-Junos
Delivered by: Pearson VUE
Exam Length: 90 minutes
Exam Type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions: Junos 21.1


Recertification
Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, see Recertification.

Examkingdom Juniper JN0-349 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Juniper JN0-349 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Juniper JN0-349 Certification, Juniper JN0-349 Brain Dumps Training at certkingdom.com

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIS-ENT certification exam.

Exam Objective
Layer 2 Switching or VLANs

Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 switching for the Junos OS
Bridging components
Frame processing

Describe the concepts, benefits, or functionality of VLANs
Ports
Tagging
Native VLANs and voice VLANs
Inter-VLAN routing

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot Layer 2 switching or VLANs
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
Inter-VLAN Routing

Spanning Tree
Describe the concepts, benefits, operation, or functionality of the Spanning Tree Protocol
STP and RSTP concepts
Port roles and states
BPDUs
Convergence and reconvergence

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Spanning Tree
STP
RSTP

Layer 2 Security
Identify the concepts, benefits or operation of various Layer 2 protection or security features
BPDU, loop or root protection
Port security, including MAC limiting, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) or IP source guard
MACsec
Storm control

Identify the concepts, benefits or operation of Layer 2 firewall filters
Filter types
Processing order
Match criteria and actions

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Layer 2 security
Protection
Port security
Storm control
Firewall filter configuration and application

Protocol Independent Routing
Identify the concepts, operation or functionality of various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including RIB groups
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

OSPF
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of OSPF
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR)
OSPF area and router types
Realms
LSA packet types

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

IS-IS
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of IS-IS
Link-state database
IS-IS PDUs
TLVs
Adjacencies and neighbors
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot IS-IS
Levels, interfaces and adjacencies
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

BGP
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of BGP
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
IBGP and EBGP functionality and interaction

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot BGP
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

Tunnels
Identify the concepts, requirements or functionality of IP tunneling
Tunneling applications and considerations
GRE
IP-IP

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot IP tunnels
GRE
IP-IP
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

High Availability
Identify the concepts, benefits, applications or requirements for high availability in a Junos OS environment
Link aggregation groups (LAG)
Redundant trunk groups (RTG)
Virtual Chassis
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Nonstop bridging (NSB)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot high availability components
LAG and RTG
Virtual Chassis
GR, GRES, NSB, and NSR
VRRP
ISSU
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., trace options, show commands, logging)


QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of 802.3ad link aggregation? (Choose two)

A. It increases bandwidth
B. It ensures symmetrical paths
C. It simplifies interface configuration.
D. It creates physical layer redundancy.

Answer: A, D

Aggregating multiple links between physical interfaces creates a single logical point-to-point trunk
link or a LAG. The LAG balances traffic across the member links within an aggregated Ethernet bundle
and effectively increases the uplink bandwidth. Another advantage of link aggregation is increased
availability, because the LAG is composed of multiple member links. If one member link fails, the LAG
continues to carry traffic over the remaining links.
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/us/en/software/junos/interfaces-ethernetswitches/
topics/topic-map/switches-interface-aggregated.html


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about IP-IP tunnels?

A. Intermediate devices must have a route to the destination address of the traffic being tunneled.
B. Intermediate devices must have a route to both the tunnel source address and the tunnel destination address.
C. Intermediate devices must have a route to the tunnel destination address but do not require a route to the tunnel source address.
D. Intermediate devices must have a route to the tunnel source address but do not require a route to the tunnel destination address

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a conference room with an open network port that is used by employees to connect to the
network. You are concerned about rogue switches being connected to this port
Which two features should you enable on your switch to limit access to this port? (Choose two.)

A. DHCP snooping
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. MAC limiting
D. 802.1X

Answer: A, B


QUESTION 4
Which two port security features use the DHCP snooping database for additional port security?
(Choose two.)

A. dynamic ARP inspection
B. MACsec
C. IP Source guard
D. MAC learning

Answer: A, C


 

5V0-23.20 VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist Exam

VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist
VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist exam validates a candidate’s knowledge about how vSphere with Tanzu can be used to orchestrate the delivery of Kubernetes clusters and containerized applications in a vSphere environment as well as their knowledge of deploying and managing VMware vSphere® with Tanzu.

Product: VMware vSphere with Tanzu
Associated Certification: VMware Certified Specialist – vSphere with Tanzu 2022

Exam Overview
Exam : 5V0-23.20 : VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist
Language : English
Number of Questions : 62
Format : Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Duration : 125 Minutes
Passing Score : 300

Passing Score –
VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300.
Your exam may contain unscored questions in addition to the scored questions, this is a standard testing practice. You will not know which questions are unscored, your exam results will reflect your performance on the scored questions only.

Exam Details:
The VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist exam (5V0-23.20) which leads to VMware Certified Specialist – vSphere with Tanzu 2022 badge is a62-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Exam time is 125 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Badge Information:
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate:
The Minimally Qualified Candidate(MQC) has basic knowledge of Kubernetes and containers, at least 12 months of experience with vSphere. The MQC also has experience with NSX-T and network, virtualization and OS experience or education. Candidates should have completed all recommended training courses for this credential and hold a VCP-DCV 2020.
The successful candidate will likely hold additional industry-recognized IT certifications or accreditations.
The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections:
This exam contains the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 Introduction – No testable objectives for this section
Section 2 Introduction to Containers and Kubernetes – No testable objectives for this section

Examkingdom VMware 5V0-23.20 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom VMware 5V0-23.20 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best VMware 5V0-23.20 Certification, VMware 5V0-23.20 Brain Dumps Training at certkingdom.com

Section 3 Introduction to vSphere with Tanzu

Objective 3.1: Identify the purpose and role of a Supervisor Cluster.
Objective 3.2: Identify the characteristics of the Control Plane VMs.
Objective 3.3: Given a scenario about a network, identify the workload, management, and front end.
Objective 3.4: Identify the purposes and differences between workload, management, and front end networks.
Objective 3.5: Identify the purpose and role of a Spherelet.
Objective 3.6: Identify the prerequisites and requirements to enable workload management.
Objective 3.7: Identify the characteristics and uses of kubectl CLI.
Objective 3.8: Identify how to authenticate to vSphere with Tanzu using kubectl.
Objective 3.9: Identify how to navigate namespaces using kubectl.
Objective 3.10: Given a scenario, identify the VMware solution for managing TKC.

Section 4 vSphere with Tanzu Core Services

Objective 4.1: Identify the characteristics of vSphere namespaces.
Objective 4.2: Identify the process to create a namespace.
Objective 4.3: Identify the prerequisites to create a namespace.
Objective 4.4: Given a scenario, identify the resources that can be limited in a namespace.
Objective 4.5: Given a scenario, identify the resources that can be limited for a Kubernetes object within a namespace.
Objective 4.6: Given a scenario, identify the roles that can be applied to user of a vSphere namespace.
Objective 4.7: Identify the process to allocate storage to a namespace.
Objective 4.8: Identify the characteristics of vSphere pods and CRX.
Objective 4.9: Identify the process to create a vSphere pod.
Objective 4.10: Identify the methods to scale out a vSphere pod.
Objective 4.11: Identify the characteristics of Cloud Native Storage.
Objective 4.12: Identify the relationship between a storage policy and storage class.
Objective 4.13: Given a scenario, identify the method that should be used to create a storage policy.
Objective 4.14: Identify how to view how much of the quota is being used in a given vSphere namespace.
Objective 4.15: Identify characteristics of persistent volumes in vSphere.
Objective 4.16: Identify use cases for persistent volumes.
Objective 4.17: Identify the process to manage a persistent volume claim.
Objective 4.18: Identify the method to view all the Persistent Volume claims in a vSphere environment.
Objective 4.19: Identify the characteristics of the NSX container plugin.
Objective 4.20: Identify the relationship between vSphere namespaces and NSX segments.
Objective 4.21: Identify the supervisor network topology when using NSX-T.
Objective 4.22: Identify the characteristics of Kubernetes services.
Objective 4.23: Identify the characteristics of Kubernetes network policies.
Objective 4.24: Identify the characteristics and components of vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere distributed switch.
Objective 4.25: Identify the purpose of external load balancer in vSphere with Tanzu.
Objective 4.26: Identify the characteristics of workload load balancers.
Objective 4.27: Identify the characteristics of workload networks.
Objective 4.28: Identify the relationship between workload networks and vSphere Namespaces.
Objective 4.29: Identify the supervisor network topology when using vSphere Distributed Switch Network Topology.
Objective 4.30: Identify the vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere Distributed Switch Network Requirements.
Objective 4.31: Identify the vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere Distributed Switch Prerequisites
Objective 4.32: Identify the process to enable vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere Distributed Switch
Objective 4.33: Identify the characteristics of Harbor.
Objective 4.34: Identify the use cases for an image registry.
Objective 4.35: Identify the process to enable the Harbor image registry.
Objective 4.36: Identify the integration between Harbor and vSphere with Tanzu.
Objective 4.37: Identify the process to push images to Harbor
Objective 4.38: Identify the process to deploy images from Harbor

Section 5 Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service

Objective 5.1: Identify the characteristics of the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service.
Objective 5.2: Identify the differences and similarities of vSphere pods and Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters
Objective 5.3: Identify the relationship between supervisor clusters and TKC.
Objective 5.4: Identify the process to enable TKC versions.
Objective 5.5: Identify the characteristics of virtual machine class types for TKC.
Objective 5.6: Identify the process to deploy the TKC.
Objective 5.7: Identify the process to authenticate to a TKC.
Objective 5.8: Identify the process to Scale out a TKC.
Objective 5.9: Identify the process to Scale in a TKC.
Objective 5.10: Identify the process to upgrade a TKC.
Objective 5.11: Given a scenario with requirements, identify the kubectl command that should be used.

Section 6 Monitoring and Troubleshooting in vSphere with Tanzu – No testable objectives for this section


Section 7 vSphere with Tanzu Life Cycle
Objective 7.1: Identify the process to upgrade the vSphere with Tanzu supervisor cluster.
Objective 7.2: Identify the process to perform certificate management for vSphere with Tanzu supervisor cluster.

Question: 1
Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

A. R81 Management API
B. Identity Awareness Web Services API
C. Open REST API
D. OPSEC SDK

Answer: C

Question: 2
SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based
algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile
devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A. Management Dashboard
B. Gateway
C. Personal User Storage
D. Behavior Risk Engine

Answer: C

Question: 3
What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

A. SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
B. SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
C. SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
D. API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

Answer: B

Question: 4
What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A. Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware
B. Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers
C. Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.
D. Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Answer: D
 

500-560 Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam

500-560 OCSE
Associated Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes (45 – 55 questions)
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the skills needed by an engineer to understand the necessary information to support the express specialization networking business customer.
This exam covers Switching, Routing, Wireless, Cloud and Security solutions for engagements with smaller business customers.

Exam topics
15% 1.0 Switching Overview and Features
1.1 Understand the market for switching portfolio
1.2 Explain the switching product portfolio and the solutions it enables
1.3 Identify the tools and resources available for switching

15% 2.0 Routing Overview and Features
2.1 Understand the routing overview
2.2 Describe the routing product portfolio
2.3 Explain the routing positioning
2.4 Identify the tools and resources available

25% 3.0 Wireless Overview and Features
3.1 Identify Cisco’s products in the wireless market
3.2 Describe and explain the Cisco wireless product portfolio and positioning
3.3 Describe, explain, and identify Cisco Mobility Express, wireless LAN controller, and access points features
3.4 Define the features and benefits of Cisco DNA Spaces
3.5 Define the features and benefits of Cisco DNA Assurance

35% 4.0 Meraki Overview and Products
4.1 Describe Meraki MX product mix and solutions
4.2 Describe Meraki MS product mix and solutions
4.3 Describe Meraki MR product mix and solutions
4.4 Describe Meraki SM product mix and solutions
4.5 Describe Meraki MV product mix and solutions
4.6 Explain Meraki licensing, support, and warranty
4.7 Identify the Meraki sales cycle

10% 5.0 Security Overview and Features
5.1 Describe the Branch Threat Defense Umbrella
5.2 Explain threat-centric security approach and security architecture

Examkingdom Cisco 500-560 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Cisco 500-560 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Cisco 500-560 Certification, Cisco 500-560 Brain Dumps Training at Certkingdom.com

Question: 1
What is one of the key drivers of growing security threats in the market?

A. comprehensive security solutions
B. security solution fragmentation
C. increased demand for cybersecurity professionals
D. hardware with integrated security solution

Answer: B

Question: 2
What feature of the Catalyst 2960-L allows customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center
B. on-box web interface for configuration
C. flexible deployments with Stackwise-160
D. complete CLI support

Answer: B

Question: 3
What is one typical need of a small branch?

A. multiple network services integrated into a single device
B. comprehensive subscription-based services
C. multiple devices for optimal flexibility
D. ability for users to access the majority of resources at off-site data storage

Answer: A

Question: 4
What is one advantage of Umbrella branch package?

A. prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control
B. prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses
C. deploy the branch package on a Cisco ISR4K router in 4 easy steps
D. no client side configuration required

Answer: B

Question: 5
What is a key feature of the Meraki MV Dashboard?

A. drag and drop camera feeds to create video walls with up to 16 cameras per layout
B. bulk configuration changes and software updates
C. device security and location analytics in a single pane of glass
D. single pane of glass showing root cause analysis for all connected wireless clients

Answer: A
 

1Z0-1071-22 Oracle Cloud Platform Digital Assistant 2022 Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Cloud Digital Assistant 2022
Policy: Cloud Recertification


Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Platform Digital Assistant 2022 Certified Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1071-22
An Oracle Cloud Platform Digital Assistant 2022 Certified Professional has demonstrated the knowledge and skills required to design and deploy digital assistants in Oracle Digital Assistant.

Individuals who earn this certification are able to create intents and entities for classification of user input, design conversation flows, create backend integrations, and tune digital assistant routing behavior.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Oracle Digital Assistant Essentials
Describe primary building blocks and provisioning of Oracle Digital Assistant
Explain architecture of Oracle Digital Assistant

Conversational AI
Describe Training Models
Implement Intent Design
Implement Testing, Platform Versions and Best Practices
Create and use Entities
Create and use Composite Bag

Dialog Flow
Describe Dialog Flow
Navigation using Dialog Flows
Use System Components
Use Visual Components
Perform Apache FreeMarker Operations
Resolve Entities in Dialog Flows

Conversation Design
Describe Plan and Personality in Conversation Design
Escaping the validation loop
Handle Out-of-order messages
Handle errors in Conversation Design

Backend Integration and Channels
Create, Build and Implement a Custom Component and Embedded Container Service
Explain Identity Integration
Explain Channels

Digital Assistant and Skills
Describe Digital Assistant and Smart Dialogs
Implement Digital Assistant Intents and Interactions
Tune Routing Behavior and limit the frequency of Prompts
(New)Digital Assistant and Skills

Examkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1071-22 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1071-22 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Oracle 1Z0-1071-22 Certification, Oracle 1Z0-1071-22 Brain Dumps Training at Certkingdom.com


QUESTION 1
Which variable type is automatically set with values from the chat client, such as locate and time zone offset?

A. System variables
B. Variables that are defined in the context section in the dialog flow
C. User variables
D. System.config variables
E. Profile variables

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
You are advised to implement an 80 split with training and test utterances. This means that 80%
of new utterances harvested from the conversation logs should be used as intent training utterances
and 20% for testing. Why is this a good practice?

A. Adding 100% of user phrases to the intent would overload the model.
B. Batch testing works more efficiently when there is a ratio of one test utterance for every five training utterances.
C. By performing an 80 split, you are randomizing which data is added to the utterances.
D. By keeping 20% for testing, you are able to test the model with data on which it has not been specifically trained.

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What happens if there is a system error and the state does not have an error action?

A. The skill transitions to the state that is defined by the defaultTransitions error action. If there isn’t
one, then it outputs the Unexpected Error Prompt value.
B. The skill transitions to the state that is defined by the next action. If there isn’t one, then it
transition to the defaultTransitions error action.
C. The skill transitions to the state that is defined by the next action.. If there isn’t one, then it
transitions to the next state in the dialog flow.
D. The skill outputs the Unexpected Error Prompt value and then transitions to the state that is
defined by the defaul tTransitions error action. If there isn’t one, then it ends the conversation.

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Error handlers can be defined in various locations with different scopes.
Which three statements are true about error handling?

A. An error handler can be defined as a transition on any dialog flow state in a skill.
B. Thesystem error handler is called in case of an error when no error handling is defined on the current dialog flow state or as a default transition.
C. You can define a system-wide custom error handler at the digital assistant level.
D. Implicit error handling is always performed even if there are other error handlers defined in the flow.
E. Anerrorhandlercanbedefined globally fora skill using thedefaultTransition error transition.

Answer: BCD


QUESTION 5
Which statement is FALSE regarding out-of-order messages?

A. Out-of-order messages are not handled by default. Designers must define out-of-order message handlers at the skill level.
B. Dialog flow navigation continues with the state referenced in the out-of-order-message action.
C. Chatbots don’tcontrol the user’s input and, therefore, cannot prevent users from selecting out-of scope actions.
D. Out-of-order messages occur when a user scroll the conversation history displayed in the messenger client and selects that is no longer in scope for the current conversation.

Answer: D

1Z0-1072-22 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Architect Associate Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This Exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Earn associated certifications

Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Certified Architect Associate

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1072-22
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Architect Associate exam is designed for individuals who possess a strong foundational knowledge of architecting infrastructure using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) services. This certification validates deep understanding of topics such as, Launching bare metal and virtual compute instances, Instantiating a Load Balancer, Architecting best practices for HA and security, Using advanced database features (Data Guard, BYOL, Data encryption, RAC, EXADATA, Identity and Access Management (IAM), Advanced Networking Concepts), and Spinning infrastructure using OCI services.

This certification provides a competitive edge in the industry and is available to all candidates.

Up-to-date OCI training and hands-on experience are recommended.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Compute
Select appropriate compute choices
Configure compute instances
Configure Autoscaling
Describe OCI compute image options
Describe and configure OS Management
Understand Infrastructure Maintenance

Implement and manage Virtual Cloud Networks
Describe public and private subnets
Describe public and private IP addresses and virtual NICs
Configure Virtual Cloud Network Routing and Gateways
Configure Security Lists and Network Security Groups

Implement and manage VCN connectivity
Understand VCN connectivity options
Configure site-to-site VPN
Describe Fast connect
Configure Local and Remote Peering

Configure DNS and Traffic Management
Describe Public and Private DNS zones
Configure Traffic Management

Explain Load Balancing
Describe and configure a layer-7 Load Balancer
Describe and configure a layer-4 Network Load Balancer

Deploy and manage Block Storage
Understand Block Volume performance tiers
Deploy Block and Boot Volumes
Configure Volume Groups, Backups, Clones
Configure cross-region replication

Configure and manage Object Storage
Understand Object Storage tiers
Describe Object Storage Security
Implement Object Storage versioning, life cycle management and retention rules
Configure Multipart uploads
Understand Object Storage replication

Implement and manage File Storage
Configure File Storage
Describe File Storage security
Understand File System Snapshots and Cloning
Understand File System usage and metering

Databases
Introduction to Database Systems and Autonomous Databases
Database Systems and Autonomous Databases Operations and Maintenance
Monitor Databases Services
Understand External Database Service
Setting DB Timezone
Understand Database Migration

Observability and Management
Understand Observability and Management platform
Configure Monitoring and set alarms
Configure Logging

Identity and Access Management
Understand AuthN and AuthZ
Implement compartments
Implement conditional and advanced policies
Configure Dynamic Groups and Tag based access control

Security
Understand security services
Configure Cloud Guard, Security Zone and Security Advisor (change from Data Guard)
Describe and Configure OCI Vault
Describe and Configure Bastion

Examkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1072-22 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1072-22 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Oracle 1Z0-1072-22 Certification, Oracle 1Z0-1072-22 Brain Dumps Training at Certkingdom.com


QUESTION 1
You have an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) load balancer distributing traffic via an evenlyweighted
round robin policy to your back-end web servers. Younotice that one of your web servers is
receiving more traffic than other web servers.
How can you resolve this to make sure traffic is evenly distributed across all back-end webservers?

A. Disable cookie-based session persistence on your backend set.
B. Change keep-alive setting between the load balancer and backend server.
C. Disable SSL configuration associated with your backend set.
D. Create separate listeners for each backend web server.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference:
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Balance/Concepts/balanceoverview.htm


QUESTION 2
Which two are Regional resources in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Ephemeral public IPs
B. Compartments
C. Compute images
D. Dynamic groups
E. Block volume backups

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Reference:
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/General/Concepts/regions.htm


QUESTION 3
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy administrator is not able to delete a user in the tenancy.
What can cause this issue?

A. User has multi-factor authentication (MFA) enabled.
B. User is member of an Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
C. Users can be blocked but not deleted.
D. User needs to be deleted from federation Identity Provider (IdP) before deleting from IAM.

Answer: A


QUESTION 4
You are a system administrator of your company and you are asked to manage updates and patches
across all yourcomputeinstances running Oracle Linuxin Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). Aspartof
your task, you need to apply all the latest kernel security updates to all instances.
Which OCI service will allow you to complete this task?

A. Resource Manager
B. OS Management
C. Storage Gateway
D. Streaming
E. Registry

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference:
https://blogs.oracle.com/cloud-infrastructure/os-management-with-oracle-cloud-infrastructure


QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is true aboutthe Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage
serverside encryption?

A. Encryption of data encryption keys with a master encryption key is optional.
B. Customer-provided encryption keys are always stored in OCI Vault service.
C. Encryption is enabled by default and cannot be turned off.
D. Each object in a bucket is always encrypted with the same data encryption key.

Answer: B
 

1Z0-1085-22 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Foundations Associate Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Certified Foundations Associate
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: Free
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This Exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1085-22
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Foundations certification is for individuals who intend to demonstrate fundamental knowledge of public cloud services provided by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). This certification is for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or procuring cloud solutions, as well as those with a technical background who want to validate their foundational-level knowledge around core OCI services.

This exam does not require any hands-on technical experience and is not a prerequisite for taking any other OCI certifications.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Getting Started with OCI
Describe the key features and components of OCI
Discuss OCI Regions and Availability Domains

Core OCI Services
Describe OCI Compute services
Describe OCI Storage services
Describe OCI Networking services
Describe OCI Observability and Management services
Describe OCI Analytics and AI services
Describe OCI Hybrid offerings
Describe OCI App Dev services
Describe OCI Database services

Security and Compliance
Explain the OCI Security model
Describe OCI Security services
Describe OCI Identity and Access Management services

OCI Pricing, Support and Operations (Governance and Administration)
Explain the OCI Pricing model
Explain the OCI SLA and Support model

Examkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1085-22 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1085-22 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Oracle 1Z0-1085-22 Certification, Oracle 1Z0-1085-22 Brain Dumps Training at Certkingdom.com


QUESTION 1
A company has developed an eCommerce web application In Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.
What should they do to ensure that the application has the highest level of resilience?

A. Deploy the application across multiple Regions and Availability Domains.
B. Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and subnet.
C. Deploy the application across multiple Virtual Cloud Networks.
D. Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and Fault Domains.

Answer: A

Explanation:
For highest level of resilience you can deploy the application between regions and distribute on
availability domain and faultdomains.
Reference:
https://www.oracle.com/cloud/iaas/faq.html


QUESTION 2
You have amission-critical application which requires to be globally available at all times.
Which deployment strategy should you adopt?

A. Use multiple Fault Domains In each Availability Domain in each Region.
B. Use multiple Availability Domains In one Region.
C. Use multiple Fault Domains In one Region.
D. Use multiple Fault Domains in any Availability Domain in multiple Regions.

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure service allows you to run code without provisioning any
underlying infrastructure resources?

A. Compute service
B. Storage Gateway
C. Oracle Container Engine forKubernetes
D. Oracle Functions

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which three methods can you use to create or modify Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) resources?

A. REST APIs
B. OCIdesktop client
C. Secure Shell(SSH)
D. OCI Console
E. Command-line Interface
F. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
G. Serial console connection

Answer: A, D,E


QUESTION 5
Which CANNOT be used with My Oracle Support (MOS)?

A. Add or change a tenancy administrator
B. Request a Service Limit increase
C. Reset the password or unlock the account for the tenancy administrator
D. Troubleshoot your resources in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Free Trial account

Answer: D

1Z0-1033-22 Oracle CPQ 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle CPQ 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1033-22
An Oracle CPQ Cloud Service 2022 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge required to Design and integrate CPQ Cloud with ERP and other backend systems, install and configure CPQ Cloud Managed Packages, and design commerce pricing, rules, and workflows. Individuals who earn this certification are able use the available Developer tools, and Commerce and Documents tools, utilize Integration Platform of CPQ Cloud functionality, use Product and Style and Template tools, and User and Utilities tools.

Take recommended training

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Developer Tools
Use the available Developer Tools on CPQ Cloud.

Commerce and Documents
Use the available Commerce and Documents tools in CPQ Cloud.

Integration
Use the available tools in the Integration Platform of CPQ Cloud.

General Tools
Use the available General tools in CPQ Cloud.

Product Tools
Use the available Product tools in CPQ Cloud.

Style and Templates
Use the available Style and Template tools in CPQ Cloud.

Users
Use the available Users tools in CPQ Cloud.

Utilities
Use the available Utility tools in CPQ Cloud.

Examkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1033-22 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1Z0-1033-22 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best Oracle 1Z0-1033-22 Certification, Oracle 1Z0-1033-22 Brain Dumps Training at Certkingdom.com


QUESTION 1
How should an administrator set up a conditional restriction for access to a Product Family?

A. by providing conditional access criteria in the Restricted Access section of the home page setup
B. by setting up a restricted profile and user group in Commerce and hiding the add, reconfigure, and delete product options
C. by hiding the model Punch-In on the home page by using JavaScript
D. by writing a Constraint rule at the Product Family level

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Identify two options to which transactions can be forwarded using forwarding rules. (Choose two.)

A. any of the users who are part of the Approval group
B. user groups
C. users
D. any email address registered in the CPQ Cloud system

Answer: B,C
References:


QUESTION 3
When doing a part search from home page, you have the Create Quote button to create a new
Transaction.
How do you change the label of this button?

A. Open the Commerce Process admin page, navigate to Process Actions, and change the label of the
“_action_new_transaction” action.
B. Go to the Process Invocation admin page, open the Part Search Results page, select navigation
“Rules” of the action that has the type “Start”, and change the name of the invocation rule which
points to the right commerce process.
C. Go to the Process Invocation admin page, open the Part Search Results page, and change the
name of the action that has the type “Start”.
D. Open the Text Administration admin page, go to “C”, change the entry “Create Quote” and enter
“Translated Text.”

Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Formulas? (Choose two.)

A. Both attributes and library functions can be used as inputs for Formula Management.
B. Only attributes can be used as inputs for Formula Management.
C. Formulas can set both transaction- and line-level attributes.
D. Formulas cannot be run in sequence to perform multi-step calculations.

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 5
What is the correct order of execution of Configuration rules for an attribute that has both
Recommendation and Constraint rules written on it?

A. Recommendation, Constraint, Hiding, Recommended Item
B. Constraint, Hiding, Recommendation, Recommended Item
C. Constraint, Recommendation, Constraint, Hiding, Recommended Item
D. Hiding, Constraint, Recommendation, Recommended Item
E. Recommendation, Recommended Item, Hiding, Constraint

Answer: D