MD-100 Windows 10 Exam Updated May 3, 2022

I offer you the best way to become a Windows desktop administrator. The MD-100 practice tests help you test your knowledge by mastering the methods and technologies for managing Windows 10 in an enterprise environment. This practice test will prepare you for the MD-100 Windows 10 certification exam, one of the exams required to obtain Microsoft 365 Certified certification: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate.

Skills measured
The English language version of this exam was updated on May 3, 2022. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.

Install and configure Windows (20–25%)
Configure and manage connectivity and storage (15–20%)
Maintain Windows (30–35%)
Protect devices and data (25–30%)

Who should take this course:
Anyone interested in taking the Windows 10 MD-100 exam or on the way to becoming a Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
Administrators who deploy, configure, protect, manage and monitor client devices and applications
IT professionals who manage identity, access, policies, updates and applications
Basic IT skills and basic knowledge and experience with the Windows network are required.

What you will learn:
This Practice Tests covers the full range of topics found in the Windows 10 MD-100 Exam, including:
Deploy Windows
Manage devices and data
Configure connectivity
Maintain Windows
Features and benefits when purchasing our Practice Tests:
You only buy once and have lifetime access.
Content updated frequently.
All exam objectives are addressed so that the student knows if he / she is prepared for the exam.
Performance-based practice tests provide the student with a better learning experience.
The timed person prepares the conditions for the “exam” with a graphical score at the end.
You have a 30-day refund if you don’t like our practice tests for any reason.

IMPORTANT:

Unofficial testing practice.
We offer educational materials and practical tests to assist and help students prepare for these exams.

All certification marks used are the property of the respective owners of the marks.

We do not own or claim any ownership in any of the Marks

What you’ll learn
You will test your knowledge in the official topics of the md-100 exam, with hours of pratice tests.
At the end of each practice Tests you will have a graph with your score.
We have prepared the questions so that you feel safe when taking the official exam.
Practice tests with references and explanations help you reach your goal.

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
We recommend that the student has skills in the topics required in the official MD-100 exam.

Who this course is for:
This Practice Tests is recommended for anyone who wishes to pass the MD-100 exam.

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All users have been issued with new computers that run
Windows 10 Enterprise. All users have Microsoft 365 E3 licenses.
A user named Mia Hamm has an Active Directory user account named MHamm and a computer named
Computer1. Mia Hamm reports that Computer1 is not activated.
You need to ensure that Mia Hamm can activate Computer1.
What should you do?

A. Assign a Windows 10 Enterprise license to MHamm, and then activate Computer1.
B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), redeploy Computer1.
C. From System Properties on Computer1, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer1.
D. Instruct Mia Hamm to perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer1, and then activate Computer1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
The company plans to purchase computers preinstalled with Windows 10 Pro for all users.
The company the following requirements:
The new computers must be upgraded to Windows 10 Enterprise automatically.
The new computers must be joined to Azure AD automatically when the user starts the new computers for the first time.
The users must not be required to accept the End User License Agreement (EULA).
You need to deploy the new computers.
What should you do?

A. Make use of the wipe and load refresh deployment method.
B. Perform in-place upgrade on the new computers.
C. Provide provisioning packages for the new computers.
D. Make use of Windows Autopilot.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your company is not connected to the internet. The company purchases several new computers with Windows
10 Pro for its users.
None of the new computers are activated.
You need to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet.
What should you do?

A. Make use of the Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT).
B. Make use of the Key Management Service (KMS).
C. Make use of the Windows Process Activation Service.
D. Run the Get-WmiObject -query cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All users have been issued with computers that run Windows 8.1.
A user named Mia Hamm has a computer named Computer1. You upgrade Computer1 to Windows 10 by
performing a clean installation of Windows 10 without formatting the drives.
You need to migrate the settings for Mia Hamm from Windows 8.1 to Windows 10.
Which two actions should you perform?
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Run scanstate.exe and specify the C:\Users folder
B. Run loadstate.exe and specify the C:\Windows.old folder
C. Run usmultils.exe and specify the C:\Users folder
D. Run scanstate.exe and specify the C:\Windows.old folder
E. Run loadstate.exe and specify the C:\Users folder
F. Run usmultils.exe and specify the C:\Windows.old folder

Answer: D,E

QUESTION 5
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You deploy an application named Application1 to Computer1.
You need to assign credentials to Application1.
You need to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the credentials for Application1 cannot be used by any user to log on to Computer1.
Ensure that the principle of least privilege is maintained.
What should you do?

A. Configure Application1 to sign in as the Local System account and select the Allow service to interact with desktop check box.
B. Create a user account for Application1 and assign that user account the Deny log on locally user right
C. Create a user account for Application1 and assign that user account the Deny log on as a service user right
D. Configure Application1 to sign in as the Local Service account and select the Allow service to interact with desktop check box.

Answer: B

The following table shows the changes that were implemented on May 3, 2022 to the English language version of this exam. Following the comparison table, the previous study guide is included for reference.

Old objective number Subtask changes and new location
1.0 Deploy Windows – Revised title
1.1 Install Windows 10 – Revised title and subtasks; split, added new subtasks
1.2 Perform post-installation configuration – Revised title and subtasks; split, added new subtasks; old 1.2 moved to 1.3
2.0 Manage devices and data – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.0
2.1 Manage users, groups, and devices – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.1
2.2 Configure devices by using local policies – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.2
2.3 Manage Windows security – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.3
3.0 Configure storage & connectivity – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 2.0
3.1 Configure networking – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 2.1
3.2 Configure data access and protection – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 2.2
4.0 Maintain Windows – Moved to 3.0
4.1 Configure system and data recovery – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 3.1
4.2 Manage updates – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 3.2
4.3 Monitor and manage Windows – Revised subtasks and moved to 3.4
4.4 Configure remote connectivity – Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.3

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.

As an administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 enterprise administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
Candidates must be familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and must be proficient and experienced in deploying, configuring, and maintaining Windows 10 and non-Windows devices and technologies.
Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. Related topics may be covered in the exam.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Deploy Windows (15-20%)
Install Windows 10
• perform a clean installation
• perform an in-place upgrade from a previous version of Windows
• use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to deploy Windows 10
• customize a Windows 10 installation using tools from the Windows ADK (Windows System Image Manager, Windows PE, Windows Configuration Designer)
• select the appropriate Windows edition

Perform post-installation configuration
• configure microsoft edge
• configure mobility settings
• customize the Windows desktop
• troubleshoot activation issues
• configure printers and external devices
• configure Windows 10 by using provisioning packages
• configure Microsoft Store settings
• configure Windows 10 built-in application settings
• configure and manage services

Manage devices and data (25-30%)

Manage users, groups, and devices
• manage local groups
• manage local users
• manage users, groups, and devices in Active Directory Domain Services
• manage users, groups, and devices in Azure Active Directory
• configure sign-in options
• add additional work or school accounts to Windows 10
• configure and manage Bluetooth settings for devices

Configure devices by using local policies

• implement local policy
• troubleshoot group policies on devices
• configure Windows 10 settings by using group policy

Manage Windows security
• configure user account control (UAC)
• configure Microsoft Defender Firewall
• implement device encryption
• configure Microsoft Defender Antivirus
• manage device security using core isolation, secure boot, and TPM

Configure storage and connectivity (15-20%)
Configure networking
• configure client IP settings
• configure mobile networking
• troubleshoot networking

Configure data access and protection
• configure NTFS permissions
• configure shared permissions
• configure local storage
• manage and optimize storage
• configure file and folder permissions
• configure OneDrive/OneDrive for Business

Maintain Windows (30-35%)
Configure system and data recovery
• perform file recovery
• recover Windows 10
• troubleshoot startup/boot process
• create and manage system restore points

Manage updates
• troubleshoot updates
• select and configure the appropriate servicing channel for feature updates
• configure Windows update options
• plan for types of windows updates including feature updates, quality updates, servicing stack updates, driver updates, and Microsoft product updates
• configure updates by using Windows Update for Business

Monitor and manage Windows
• configure and analyze event logs
• manage performance
• manage Windows 10 environment
• configure local registry
• schedule tasks

Configure remote connectivity
• manage Windows 10 remotely by using Windows Admin Center
• configure remote assistance tools including Remote Assist and Quick Assist
• manage Windows remotely by using Windows Remote Management and PS remoting
• configure remote desktop access

AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Exam Updated

Description
Welcome to the top quality AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure practice tests to help you prepare for your AZ-204 exam.

Updated explanations
Get AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure certification to take your career and salary to the next level.

I strongly recommend you to practice these AZ-204 practice tests to validate your learning before taking the real AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam.

These practice tests are designed just like the actual exam questions, covers every topic, with a difficulty level like a real exam.

This AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Practice Tests course offers the following features:
300 TOP-NOTCH Questions – The tone and tenor of the questions mimic the real exam along with the detailed explanations and reference links.
DETAILED EXPLANATIONS, REFERENCE LINKS – Every question has full and detailed explanation along with reference links to MS documentation.
ACTIVE Q&A DISCUSSION BOARD – You can post your queries to the QA section so we can discuss any queries.
VERY RESPONSIVE INSTRUCTOR – Most of your queries will be responded with in 24 hours.
ALWAYS UP TO DATE – These practice tests are constantly updated with new questions and based on the student’s feedback.
CLEAR AND ERROR-FREE QUESTIONS – Every question is peer reviewed and verified with Grammarly.
PREPARED BY MULTI CLOUD CERTIFIED professional who actually passed the AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam!
ANDROID CELL PHONE -COMPATIBLE

These practice tests cover the following AZ-204 skills:
Develop Azure compute solutions (25-30%)
Develop for Azure storage (15-20%)
Implement Azure security (20-25%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize Azure solutions (15-20%)
Connect to and consume Azure services and third-party services (15-20%)

I wish you all the best for your learning and exam. See you inside the course.

What you’ll learn
Microsoft Azure AZ-204: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Practice Tests.
Prepares you for the AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam.
Gain Microsoft Certified Azure Developer Associate Certificate.
Learn AZ-204 exam concepts and AZ-204 exam pattern.


Skills measured
The English language version of this exam was updated on April 19, 2022. Download the study guide in the preceding “Tip” box for more details about the skills measured on this exam.

Develop Azure compute solutions (25-30%)
Develop for Azure storage (15-20%)
Implement Azure security (20-25%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize Azure solutions (15-20%)
Connect to and consume Azure services and third-party services (15-20%)

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
Basic Knowledge on Azure

Who this course is for:
Azure Developers eager to get AZ-204 Certification
Azure Developers keen to get Microsoft Certified Azure Developer Associate Certificate
Azure Developers

————————————–Students Feedback——————————————————–

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Cleared the exam today! Changing the review to 5, this seems like the best set of the practice tests available. Also big thumbs up for the author for keeping it up to date !
This course is very useful to clear the exam. Explanation given after each answer helps us to understand the concept in better way. I clear exam on, Thank you jason!!

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QUESTION 1
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2. Host1 has an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that
was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template.
You need to move VM1 to Host2.
What should you do?

A. From the Update management blade, click Enable.
B. From the Overview blade, move VM1 to a different subscription.
C. From the Redeploy blade, click Redeploy.
D. From the Profile blade, modify the usage location.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your company has an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that you manage from an Azure AD-joined device.
The cluster is located in a resource group.
Developers have created an application named MyApp. MyApp was packaged into a container image.
You need to deploy the YAML manifest file for the application.
Solution: You install the Azure CLI on the device and run the kubectl apply ”’?f myapp.yaml command.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that you manage from an Azure AD-joined
device. The cluster is located in a resource group.
Developers have created an application named MyApp. MyApp was packaged into a container image.
You need to deploy the YAML manifest file for the application.
Solution: You install the docker client on the device and run the docker run -it microsoft/azurecli:
0.10.17 command.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has a web app named WebApp1.
You use the WebJobs SDK to design a triggered App Service background task that automatically invokes a
function in the code every time new data is received in a queue.
You are preparing to configure the service processes a queue data item.
Which of the following is the service you should use?

A. Logic Apps
B. WebJobs
C. Flow
D. Functions

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has an Azure subscription.
You need to deploy a number of Azure virtual machines to the subscription by using Azure Resource Manager
(ARM) templates. The virtual machines will be included in a single availability set.
You need to ensure that the ARM template allows for as many virtual machines as possible to remain
accessible in the event of fabric failure or maintenance.
Which of the following is the value that you should configure for the platformFaultDomainCount property?

A. 10
B. 30
C. Min Value
D. Max Value

Answer: D

AWS Certified Security Specialty (SCS-C01) Exam

This credential helps organizations identify and develop talent with critical skills for implementing cloud initiatives. Earning AWS Certified Security – Specialty validates expertise in securing data and workloads in the AWS Cloud.

Exam overview
Level: Specialty
Length: 170 minutes to complete the exam
Cost: 300 USD
Visit Exam pricing for additional cost information.

Format: 65 questions; either multiple choice or multiple response
Delivery method: Pearson VUE and PSI; testing center or online proctored exam

Who should take this exam?

AWS Certified Security – Specialty is intended for individuals who perform a security role and have at least two years of hands-on experience securing AWS workloads. Before you take this exam, we recommend you have:

Five years of IT security experience in designing and implementing security solutions and at least two years of hands-on experience in securing AWS workloads
Working knowledge of AWS security services and features of services to provide a secure production environment and an understanding of security operations and risks
Knowledge of the AWS shared responsibility model and its application; security controls for workloads on AWS; logging and monitoring strategies; cloud security threat models; patch management and security automation; ways to enhance AWS security services with third-party tools and services; and disaster recovery controls, including BCP and backups, encryption, access control, and data retention
Understanding of specialized data classifications and AWS data protection mechanisms, data-encryption methods and AWS mechanisms to implement them, and secure internet protocols and AWS mechanisms to implement them
Ability to make tradeoff decisions with regard to cost, security, and deployment complexity to meet a set of application requirements

What does it take to earn this certification?
To earn this certification, you’ll need to take and pass the AWS Certified Security – Specialty exam (SCS-C01). The exam features a combination of two question formats: multiple choice and multiple response. Additional information, such as the exam content outline and passing score, is in the exam guide.

Introduction
The AWS Certified Security – Specialty (SCS-C01) exam is intended for individuals who perform a security role. The exam validates a candidate’s ability to effectively demonstrate knowledge about securing the AWS platform.

The exam also validates whether a candidate has the following:
 An understanding of specialized data classifications and AWS data protection mechanisms
 An understanding of data-encryption methods and AWS mechanisms to implement them
 An understanding of secure internet protocols and AWS mechanisms to implement them
 A working knowledge of AWS security services and features of services to provide a secure production environment
 Competency from 2 or more years of production deployment experience in using AWS security services and features
 The ability to make tradeoff decisions with regard to cost, security, and deployment complexity to meet a set of application requirements
 An understanding of security operations and risks

Target candidate description
The target candidate should have 5 years of IT security experience in designing and implementing security solutions. Additionally, the target candidate should have 2 or more years of hands-on experience in securing AWS workloads.

Recommended AWS knowledge

The target candidate should have the following knowledge:
 The AWS shared responsibility model and its application
 Security controls for workloads on AWS
 Logging and monitoring strategies
 Cloud security threat models
 Patch management and security automation
 Ways to enhance AWS security services with third-party tools and services
 Disaster recovery controls, including BCP and backups
 Encryption
 Access control
 Data retention

What is considered out of scope for the target candidate?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of related job tasks that the target candidate is not expected to be able to perform. These items are considered out of scope for the exam:

 Create or write configurations
 Implement (SysOps)
 Demonstrate scripting in a specific language (for example, Perl or Java)

For a detailed list of specific tools and technologies that might be covered on the exam, as well as lists of in-scope and out-of-scope AWS services, refer to the Appendix.

Exam content
Response types

There are two types of questions on the exam:
 Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
 Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options

Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose. Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.

Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 50 questions that will affect your score.

Unscored content
The exam includes 15 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.
Exam results

The AWS Certified Security – Specialty (SCS-C01) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.

Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 750. Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.

Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback.

Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the objectives is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context. The percentage in each domain represents only scored content. Domain % of Exam

Domain 1: Incident Response 12%
Domain 2: Logging and Monitoring 20%
Domain 3: Infrastructure Security 26%
Domain 4: Identity and Access Management 20%
Domain 5: Data Protection 22%
TOTAL 100%

Domain 1: Incident Response
1.1 Given an AWS abuse notice, evaluate the suspected compromised instance or exposed access keys.
 Given an AWS Abuse report about an EC2 instance, securely isolate the instance as part of a forensic investigation.
 Analyze logs relevant to a reported instance to verify a breach, and collect relevant data.
 Capture a memory dump from a suspected instance for later deep analysis or for legal compliance reasons.

1.2 Verify that the Incident Response plan includes relevant AWS services.
 Determine if changes to baseline security configuration have been made.
 Determine if list omits services, processes, or procedures which facilitate Incident Response.
 Recommend services, processes, procedures to remediate gaps.

1.3 Evaluate the configuration of automated alerting, and execute possible remediation of security-related incidents and emerging issues.
 Automate evaluation of conformance with rules for new/changed/removed resources.
 Apply rule-based alerts for common infrastructure misconfigurations.
 Review previous security incidents and recommend improvements to existing systems.

Domain 2: Logging and Monitoring

2.1 Design and implement security monitoring and alerting.
 Analyze architecture and identify monitoring requirements and sources for monitoring statistics.
 Analyze architecture to determine which AWS services can be used to automate monitoring and alerting.
 Analyze the requirements for custom application monitoring, and determine how this could be achieved.
 Set up automated tools/scripts to perform regular audits.

Given a custom application which is not reporting its statistics, analyze the configuration and remediate.
 Review audit trails of system and user activity.

2.3 Design and implement a logging solution.
 Analyze architecture and identify logging requirements and sources for log ingestion.
 Analyze requirements and implement durable and secure log storage according to AWS best practices.
 Analyze architecture to determine which AWS services can be used to automate log ingestion and analysis.

2.4 Troubleshoot logging solutions.
 Given the absence of logs, determine the incorrect configuration and define remediation steps.
 Analyze logging access permissions to determine incorrect configuration and define remediation steps.
 Based on the security policy requirements, determine the correct log level, type, and sources.

Domain 3: Infrastructure Security

3.1 Design edge security on AWS.
 For a given workload, assess and limit the attack surface.
 Reduce blast radius (e.g. by distributing applications across accounts and regions).
 Choose appropriate AWS and/or third-party edge services such as WAF, CloudFront and Route 53 to protect against DDoS or filter application-level attacks.
 Given a set of edge protection requirements for an application, evaluate the mechanisms to prevent and detect intrusions for compliance and recommend required changes.
 Test WAF rules to ensure they block malicious traffic.

3.2 Design and implement a secure network infrastructure.
 Disable any unnecessary network ports and protocols.
 Given a set of edge protection requirements, evaluate the security groups and NACLs of an application for compliance and recommend required changes.
 Given security requirements, decide on network segmentation (e.g. security groups and NACLs) that allow the minimum ingress/egress access required.
 Determine the use case for VPN or Direct Connect.
 Determine the use case for enabling VPC Flow Logs.
 Given a description of the network infrastructure for a VPC, analyze the use of subnets and gateways for secure operation.

3.3 Troubleshoot a secure network infrastructure.
 Determine where network traffic flow is being denied.
 Given a configuration, confirm security groups and NACLs have been implemented correctly.

3.4 Design and implement host-based security.

 Given security requirements, install and configure host-based protections including Inspector, SSM.
 Decide when to use host-based firewall like iptables.
 Recommend methods for host hardening and monitoring.

Domain 4: Identity and Access Management
4.1 Design and implement a scalable authorization and authentication system to access AWS resources.
 Given a description of a workload, analyze the access control configuration for AWS services and make recommendations that reduce risk.
 Given a description how an organization manages their AWS accounts, verify security of their root user.
 Given your organization’s compliance requirements, determine when to apply user policies and resource policies.
 Within an organization’s policy, determine when to federate a directory services to IAM.
 Design a scalable authorization model that includes users, groups, roles, and policies.
 Identify and restrict individual users of data and AWS resources.
 Review policies to establish that users/systems are restricted from performing functions beyond their responsibility, and also enforce proper separation of duties.

4.2 Troubleshoot an authorization and authentication system to access AWS resources.
 Investigate a user’s inability to access S3 bucket contents.
 Investigate a user’s inability to switch roles to a different account.
 Investigate an Amazon EC2 instance’s inability to access a given AWS resource.

Domain 5: Data Protection

5.1 Design and implement key management and use.
 Analyze a given scenario to determine an appropriate key management solution.
 Given a set of data protection requirements, evaluate key usage and recommend required changes.
 Determine and control the blast radius of a key compromise event and design a solution to contain the same.

5.2 Troubleshoot key management.
 Break down the difference between a KMS key grant and IAM policy.
 Deduce the precedence given different conflicting policies for a given key.
 Determine when and how to revoke permissions for a user or service in the event of a compromise.

5.3 Design and implement a data encryption solution for data at rest and data in transit.
 Given a set of data protection requirements, evaluate the security of the data at rest in a workload and recommend required changes.
 Verify policy on a key such that it can only be used by specific AWS services.
 Distinguish the compliance state of data through tag-based data classifications and automate remediation.
 Evaluate a number of transport encryption techniques and select the appropriate method (i.e. TLS, IPsec, client-side KMS encryption). are grouped according to their primary functions. While some of these technologies will likely be covered more than others on the exam, the order and placement of them in this list is no indication of relative weight or importance:
 AWS CLI
 AWS SDK
 AWS Management Console
 Network analysis tools (packet capture and flow captures)
 SSH/RDP
 Signature Version 4
 TLS
 Certificate management
 Infrastructure as code (IaC)

AWS services and features
Note: Security affects all AWS services. Many services do not appear in this list because the overall service is out of scope, but the security aspects of the service are in scope. For example, a candidate for this exam would not be asked about the steps to set up replication for an S3 bucket, but the candidate might be asked about configuring an S3 bucket policy.

Management and Governance:
 AWS Audit Manager
 AWS CloudTrail
 Amazon CloudWatch
 AWS Config
 AWS Organizations
 AWS Systems Manager
 AWS Trusted Advisor

Networking and Content Delivery:
 Amazon Detective
 AWS Firewall Manager
 AWS Network Firewall
 AWS Security Hub
 AWS Shield
 Amazon VPC
    o VPC endpoints
    o Network ACLs
    o Security groups
 AWS WAF

Security, Identity, and Compliance:
 AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
 AWS CloudHSM
 AWS Directory Service
 Amazon GuardDuty
 AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
 Amazon Inspector
 AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
 Amazon Macie
 AWS Single Sign-On

Out-of-scope AWS services and features
The following is a non-exhaustive list of AWS services and features that are not covered on the exam. These services and features do not represent every AWS offering that is excluded from the exam content. Services or features that are entirely unrelated to the target job roles for the exam are excluded from this list because they are assumed to be irrelevant.

Out-of-scope AWS services and features include the following:
 Application development services
 IoT services
 Machine learning (ML) services
 Media services
 Migration and transfer services

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QUESTION 1
The Security team believes that a former employee may have gained unauthorized access to AWS resources sometime in the past 3 months by using an identified access key.
What approach would enable the Security team to find out what the former employee may have done within AWS?

A. Use the AWS CloudTrail console to search for user activity.
B. Use the Amazon CloudWatch Logs console to filter CloudTrail data by user.
C. Use AWS Config to see what actions were taken by the user.
D. Use Amazon Athena to query CloudTrail logs stored in Amazon S3.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company is storing data in Amazon S3 Glacier. The security engineer implemented a new vault lock policy for 10TB of data and called initiate-vault-lock operation 12 hours ago. The audit team identified a typo in the policy that is allowing unintended access to the vault.
What is the MOST cost-effective way to correct this?

A. Call the abort-vault-lock operation. Update the policy. Call the initiate-vault-lock operation again.
B. Copy the vault data to a new S3 bucket. Delete the vault. Create a new vault with the data.
C. Update the policy to keep the vault lock in place.
D. Update the policy. Call initiate-vault-lock operation again to apply the new policy.

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Initiate the lock by attaching a vault lock policy to your vault, which sets the lock to an in-progress state and returns a lock ID. While in the in-progress state, you have 24 hours to validate your vault lock policy before the lock ID expires.
Use the lock ID to complete the lock process. If the vault lock policy doesn’t work as expected, you can abort the lock and restart from the beginning. For information on how to use the S3 Glacier API to lock a vault, see Locking a Vault by Using the Amazon S3 Glacier API.

QUESTION 3

A company wants to control access to its AWS resources by using identities and groups that are defined in its
existing Microsoft Active Directory.
What must the company create in its AWS account to map permissions for AWS services to Active Directory user attributes?

A. AWS IAM groups
B. AWS IAM users
C. AWS IAM roles
D. AWS IAM access keys

Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-connect-your-on-premises-active-directory-to-awsusingad-connector/

QUESTION 4
A company has contracted with a third party to audit several AWS accounts. To enable the audit, crossaccount
IAM roles have been created in each account targeted for audit. The Auditor is having trouble
accessing some of the accounts.
Which of the following may be causing this problem? (Choose three.)

A. The external ID used by the Auditor is missing or incorrect.
B. The Auditor is using the incorrect password.
C. The Auditor has not been granted sts:AssumeRole for the role in the destination account.
D. The Amazon EC2 role used by the Auditor must be set to the destination account role.
E. The secret key used by the Auditor is missing or incorrect.
F. The role ARN used by the Auditor is missing or incorrect.

Answer: C,EF

QUESTION 5
Compliance requirements state that all communications between company on-premises hosts and EC2
instances be encrypted in transit. Hosts use custom proprietary protocols for their communication, and EC2
instances need to be fronted by a load balancer for increased availability.
Which of the following solutions will meet these requirements?

A. Offload SSL termination onto an SSL listener on a Classic Load Balancer, and use a TCP connection between the load balancer and the EC2 instances.
B. Route all traffic through a TCP listener on a Classic Load Balancer, and terminate the TLS connection on the EC2 instances.
C. Create an HTTPS listener using an Application Load Balancer, and route all of the communication through that load balancer.
D. Offload SSL termination onto an SSL listener using an Application Load Balancer, and re-spawn and SSL connection between the load balancer and the EC2 instances.

Answer: B
 

156-315.80 Check Point Certified Security Expert – R80 Exam

Certified Professionals Only Training and Certification
Check Point training and certification gives you the critical skills and knowledge you need to successfully implement and manage Check Point solutions and earn Check Point’s globally recognized certifications.

Already CCSE Certified in any prior version?
If you have any prior CCSE certification, you are eligible for the CCSE Update exam (156-915).

Courses and exams are now available, so register for training and certifications from your local Check Point Authorized Training Centers (ATC) today. Learn more using the links below or contact your local Authorized Training Center for availability.

Locate an ATC
Looking to Stand Out from the Crowd?
The Check Point Certified Professional has already proven his or her commitment to providing industry leading Threat Prevention and Data Protection to their customers. The Professional can further demonstrate that commitment by choosing to upgrade to the Enterprise-level Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert Certification (156-820 exam) or demonstrate a deeper knowledge of security systems with the capstone level Check Point Security Master certification (156-115 exam).

Recognition
Every Check Point certification carries a unique logo that professionals can leverage as an added bonus to their credentials. This link provides the logos as well as logo usage rights.

*Course length and price may vary by ATC. Please contact your local ATC for detailed information.

Preface
The Check Point Certified Security Engineering Exam
The Check Point Security Engineering course provides an understanding of upgrading and advanced configuration of Check Point software blades, installing and managing VPNs (on both internal and
external networks), gaining the maximum security from Security Gateways, and resolving Gateway performance issues.
The Check Point Security Engineering Study Guide supplements knowledge you have gained from the Security Engineering course, and is not a sole means of study.

The Check Point Certified Security Engineering #156-315.13 exam covers the following topics:
· The process for backup of a Security Gateway and Management Server using your understanding of the differences between backups, snapshots, and upgrade-exports.
· The process for upgrade of Management Server using a database migration.
· How to perform debugs on firewall processes.
· Building, testing and troubleshooting a ClusterXL Load Sharing deployment on an enterprise network.
· Building, testing and troubleshooting a ClusterXL High Availability deployment on an enterprise network.
· Building, testing and troubleshooting a management HA deployment on an enterprise network.
· Configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting SecureXL and CoreXL acceleration solutions on the corporate network traffic to ensure noted performance enhancement on the firewall.
· Building, testing and troubleshooting a VRRP deployment on an enterprise network.
· Using an external user database such as LDAP, to configure User Directory to incorporate user information for authentication services on the network.
· Managing internal and external user access to resources for Remote Access or across a VPN.
· Troubleshooting a site-to-site or certificate-based VPN on a corporate gateway using

IKEView, VPN log files and command-line debug tools.
· Optimizing VPN performance and availability using Link Selection and Multiple Entry Point solutions.
· Managing and testing corporate VPN tunnels to allow for greater monitoring and scalability with multiple tunnels defined in a community including other VPN providers.
· Creating Events and using existing event definitions to generate reports on specific network traffic using SmartReporter and SmartEvent in order to provide industry compliance information to management.
· Troubleshoot report generation given command-line tools and debug-file information.

Chapter 1: Upgrading 1
Upgrades are used to save Check Point product configurations, Security Policies, and objects, so that Security
Administrators do not need to re-create Gateway and Security Management Server configurations.

Objectives:
• Perform a backup of a Security Gateway and Management Server using your
• Understanding of the differences between backups, snapshots, and upgrade-exports.
• Upgrade and troubleshoot a Management Server using a database migration.
• Upgrade and troubleshoot a clustered Security Gateway deployment.

Topics

The following table outlines the topics covered in the “Upgrading” chapter of the Check Point Security
Engineering Course. This table is intended as a supplement to knowledge you have gained from the
Security Engineering Courseware handbook, and is not meant to be a sole means of study.
Topics Key Elements
Backup and Restore Security Gateways and
Management Servers
Snapshot management
Upgrade Tools
Backup Schedule Recommendations
Upgrade Tools
Performing Upgrades
Support Contract
Upgrading Standalone Full High
Availability
Lab 1: Upgrading to Check Point R77 Install Security Management Server
Migrating Management server Data
Importing the Check Point Database
Launch SmartDashboard
Upgrading the Security Gateway
Table 1-1: Upgrade Topics
Sample CCSE Exam Question

During an upgrade to the management server, the contract file is transferred to a gateway when the gateway is upgraded. Where is the contract file retrieved from:
1) ISO
2) Technical Support
3) Management.
4) User Center.

Answer
During an upgrade to the management server, the contract file is transferred to a gateway when the gateway is upgraded. Where is the contract file retrieved from:

1) ISO
2) Technical Support
3) Management.
4) User Center.

Chapter 2: Advanced Firewall 2
The Check Point Firewall Software Blade builds on the award-winning technology, first offered in
Check Point’s firewall solution, to provide the industry’s best gateway security with identity
awareness. Check Point’s firewalls are trusted by 100% of Fortune 100 companies and deployed by
over 170,000 customers. Check Point products have demonstrated industry leadership and continued innovation since the introduction of FireWall-1 in 1994.

Objectives:
• Using knowledge of Security Gateway infrastructure, including chain modules, packet flow and kernel tables to describe how to perform debugs on firewall processes.

Topics

The following table outlines the topics covered in the “Advanced Firewall” chapter of the Check Point
Security Engineering Course. This table is intended as a supplement to knowledge you have gained from
the Security Engineering Courseware handbook, and is not meant to be a sole means of study.

Topic Key Element
Check Point Firewall Infrastructure GUI Clients
Management
Security Gateway User and Kernel Mode Processes
CPC Core Process
FWM
FWD
CPWD
Inbound and Outbound Packet Flow
Inbound FW CTL Chain Modules
Outbound Chain Modules
Columns in a Chain
Stateful Inspection
Kernel Tables Connections Table
Connections Table Format
Check Point Firewall Key Features Packet Inspection Flow
Policy Installation Flow
Policy Installation Process
Policy Installation Process Flow
Network Address Translation How NAT Works
Hide NAT Process
Security Servers
How a Security Server Works
Basic Firewall Administration
Common Commands
FW Monitor What is FW Monitor
C2S Connections and S2C Packets
fw monitor
Lab 2: Core CLI Elements of Firewall
Administration
Policy Management and Status
Verification from the CLI
Using cpinfo
Run cpinfo on the Security Management Server
Analyzing cpinfo in InfoView
Using fw ctl pstat
Using tcpdump
Table 2-1: Advanced Firewall Topics


Chapter 3: Clustering and Acceleration 3
Whether your preferred network redundancy protocol is Check Point ClusterXL technology or standard VRRP protocol, it is no longer a “platform choice” you will have to make with Gaia. Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia, and Gaia is available to all Check Point Appliances, open servers and virtualized environments. There are no more trade-off decisions between required network protocols and preferred security platforms/functions.

Objectives:

• Build, test and troubleshoot a ClusterXL Load Sharing deployment on an enterprise network.
• Build, test and troubleshoot a ClusterXL High Availability deployment on an enterprise network.
• Build, test and troubleshoot a management HA deployment on an enterprise network.
• Configure, maintain and troubleshoot SecureXL and CoreXL acceleration solutions on the corporate network traffic to ensure noted performance enhancement on the firewall.
• Build, test and troubleshoot a VRRP deployment on an enterprise network.

Topics
The following table outlines the topics covered in the “Clustering and Acceleration” chapter of the Check Point Security Engineering Course. This table is intended as a supplement to knowledge you have
gained from the Security Engineering Courseware handbook, and is not meant to be a sole means of study.

Topic Key Element
VRRP VRRP vs ClusterXL
Monitored Circuit VRRP
Troubleshooting VRRP
Clustering and Acceleration Clustering Terms
ClusterXL
Cluster Synchronization
Synchronized-Cluster Restrictions
Securing the Sync Interface
To Synchronize or Not to Synchronize
ClusterXL: Load Sharing Multicast Load Sharing
Unicast Load Sharing
How Packets Travel Through a Unicast
LS Cluster
Sticky Connections
Maintenance Tasks and Tools Perform a Manual Failover of the
FW Cluster
Advanced Cluster Configuration
Management HA The Management High Availability Environment
Active vs. Standby
What Data is Backed Up?
Synchronization Modes
Synchronization Status
SecureXL: Security Acceleration What SecureXL Does
Packet Acceleration
Session Rate Acceleration
Masking the Source Port
Application Layer Protocol – An
©2012 Check Point Software Technologies Ltd. All rights reserved. P. 8
[Protected] Non-confidential content
Example with https:
https: 1.1
Factors that Preclude Acceleration
Factors that Preclude Templating
(Session Acceleration)
Packet Flow
VPN Capabilities
CoreXL: Multicore Acceleration Supported Platforms and Features
Default Configuration
Processing Core Allocation
Allocating Processing Cores
Adding Processing Cores to the Hardware
Allocating an Additional Core to the SND
Allocating a Core for Heavy Logging
Packet Flows with SecureXL Enabled
Lab 3 Migrating to a Clustering Solution Installing and Configuring the Secondary Security Gateway
Re-configuring the Primary Gateway
Configuring Management Server Routing
Configuring the Cluster Object
Testing High Availability
Installing the Secondary Management Server
Configuring Management High Availability


Table 3-1: Clustering and Acceleration Topics

Sample CCSE Exam Question
A zero downtime upgrade of a cluster:

1. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time
2. Is only supported in major releases (R70,to R71, R71 to R77)
3. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway
4. Requires breaking the cluster and upgrading members independently.

Answer
A zero downtime upgrade of a cluster:
1. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time
2. Is only supported in major releases (R70,to R71, R71 to R77)
3. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway
4. Requires breaking the cluster and upgrading members independently.

Chapter 4: Advanced User Management 4

Consistent user information is critical for proper security. Without a centralized data store, managing user information across multiple applications can be a manual, error-prone process.

Objectives:
• Using an external user database such as LDAP, configure User Directory to incorporate user information for authentication services on the network.
• Manage internal and external user access to resources for Remote Access or across a VPN.
• Troubleshoot user access issues found when implementing Identity Awareness.

Topics
The following table outlines the topics covered in the “Advanced User Management” chapter of the Check Point Security Engineering Course. This table is intended as a supplement to knowledge you have
gained from the Security Engineering Courseware handbook, and is not meant to be a sole means of study.

Topic Key Element
User Management Active Directory OU Structure
Using LDAP Servers with Check Point
LDAP User Management with User Directory
Defining an Account Unit
Configuring Active Directory Schemas
Multiple User Directory (LDAP) Servers
Authentication Process Flow
Limitations of Authentication Flow
User Directory (LDAP) Profiles
Troubleshooting User Authentication and
User Directory (LDAP)
Common Configuration Pitfalls
Some LDAP Tools
Troubleshooting User Authentication
Identity Awareness Enabling AD Query
AD Query Setup
Identifying users behind an https: Proxy
Verifying there’s a logged on AD user at the source IP
Checking the source computer OS
Using SmartView Tracker
Lab 4: Configuring SmartDashboard to
Interface with Active Directory
Creating the Active Directory Object in SmartDashboard
Verify SmartDashboard Communication with the AD Server
Table 4-1: Advanced User Management Topics


Sample CCSE Exam Question
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user managemetn in SmartDashboard, using an LDAP server.
1. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.
2. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object

Chapter 5: Advanced IPsec VPN and Remote Access
Check Point’s VPN Software Blade is an integrated software solution that provides secure connectivity to corporate networks, remote and mobile users, branch offices and business partners.
The blade integrates access control, authentication and encryption to guarantee the security of network connections over the public Internet.

Objectives:
• Using your knowledge of fundamental VPN tunnel concepts, troubleshoot a site-to-site or certificate-based VPN on a corporate gateway using IKEView, VPN log files and commandline debug tools.
• Optimize VPN performance and availability by using Link Selection and Multiple Entry Point solutions.
• Manage and test corporate VPN tunnels to allow for greater monitoring and scalability with multiple tunnels defined in a community including other VPN providers.

Topics:
The following table outlines the topics covered in the “Advanced IPsec VPN and Remote Access” chapter of the Check Point Security Engineering Course. This table is intended as a supplement to
knowledge you have gained from the Security Engineering Courseware handbook, and is not meant to be a sole means of study.

Topic Key Element
Advanced VPN Concepts and Practices IPsec
Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
IKE Key Exchange Process – Phase 1/ Phase 2 Stages
Remote Access VPNs Connection Initiation
Link Selection
Multiple Entry Point VPNs How Does MEP Work
Explicit MEP
Implicit MEP
Tunnel Management Permanent Tunnels
Tunnel Testing
VPN Tunnel Sharing
Tunnel-Management Configuration
Permanent-Tunnel Configuration
Tracking Options
Advanced Permanent-Tunnel configuration
VPN Tunnel Sharing Configuration
Troubleshooting VPN Encryption Issues
VPN Debug vpn debug Command
vpn debug on | off
vpn debug ikeon |ikeoff
vpn Log Files
vpn debug trunc
VPN Environment Variables
vpn Command
vpn tu
Comparing SAs
Lab 5: Configure Site-to-Site VPNs with
Third Party Certificates
Configuring Access to the Active Directory Server
Creating the Certificate
Importing the Certificate Chain and Generating Encryption Keys
Installing the Certificate


Chapter 6: Auditing and Reporting 6
The SmartEvent Software Blade turns security information into action with realtime security event correlation and management for Check Point security gateways and third-party devices.
SmartEvent’s unified event analysis identifies critical security events from the clutter, while correlating events across all security systems. Its automated aggregation and correlation of data not only minimizes the time spent analyzing log data, but also isolates and prioritizes the real security threats. The SmartReporter Software Blade centralizes reporting on network, security, and user activity and consolidates the data into concise predefined and custom-built reports. Easy report generation and automatic distribution save time and money.

Objectives:
• Create Events or use existing event definitions to generate reports on specific network traffic using SmartReporter and SmartEvent in order to provide industry compliance information to management.
• Using your knowledge of SmartEvent architecture and module communication, troubleshoot report generation given command-line tools and debug-file information.

Topics
The following table outlines the topics covered in the “Auditing and Reporting” chapter of the Check Point Security Engineering Course. This table is intended as a supplement to knowledge you have gained
from the Security Engineering Courseware handbook, and is not meant to be a sole means of study.

Topic Key Element
Auditing and Reporting Process Auditing and Reporting Standards
SmartEvent SmartEvent Intro
SmartEvent Architecture Component Communication Process
Event Policy User Interface
SmartReporter Report Types

Lab 7: SmartEvent and SmartReporter Configure the Network Object in SmartDashboard
Configuring Security Gateways to work with SmartEvent
Monitoring Events with SmartEvent
Generate Reports Based on Activities

Table 6-6: Using SmartUpdate Topics

Sample CCSE Exam Question
How many Events can be shown at one time in the Event preview pane?

1. 5,000
2. 30,000
3. 15,000
4. 1,000

Answer
How many Events can be shown at one time in the Event preview pane?

1. 5,000
2. 30,000
3. 15,000
4. 1,000

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QUESTION 1
Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

A. R80 Management API
B.Identity Awareness Web Services API
C. Open REST API
D. OPSEC SDK

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms
and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data.
Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A. Management Dashboard
B. Gateway
C. Personal User Storage
D. Behavior Risk Engine
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

A. SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
B. SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
C. SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
D. API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A. Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware
B. Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers
C. Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.
D. Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

A. 18191
B. 18190
C. 8983
D. 19009

Correct Answer: D
 

1Z0-1067-22 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Cloud Operations Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Certified Cloud Operations Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1067-22
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Certified Cloud Operations Professional has demonstrated hands-on experience and knowledge required to Automate cloud tasks, Tune performance, Troubleshoot, Manage cost, Manage security and compliance policies, Monitor and alert OCI, Implement data retention and archival, Create shell scripts with Command Line Interface (CLI), and Design cloud-scale agility on OCI.

Up-to-date training and field experience are recommended.

Take recommended training

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning subscription
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Automating Cloud Tasks
Use the OCI CLI to simplify repetitive tasks
Utilize configuration management tools to control infrastructure
Manage infrastructure as code

Performance Tuning and Troubleshooting
Explain Troubleshooting resource availability and accessibility
Validate OCI performance

Managing Cost
Utilize billing tools to track cost
Implement compartment quotas, budgets and billing alerts

Security and Compliance
Create secure access control policies
Configure Vulnerability Scanning and Web Application Firewall
Describe and Configure OCI Vault
Configure Data Guard, Security Zone and Security Advisor (Missing in ILP)

Monitoring and Alerting
Understand Metric Query Language (MQL) (Missing in ILP)
Create and managing alarms
Implement automated notifications

Data Retention and Archival
Use Object Storage Lifecycle policies for tiered data storage
Manage automated block storage and database backups
Implement cross-region data copy strategies

Designing for cloud-scale agility
Utilize edge services for automated failover/recovery
Implement hybrid network environments

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Question 1:
You have been asked to ensure that in-transit communication between an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
compute instance and an on-premises server (192.168.10.10/32) is encrypted. The instances communicate
using https:. The OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) is connected to the on-premises network by two
separate connections: a Dynamic IPsec VPN tunnel and a FastConnect virtual circuit. No static
configuration has been added. What solution should you recommend? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The instances will communicate by default over IPsec VPN, which ensures data is encrypted intransit.
B. Advertise a 192.168.10.10/32 route over the VPN.
C. Advertise a 192.168.10.10/32 router over the FastConnect.
D. The instances will communicate by default over the FastConnect private virtual circuit, which ensures data is encrypted in-transit.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:
You have created a group for several auditors. You assign the following policies to the group:
What actions are the auditors allowed to perform within your tenancy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The Auditors can view resources in the tenancy.
B. Auditors are able to create new instances in the tenancy.
C. The Auditors are able to delete resource in the tenancy.
D. Auditors are able to view all resources in the compartment.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:
You have a web application running on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) that lets users log in with a
username and password. You notice that an attacker has tried to use SQL comment ג€–” to alter the
database query, remove the password check and log in as a user. You decide to prevent any future attacks.
Which of the following OCI services or features would you choose to safeguard your application? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Network Security Group
B. Data Safe
C. Web Application Framework (WAF)
D. Vault

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:
One of the compute instances that you have deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) is
malfunctioning. You have created a console connection to remotely troubleshoot it. Which two statements
about console connections are TRUE? (Choose two.)

A. It is not possible to use VNC console connections to connect to Bare Metal Instances.
B. VNC console connection uses SSH port forwarding to create a secure connection from your local system to the VNC server attached to your instance’s console.
C. It is not possible to connect to the serial console to an instance running Microsoft Windows, however VNC console connection can be used.
D. For security purpose, the console connection will not let you edit system configuration files.
E. If you do not disconnect from the session, your serial console connection will automatically be terminated after 24 hours.

Correct Answer:

 

CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) CAS-004 Exam Updated

CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Practice Tests – are selected CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 exam questions to ensure your success.

These CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 practice questions are the perfect for you if you are intending to take the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam and want to know what sort of questions will be on the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 – Real Exam.

Knowing the cutting-edge basics of Advanced Security Practitioner implies you’re CompTIA CASP+ certified. CompTIA CASP+ certification is a valuable and well-respected credential that businesses value and may help you obtain your first IT job. Staying on track, gaining experience, new certifications, and education will allow you to excel in your job and meet your financial objectives.

The CompTIA CASP+ certification is the greatest place to begin your IT career. It may assist you in obtaining your first IT job and putting you on the road to IT success.
This practice test course has been created for those students who are preparing to take the CompTIA CASP+ exam in the near future.
This practice exam will offer you complete confidence in your ability to pass the actual exam.
This practice test should be used in combination with your exam preparation. Read the study guide’s topics and then try your hand at the practice questions for each area.
Remember that the CASP+ certification is meant to assess practical experience, so make sure you obtain some hands-on experience with the security technologies included on the exam. To prepare for the CASP+, CompTIA advises using NetWars-style simulations, penetration testing and defensive cybersecurity simulations, and incident response training.
Because the exam uses scenario-based learning, expect the questions to involve analysis and thought, rather than relying on simple memorization. The questions in this book are intended to help you be confident that you know the topic well enough to think through hands-on exercises.
The most recent CASP+ exam objectives take into account the most recent advancements in cybersecurity architecture and engineering. There’s also a lot of attention paid to current themes like governance and compliance, which is greatly required.

Below are the 28 exam objectives and domains that will feature in the CASP+ CAS-004 exam.

Exam Topics covered in CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Certification Exams skill questions:
Security Architecture – 29%
Security Operations – 30%
Security Engineering and Cryptography – 26%
Governance, Risk, and Compliance – 15%

Skill Measurement Exam Topics:-

1) Security Architecture
Given a scenario, analyze the security requirements and objectives to ensure an appropriate, secure network architecture for a new or existing network.
Given a scenario, analyze the organizational requirements to determine the proper infrastructure security design.
Given a scenario, integrate software applications securely into an enterprise architecture.
Given a scenario, implement data security techniques for securing enterprise architecture.
Given a scenario, analyze the security requirements and objectives to provide the appropriate authentication and authorization controls.
Given a set of requirements, implement secure cloud and virtualization solutions.
Explain how cryptography and public key infrastructure (PKI) support security objectives and requirements.
Explain the impact of emerging technologies on enterprise security and privacy.

2) Security Operations
Given a scenario, perform threat management activities.
Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and formulate an appropriate response.
Given a scenario, perform vulnerability management activities.
Given a scenario, use the appropriate vulnerability assessment and penetration testing methods and tools.
Given a scenario, analyze vulnerabilities and recommend risk mitigations.
Given a scenario, use processes to reduce risk.
Given an incident, implement the appropriate response.
Explain the importance of forensic concepts.
Given a scenario, use forensic analysis tools.


3) Security Engineering and Cryptography
Given a scenario, apply secure configurations to enterprise mobility.
Given a scenario, configure and implement endpoint security controls.
Explain security considerations impacting specific sectors and operational technologies.
Explain how cloud technology adoption impacts organizational security.
Given a business requirement, implement the appropriate PKI solution.
Given a business requirement, implement the appropriate cryptographic protocols and algorithms.
Given a scenario, troubleshoot issues with cryptographic implementations.

4) Governance, Risk, and Compliance
Given a set of requirements, apply the appropriate risk strategies.
Explain the importance of managing and mitigating vendor risk.
Explain compliance frameworks and legal considerations, and their organizational impact.
Explain the importance of business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam details: Number of Questions, Time, and language
Number of Questions: Maximum of 90 questions,
Type of Questions: Multiple Choice Questions (single and multiple response), drag and drops and performance-based,
Length of Test: 90 Minutes. The exam is available in English, German, and Japanese languages.
Passing Score: 750/900
Languages : English at launch. German, Japanese, Portuguese, Thai and Spanish

Get Ready to Prepare like You’ve Never Prepared Before
Work smarter not harder. You are about to see a study guide that took hours of hard collection work, expert preparation, and constant feedback. That’s why we know this exam prep will help you get that high-score on your journey to certification. Our study guides are the real thing. Our study guides are so accurate.

Your Journey To Pass The CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004
Perhaps this is your first step toward the certification, or perhaps you are coming back for another round. We hope that you feel this exam challenges you, teaches you, and prepares you to pass the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004. If this is your first study guide, take a moment to relax. This could be the first step to a new high-paying job and an AMAZING career.

What Is The CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Focused On?
The CAS-004 or as it’s also known, the CompTIA CASP+ , like all tests, there is a bit of freedom on CompTIA CASP+ part to exam an array of subjects. That means knowing the majority of content is required because they test randomly on the many subjects available. Be aware too that experience requirements often exist because they’ve observed the average person and what is required. You can always push past that to succeed with the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 but it may take some extra work.

Why Preparation from Certkingdom?
Practicing for an exam like the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 can be a full-time job. In fact some exams are actually paid for by work because they are so intensive. Certification is not simple and takes immense work. It takes time, practice, and the right focus. We understand that because we have been in this industry for years and working in space full of less savory test prep sources.

Why Should I Take This Course?
Technology is ranked as the #1 source of U.S. jobs. Are you looking to kick start your career, improve your existing IT skills, or increase your chances of getting that IT job? Did you know 96% of HR managers use IT certifications as screening or hiring criteria during recruitment?*

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Some jobs that use CASP+ certifications get an average of $84,450 per year.

Features of Practice Tests:
For each question, detailed descriptions are also given.
Take your favorite cup of coffee or drink and test your skills CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004
The test can be stopped and resumed at any time.
You can perform the exam as much as you like.
The progress bar at the top of the screen shows both your progress and your time. Don’t panic if you’re running out of time; you can still complete the test.
You can skip a question to come back to at the end of the exam.
Before submitting your test, you can also use “Mark for Review” to go back through any questions you’re not positive about.
Click the stop button to complete the exam and show the results immediately.
You can pause the test at any time and resume later.
You can retake the test as many times as you would like.
The progress bar at the top of the screen will show your progress as well as the time remaining in the test. If you run out of time, don’t worry; you will still be able to finish the test.
You can skip a question to come back to at the end of the exam.
You can also use “Mark for Review” to come back to questions you are unsure about before you submit your test.
If you want to finish the test and see your results immediately, press the stop button.

Who this course is for:
After successfully completing this course, the students will be able to pass the exam CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CASP+ CAS-004
Anyone looking to pass the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 exam.
CompTIA CASP+ students , Security Engineers, Security Analysts
anyone who is preparing to take the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 exam
Anyone who are preparing or test their knowledge for the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Certification
Any one who want to do Certification on CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Certification Exam.
Anyone who wants to test their knowledge in CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Certification Exam.
Anyone who needs to become a better test taker before attempting the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 certification exam
Anyone looking to take and pass the CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 certification exam.
Anyone who wants to improve their skills as a computer or IT technician.
Anyone who wants to understand how the PQBs and simulations are given on the exam.
Anyone looking forward to brush up their skills.
Students who wish to sharpen their knowledge of CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004
Anyone wishing to sharpen their knowledge of CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004
System Administrators
Network Security Analysts
IT Students
Network administrator
Junior IT Auditor/ Penetration Tester
Systems Administrator


What you’ll learn
These practice tests will prepare you to pass the CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner exam
The practice tests covers all four CAS-004 domains
Practice questions which are closer to the actual exam
Detailed explanation of the each questions which helps to grasp the concepts

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
There is no required prerequisite for this course however, the CASP certification is intended to follow CompTIA Security+ or equivalent experience and has a technical, hands-on focus at the enterprise level.
It is that exam requirement that candidates have a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, including at least five years of hands-on technical security experience.

Who this course is for:
An IT security professional who has a minimum of 10 years of experience in IT administration including at least 5 years of hands-on technical security experience.
IT professionals aiming to move into a specialist security position such as a risk manager or analyst, security architect, or penetration tester/ethical Hacker.
Cyber Security / IS Professional, Information Security Analyst, Security Architect, IT Specialist INFOSEC, IT Specialist, Cybersecurity, Cybersecurity Risk Manager, Cybersecurity Risk Analyst.

QUESTION 1
A company’s Chief Operating Officer (COO) is concerned about the potential for competitors to infer
proprietary information gathered from employees’ social media accounts.
Which of the following methods should the company use to gauge its own social media threat level without
targeting individual employees?

A. Utilize insider threat consultants to provide expertise.
B. Require that employees divulge social media accounts.
C. Leverage Big Data analytical algorithms.
D. Perform social engineering tests to evaluate employee awareness.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A security administrator is hardening a TrustedSolaris server that processes sensitive data. The data owner
has established the following security requirements:
The data is for internal consumption only and shall not be distributed to outside individuals
The systems administrator should not have access to the data processed by the server
The integrity of the kernel image is maintained
Which of the following host-based security controls BEST enforce the data owner’s requirements? (Choose three.)

A. SELinux
B. DLP
C. HIDS
D. Host-based firewall
E. Measured boot
F. Data encryption
G. Watermarking

Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 3
An SQL database is no longer accessible online due to a recent security breach. An investigation reveals that
unauthorized access to the database was possible due to an SQL injection vulnerability. To prevent this type
of breach in the future, which of the following security controls should be put in place before bringing the
database back online? (Choose two.)

A. Secure storage policies
B. Browser security updates
C. Input validation
D. Web application firewall
E. Secure coding standards
F. Database activity monitoring

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 4
A company has entered into a business agreement with a business partner for managed human resources
services. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been asked to provide documentation that is
required to set up a business-to-business VPN between the two organizations. Which of the following is
required in this scenario?

A. ISA
B. BIA
C. SLA
D. RA

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A penetration tester has been contracted to conduct a physical assessment of a site. Which of the following is
the MOST plausible method of social engineering to be conducted during this engagement?

A. Randomly calling customer employees and posing as a help desk technician requiring user password to resolve issues
B. Posing as a copier service technician and indicating the equipment had “phoned home” to alert the technician for a service call
C. Simulating an illness while at a client location for a sales call and then recovering once listening devices are installed
D. Obtaining fake government credentials and impersonating law enforcement to gain access to a company facility

Correct Answer: A

CRT-261 Certification Preparation for Service Cloud Consultant Exam

Description
Are you ready to take the next step in your career by becoming a Salesforce.com Certified Service Cloud Consultant? Instructors will present scenarios that will help reinforce your knowledge of Service Cloud
functionality by thinking through requirements design considerations. The course provides an overview of the exam objectives to help you focus your efforts to prepare for the Salesforce.com Service Cloud Consultant Certification exam.


Target Audience
* Individuals who have experience designing Service Cloud solutions and are preparing to take the Salesforce.com Service Cloud Consultant Certification exam.

* : Salesforce.com Certified Service Cloud Consultant

Objectives
At the end of the course, students will be able to:
* Review the different exam objectives and their weighting on the exam.
* Understand the product areas to focus on to best prepare for the exam.
* Discuss how to design Service Cloud solutions to meet specific business needs
* Assess your exam readiness by answering practice questions

Course Outline
1) Introduction and Exam Overview
2) Implementation Strategies
3) Solution Design
4) Knowledge Management
5) Interaction Channels
6) Case Management
7) Contact Center Analytics
8) Integration and Data Management
9) Service Console

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QUESTION: 1
Universal Containers (UC) created a new mobile app that enables customers to place orders and track fulfillment. UC wants to quickly embed customer service into the new mobile app.
Which two features should be added to meet this requirement? Choose 2 answers

A. Salesforce Knowledgebase
B. Chatter Groups
C. Field Service Lightning
D. Service Cloud SOS

Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 2
Universal Containers runs a support operation with multiple call centers.
The Support Manager wants to measure first-call resolution by call center location, agent, and calendar month.
Which reporting solution should the Consultant recommend?

A. Create a list view report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and first-call resolution.
B. Create a reporting snapshot that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and first-call resolution.
C. Create a joined report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and firstcall resolution.
D. Create a matrix report that includes fields for call center location, agent, calendar month, and firstcall resolution.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 3
Universal Containers has a single contact center that handles all service requests including chat,
Cases, and web form submissions. It is important that Reps are assigned work evenly so that all
requests are handled in the order they are received.
How would a Consultant address this requirement?

A. Configure Case Assignment Rules
B. Configure Omni-Channel with Most Available Routing
C. Configure Live Agent Skills-based Routing
D. Configure Omni-Channel with Least Active Routing

Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
The Contact Center at Universal Containers wants to increase its profit margins by promoting call defilection within Service Cloud.
Which two solutions should a Consultant recommend? Choose 2 answers

A. Knowledge Base
B. Customer Community
C. Automatic Call Distribution
D. Service Cloud Console

Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 5
Support agents need to verify that customers are eligible to receive customer support before they can update the
Which two objects are used to verify that a customer is entitled to receive support? Choose 2 answers

A. Contacts
B. Products
C. Service contracts
D. Case history

Answer: A, C

MB-800 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant (beta) Exam Updated

MB-800 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant (beta) Exam

Welcome to MB-800: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant – 3 practice tests – Pass guarantee

(Same duration the official exam)

Answers & Resources included
1 official exam = (40-60 questions – 120 mins)
1 practice test = (40 questions – 120 mins)
Total number of questions = 108 questions

– if you solve these tests, you will be able to solve the official exam easily.

because these tests have the same difficulty of the official exam or higher (slightly higher difficulty) to strengthen you against the official exam

Points covered in the Exams (Same points of the official exam):

● Set up Business Central (20-25%)
● Configure financials (25-30%)
● Configure sales and purchasing (10-15%)
● Perform Business Central operations (30-35%)



The Objectives are distributed among the practice tests with answers and detailed explanations and resource links – (If available) for every question
These practice tests allow you to attempt Three Times within the same duration of the official exam with the same number of questions and same topics to adjust your focus-areas and cut down on study time and prove your readiness to take the official exam.

you can use all Three Exams in whatever way suits your preparation workflow.

These exams are time-limited exactly like the official exam to make you stronger at solving the exam.

Different types of questions including scenario-based questions and normal multiple-choice questions similar to the questions you find in the official exam.

Hotspot questions and the most common questions which are more likely to be found in the official exam.

Join students who found these practice tests useful and sent me a thank you message after passing the official exam.
What you’ll learn

Learn answers to 107 Questions distributed on 3 Official-like Practice Exams
understand Hotspot questions and the most common questions which are more likely to be found in the official exam.
Solving all Exam questions before the time ends

Take & pass the Exam MB-800: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?

Basic knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant
Every question is answered with detailed explanation and resources

Who this course is for:
Students want to pass Exam MB-800: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant
Students who want to train on Official-like Practice certification Exams

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Question 1:
You configure a cloud-based printer in Dynamics 365 Business Central. Purchase orders printed by users must automatically print to the cloud-based printer. You need to create a setup record for the user, report, and printer combination. On which page should you create the setup record?

A. Printer Selections
B. Printer Management
C. Report Layout Selection
D. Report Selection ג€” Purchase
E. Document Sending Profiles

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/ui-specify-printer-selection-reports

Question 2:
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Business Central Online. Users must be added to Business Central for the first time. You need to add the users. Which action should you use?

A. Get New Users from Microsoft 365
B. Create a new entry on the User Setup page
C. Update Users from Microsoft 365
D. Import User Groups

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Reference: https://dankinsella.blog/add-user-in-business-central-cloud/

Question 3:
A company uses Dynamics 365 Business Central. The company wants to print financial statements by using a cloud-based printer. You need to recommend the type of printer the customer should install. Which type of printer should you recommend?

A. Email
B. System
C. Client default
D. Server default

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:
You create a test instance of Dynamics 365 Business Central and enter transactions for testing purposes. You create a production company instance in the same Business Central environment. You need to copy the setup and master data from the test instance to the production instance without copying transaction data. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal?

A. Use the Run Migration Now function from Cloud Migration Management
B. Create and export a configuration package from the source company. Next, import into the destination company
C. Use the Copy Data from Company function from the Configuration Worksheet page
D. Use the Copy function from the Companies page

Correct Answer: B,D

Question 5:
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Business Central for a customer. The customer wants to upload starting entries for all master data through a general journal on the last day of the current month. You need to upload the data according to this requirement. Which three functions should you select?

A. Vendors Opening balance
B. G/L Accounts Opening balance
C. Calculate Inventory
D. Get Standard Journals
E. Customers Opening balance

Correct Answer: A,B,E

PL-200 Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant (beta) Exam Updated

Description
This practice tests course provides practice for taking the real exam and this practice test will help you prepare for the real exam test environment.
This course will give you lots of practice tests on all topics covered in the PL200 exam

PL-200 exam covered topics.
Configure Microsoft Dataverse (25-30%
Create apps by using Microsoft Power Apps (20-25%)
Create and Manage Microsoft Power Automate (15-20%)
Implement Microsoft Power Virtual Agents chatbots (10-15%)
Manage solutions Integrate Microsoft Power Apps with other apps and services (15-20%)

Who this course is for:
Who want to pass PL200 Exam
Students preparing for the PL200 Exam
Students who want to assess their exam by testing their exam skills under real (PL200) exam simulation.

For anyone who want to take their career to a whole new level with an Microsoft certification! pass the PL200 exam you must know the theory very well but also have high level hands-on skills. The element most students forget it drilling their knowledge with a ton of practice exams. Practice exams help you learn to apply theory to questions as well as expose weak areas in your knowledge.

The practice tests are constructed to enhance your confidence to sit for real exam as you will be testing your knowledge and skills for the above-mentioned topics.

Upon enrollment, you will receive unlimited access to the tests as well as regular updates.

Official exam information:
Test taking options: Online / Local test center
Time to complete: 120 mins
Total number of questions asked: 40-60
Total Marks: 1000
Passing Score: 700
Question types: multiple choice and multi-response questions

What you’ll learn
PL-200 Practice Test
Testing exam skills under real exam simulation.
Anyone who are preparing for the PL-200
Anyone who wants to test their knowledge in Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?

No

Who this course is for:
PL-200 Exam takers
Anyone interested in Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

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Question 1:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are creating Power Virtual Agents chatbot that captures demographic information about customers.
The chatbot must determine the group a customer belongs to based on their age. The age groups are:

✑ 0 – 17
✑ 18 – 25
✑ 26 – 35
✑ 36 – 55
✑ 55 – 100

You need to configure the chatbot to ask a question that can be used to determine the correct age group.
Solution: Use multiple choice options for Identify in the question and create options that represent each of the age groups.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:
You have a form that displays a custom field from an entity.
A customer wants to restrict users from filtering on the custom field.
You need to prevent users from filtering the field in Advanced Find.
What should you modify?

A. a searchable field on the Field Properties form
B. Fields in the Edit Filter Criteria option of the Quick Find view
C. Fields in the Add Find Columns option of the Quick Find view

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Setting Searchable property to No, makes the field disappear from the available fields for the Filter configuration, but it wonג€™t hide the field when adding columns to the view. This property has no impact on behaviour of the Global and Quick Find Search.

Reference:
https://community.dynamics.com/365/b/dynamics365apps/posts/kb-understanding-dynamics-365-field-s-searchable-property

Question 3:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are creating Power Virtual Agents chatbot that captures demographic information about customers.
The chatbot must determine the group a customer belongs to based on their age. The age groups are:

✑ 0 – 17
✑ 18 – 25
✑ 26 – 35
✑ 36 – 55
✑ 55 – 100

You need to configure the chatbot to ask a question that can be used to determine the correct age group.
Solution: Create a custom Age group entity and synonyms for each individual age in the corresponding item. Use Age group for Identify in the question.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Question 4
You are creating a new business process flow to qualify leads.
You create an action. The action is not available inside the Action Step.
You need to make the action available to the Action Step.
Which two steps must you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Activate the action.
B. Select Run as an on-demand process.
C. Ensure that the entity for the action matches the corresponding entity for the business process flow stage.
D. Add at least one step to the action.

Correct Answer: C,D

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/business-applications-release-notes/april18/microsoft-flow/add-action-business-process-flow

Question 5
You are using Power BI to build a dashboard for a company.
You must make the dashboard available to a specific set of users, including employees and five external users. The number of employees that require access to the dashboard varies, but usually less than 100.
Employees and external users must not be permitted to share the dashboard with other users.
You need to share the dashboard with the employees and external users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Sign into Power BI Desktop. Open the dashboard and select Share.
B. Create a dynamic distribution list. Add all users to the distribution list and use the list to share the dashboard.
C. Sign into the Power BI service. Open the dashboard and select Share.
D. Clear the Allow recipients to share your dashboard (or report) option.
E. Enter the individual email address of internal and external users.
F. Create a distribution list. Add all users to the distribution list and use the list to share the dashboard.

Correct Answer: C,D,F

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/collaborate-share/service-share-dashboards