(220-1001) CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Study Guide

May 31, 2021 Lindsay

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Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are
Clearly written and structured.
Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
Focused on your exam success.

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

Learn online with CertMaster Learn.
Apply your knowledge with CertMaster Labs
Practice and prepare for your exam with CertMaster Practice.

How Much Does the CompTIA A+ Certification Cost?
It’s a simple question, but there can be multiple answers based on your situation and the options you choose. You will need two vouchers to pass two exams to certify.

You may qualify for discounts that can decrease the cost, and you may want to consider additional learning and training that can change the bottom line as well. Read on to find out more.

The Basics: CompTIA A+ Exam Voucher Only
In order to take the certification test, you’ll need to buy an exam voucher. A voucher represents a unique code that you can buy at the CompTIA Store and use to take your test at a Pearson VUE testing center. If a voucher is all you need, then the cost is $232 per exam. Find more details about the exam on the CompTIA A+ product page and information on how to buy a voucher on our testing pages. If you’re ready to buy, head over to the store.

If you don’t pass an exam, you’ll need to purchase another voucher to take another test. We recommend that you go into your exam well-prepared to minimize the chance of not passing the test and having to purchase an additional voucher. Read on to find out about training and test preparation options.

Training and Exam Preparation
Our CompTIA Learning and Training offering is a set of comprehensive learning resources to support our certifications like CompTIA A+. This suite of products includes books, eLearning, labs and exam prep software and is developed in house by CompTIA, based on feedback we hear from learners like you. These resources provide you with a variety of ways to acquire all or some of the knowledge that is outlined in the CompTIA A+ exam objectives.

Self-Study
The self-study guide will teach you the fundamental principles of installing, configuring and troubleshooting PC, mobile, printer and networking device hardware and help you to advance a career in PC support. It will prepare you to take the CompTIA A+ exam by providing 100 percent coverage of the objectives and content examples listed on the syllabus. Browse our store or visit the Official CompTIA A+ Study Guide page to learn more.

Another great way to get an idea of what questions you can expect is to download a set of practice questions. Keep in mind that these practice questions are not the exact questions that will be on the actual test and that there will be different kinds of questions.

Self-Study and Test Preparation
The CompTIA CertMaster suite of products helps candidates learn the skills needed for a career in technology, and to prepare for their exam with confidence.

The following CertMaster products are now available for CompTIA A+:
CertMaster Practice for CompTIA A+
CertMaster Labs for CompTIA A+

* CompTIA A+ certification consists of 2 separate exams, 220-901 and 220-902 or 220-1001 and 220-1002. In order to take both exams, you need to purchase 2 vouchers. Vouchers can be used for any of the exams.

Don’t see a bundle you like, click here to see all our bundle offers. Shown prices apply to US store only. Prices in other regions may vary.

Classroom training
For some, self-study isn’t the way to go, and classroom training is either available to them or simply the better choice for them to learn. CompTIA A+ certification training is offered by many public academic institutions, such as colleges, as well as private academic institutions such as professional training centers.

The cost of classroom training depends on your choice and can range from a few hundred to several thousands of dollars. You can find classroom training in your area on our classroom training page. For organizations looking for instructor-led training, CompTIA offers classroom training for organizations.

Free and Almost Free CompTIA A+ Certification (Seriously!)

Depending on where you live and what sponsorships you qualify for, special programs may be available to help you get trained and certified for free (or nearly free). Such programs are usually geared toward one or more of the following groups:

Unemployed or under-employed individuals
Displaced workers
Military veterans
Ethnic minorities
Women

Typically, such free training programs fall into one of two categories: government-sponsored programs and nonprofit charitable programs.
Government-Sponsored IT Training

These are programs that are typically funded with federal dollars and advertised through your county’s workforce investment board or your local American Jobs Center. To search for local training programs, go to Career One Stop.

Nonprofit Charitable Programs
These programs are scattered throughout the United States and may be a bit harder to locate. Here are a few on our radar (and if you learn of others, please let us know):

Per Scholas: Locations in New York City, National Capital Region, Cincinnati, Columbus, Atlanta and Dallas.
IT-Ready from Creating IT Futures: Locations in Minneapolis-St. Paul and varying cities. Visit the location page for a list of current training sites that are accepting applications.
Stride Center: Located in the San Francisco Bay Area.
Tech901: Located exclusively in Memphis.

Because these programs typically exist to prepare people for entry-level IT jobs (such as help desk and technical support) they typically reject applicants who already have such a job and are just looking to add a certification to their resume.

As you can imagine, competition for such programs is often fierce. But, if you live in one of the areas where free training is offered and fall into a group that such programs are trying to help, it may be worth applying
Available Student Discount

If you are a student in the United States and have a valid student ID and .edu email address, you can take advantage of CompTIA’s student discounts. Certification vouchers and training materials are offered at considerable discounts at the CompTIA Academic Marketplace. At this time, a single CompTIA A+ certification voucher is offered to students for $97.

QUESTION 1
A technician is troubleshooting what appears to be a RAM issue on a PC. Which of the following symptoms would indicate if this is a RAM issue?

A. POST code beeps
B. Distended capacitors
C. Continuous reboots
D. Wrong BIOS time

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of other removable hardware.
Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner’s needs?

A. Docking station
B. Port replicator
C. Thunderbolt
D. USB hub
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A client brings in a smartphone with a cracked screen to be repaired. During the repair process, the technician
places the screws in a small container to prevent losing them. The technician tests the replacement screen to
ensure it works property before closing the device. Once the device is back together, however it does not power on.

A. Label the locations of the screws.
B. Refer to manufacturer resources.
C. Document the orientation of the cables.
D. Use the appropriate hand tools.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A company requires an internal network device that can assign network addresses and configure the next hop for network hosts. Which of the following network protocols must this device provide?

A. DNS
B. SMTP
C. DHCP
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A computer has a static address configured and is able to connect to resource on the same VLAN but is
unable to access resources on other VLANs. Which of the following should be configured to allow this communication?

A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Access point
E. Repeater

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A device has an IP address of fe80:2efa:57a2::35a7. Which of the following BEST describe this address?
(Choose two.)

A. Link local
B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. IPv4
E. IPv6
F. APIPA

Correct Answer: AE

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Microsoft, Uncategorized

Exam MD-101 Microsoft Managing Modern Desktops Exam Guarantee Pass at certkingdom

May 29, 2021 Lindsay

Prepare for Microsoft Exam MD-101–and help demonstrate your real-world mastery of skills and knowledge required to manage modern Windows 10 desktops. Designed for Windows administrators, Exam Ref focuses on the critical thinking and decision-making acumen needed for success at the Microsoft Certified Associate level.

Focus on the expertise measured by these objectives:
Deploy and update operating systems
Manage policies and profiles
Manage and protect devices
Manage apps and data

This Microsoft Exam Ref:
Organizes its coverage by exam objectives
Features strategic, what-if scenarios to challenge you
Assumes you have experience deploying, configuring, securing, managing, and monitoring devices and client applications in an enterprise environment

About the Exam
Exam MD-101 focuses on knowledge needed to plan and implement Windows 10 with dynamic deployment or Windows Autopilot; upgrade devices to Windows 10; manage updates and device authentication; plan and implement co-management; implement conditional access and compliance policies; configure device profiles; manage user profiles; manage Windows Defender; manage Intune device enrollment and inventory; monitor devices; deploy/update applications, and implement Mobile Application Management (MAM).

About Microsoft Certification
Passing this exam and Exam MD-100 Windows 10 fulfills your requirements for the Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate certification credential, demonstrating your ability to install Windows 10 operating systems and deploy and manage modern desktops and devices in an enterprise environment.

Chapter 1: Deploy and Update Operating Systems
Chapter 2: Manage Policies and Profiles
Chapter 3: Manage and Protect Devices
Chapter 4: Manage Apps and Data

About the Practice Test
It contains 150 questions and covers the following objectives:

Deploy and Update Operating Systems
Manage Policies and Profiles
Manage and Protect Devices
Manage Apps and Data

Their quality content and innovative technology have earned the prestigious credential of Microsoft Certified Practice Test Provider.

•Online performance-based simulations give hands on work environment experience

•Questions are similar to exam questions so you test your knowledge of exam objectives

•Detailed explanations for both correct and distractor answers reinforce the material

•Study Mode covers all objectives ensuring topics are covered

•Certification Mode (timed) prepares students for exam taking conditions

•Instant, drill-down score reports tell you exactly the areas to focus on.

How to obtain the Practice Test
With your order, you will receive a product key on your Account Page. will give you access to a downloadable practice test which does not expire as well as 30-day access to the online version.

Before accessing your practice test, you will be required to create an account at if you don’t already have one.

The downloadable practice test is licensed by for a single user and can be downloaded on up to three different devices.

QUESTION 1
You need to capture the required information for the sales department computers to meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run first?

A. Install-Module WindowsAutoPilotIntune
B. Install-Script Get-WindowsAutoPilotInfo
C. Import-AutoPilotCSV
D. Get-WindowsAutoPilotInfo

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What should you configure to meet the technical requirements for the Azure AD-joined computers?

A. Windows Hello for Business from the Endpoint Management admin center.
B. The Accounts options in an endpoint protection profile.
C. The Password Policy settings in a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. A password policy from the Microsoft 365 admin portal.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to prepare for the deployment of the Phoenix office computers.
What should you do first?

A. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
B. Extract the serial number information of each computer to a XML file and upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
C. Extract the serial number information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
D. Generalize the computers and configure the Device settings from the Azure Active Directory admin center.

Correct Answer: A

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comptia a+ certification

What’s on the new CompTIA CS0-001 – CS0-002 CySA+ Exam 2021

May 26, 2021 Lindsay

What’s on the new CompTIA CySA+ exam?
Ensure you are well-prepared on test day with comprehensive online training for CySA+, only from CompTIA. Certkingdom Learn is interactive and self-paced, combining instructional lessons with videos, practice questions, and performance-based questions to help you prepare for your certification exam and a career in IT.

Included in Certkingdom Learn for CySA+:
100% coverage of exam objectives
Over 25 hours of engaging content and videos
12 lessons with scenario-based Performance-Based Questions
120 practice questions with immediate feedback
90-question final assessment

Exclusive Certkingdom Learn features that help you nail the material and ace your exam:
Instructional lessons, images, and videos to help you learn the material
Practice questions and performance-based questions to assess and apply what you know
Achievement badges, flashcards and a game center to keep you engaged
A personalized dashboard to track progress
Daily study tasks and a countdown calendar to keep you on pace

Feel confident when you’ve prepared for your exam with CompTIA Certkingdom Learn!
The new CompTIA CySA+ exam applies behavioral analytics to networks and devices to prevent, detect and combat cybersecurity threats through continuous security monitoring.

Like its predecessor, CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) still covers core cybersecurity analyst skills while emphasizing software and application security, automation, threat hunting and IT regulatory compliance.

With the end goal of proactively defending and continuously improving the security of an organization, people who have CompTIA CySA+ have the hands-on knowledge and skills required to do the following:
Leverage intelligence and threat detection techniques
Analyze and interpret data
Identify and address vulnerabilities
Suggest preventative measures
Effectively respond to and recover from incidents

Download the exam objectives for free to find out everything that’s covered.

How much does CompTIA CySA+ cost?
The retail price for CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) is $370. CompTIA offers numerous ways to reduce this cost. Check out our article on how to save on exam vouchers as well as information about financing options.

How can I train for CompTIA CySA+?
Start by downloading the exam objectives and practice test questions to understand what topics are covered and get examples of questions that you might see. If you’re ready to start studying now, you can work through the self-paced CompTIA Certkingdom Learn and Certkingdom Practice online training products that are available now. The Official CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide eBook for CS0-002 is expected in early June. If classroom study is more your speed, you can also watch for instructor-led training options to come over the next few months.

The amount of time you’ll need to prepare for CompTIA CySA+ depends on your existing knowledge on the topics and your hands-on cybersecurity experience. We recommend that you have CompTIA Network+, CompTIA Security+ or the equivalent knowledge plus a minimum of four years of hands-on information security or related experience.

We also suggest that you dedicate between 30 and 40 hours of studying before sitting for the exam.

Why would I choose CompTIA CySA+ over other cybersecurity certifications?
CompTIA CySA+ is the only intermediate high-stakes cybersecurity analyst certification with hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice questions that covers the most up-to-date core cybersecurity analyst skills and upcoming job skills used by threat intelligence analysts, application security analysts, compliance analysts, incident responders/handlers and threat hunters, bringing new techniques for combating threats inside and outside of the Security Operations Center (SOC).

CompTIA exams are developed through an intensive process that includes workshops where IT pros come together and discuss what knowledge, skills and abilities are required to do certain job roles. So, the topics covered by CompTIA CySA+ match the knowledge, skills and abilities cybersecurity analysts need today.

Can I still take the CompTIA CySA (CS0-001)?
Yes. Older versions of CompTIA exams are generally available for about six months after the new version comes out. The CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-001) exam will be available until October 2020.
I’ve been studying for CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-001). Should I switch gears and study for CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) instead?

If you’ve been studying for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-001), we would recommend reviewing the exam objectives to see how much of what you’ve already studied is on the new exam. If it makes sense for your time and level of knowledge, you may want to switch gears and prepare for the new exam (CS0-002).

Some of the benefits of taking the new CompTIA CySA+ is that it covers the latest subject matter with an emphasis on software and application security, automation, threat hunting and IT regulatory compliance.

The following cybersecurity job roles align with CompTIA CySA+:
Cybersecurity Analyst
Threat intelligence analyst
Application security analyst
Incident response or handler
Threat hunter
Compliance analyst

Keep in mind that if you choose to pursue CS0-001, you must take it before it retires in October 2020 to get your CompTIA CySA+ certification.

What can I expect from the CompTIA CySA+ exam?
You can expect performance-based and multiple-choice questions across five domains:

Threat and Vulnerability Management
Software and Systems Security
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Security Operations and Monitoring
Incident Response
Compliance and Assessment

These domains relate back to the primary job of a cybersecurity analyst, which is to monitor and identify vulnerabilities introduced on the network as a result of nonsecure systems and software, regardless of the language, and respond to the threats.

You should also be familiar with three broad categories of tools used by cybersecurity analysts:
Packet Capture: Wireshark
Intrusion Detection System (IDS): Zeek and Snort
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM): AT&T Cybersecurity/AlienVault OSSIM

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For example, a cybersecurity analyst would need to plan, install, configure, monitor and analyze an IDS or SIEM. Analyzing the output from the tool to determine threats would be an example of a performance-based question you might find on the exam. Or you may find a question on continuous monitoring activities such as log reviews, impact analysis and response. To learn more about potential topics, please download the exam objectives.

Can I go straight to CompTIA CySA+ instead of getting CompTIA Security+?
You can, but it’s not recommended because you need to know how a network works (CompTIA Network+) and how to secure it (CompTIA Security+) before you can analyze it (CompTIA CySA+). The CompTIA Cybersecurity Career Pathway shows how each certification builds on the previous one, and skipping CompTIA Security+ could leave a gap in your baseline cybersecurity skills.

We recommend having a minimum of four years of hands-on information security or related experience before taking the CompTIA CySA+ exam.

How long is CompTIA CySA+ good for, and how can it be renewed?
As with many CompTIA certifications, CySA+ is good for three years. CompTIA offers a number of ways for you to renew your certifications. Learn more in the continuing education (CE) section of our website.

I need to renew my CompTIA Security+ certification. If I pass CompTIA CySA+ will that renew it?
Yes, CompTIA CySA+ will renew CompTIA Security+, since it’s considered a higher-level certification. Learn more about renewing with a higher-level certification in the CE section of our website.

Is CompTIA CySA+ approved by the DoD for 8570 requirements?
Yes! CompTIA CySA+ is U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) 8570 approved. It complies with government regulations under the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA).

DoD 8570, DoD 8570.01-m and DoD 8140 identify the skills needed for a cyber-ready workforce and align those skills with certain IT certifications. Learn more about DoD regulations and how you can apply them in the private sector.

Ready to start studying? Writing out your plan will set you up for success. Download our free training plan worksheet to help get organized and make your dream a reality.

Tech

CTFL_001 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam

May 25, 2021 Lindsay

Audience
The Foundation Level syllabus forms the basis of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board (ISTQB®) Certified Tester Scheme.

ISTQB® Foundation Level is relevant across software delivery practices including Waterfall, Agile, DevOps and Continuous Delivery.

The 2018 Foundation Level qualification is suitable for anyone who needs to demonstrate practical knowledge of the fundamental concepts of software testing including people in roles such as testers, test analysts, test engineers, test consultants, test managers, user acceptance testers and software developers.

It is also appropriate for individuals who need a basic understanding of software testing including project managers, quality managers, software development managers, business analysts, IT directors and management consultants.

The new 2018 syllabus is recognised as a pre-requisite to other ISTQB® certifications where Foundation Level is required (note: all previous releases of Foundation Level, including the 2011 syllabus and “grandfathered” Foundation Level certifications, will remain valid).

Training for 2018 Certified Tester Foundation Level is available from Accredited Training Providers (classroom, virtual and e-learning). We highly recommend attending accredited training as an ISTQB® Member Board will have assessed the materials for relevance and consistency against the syllabus. Information about Accredited Training Providers can be found here or contact your local ISTQB® Member Board or Exam Provider

Self-study, using the syllabus and recommended reading material, is also an option when preparing for the Foundation Level exam. Your local ISTQB® Member Board or Exam Provider will be able to provide information on exams e.g. languages available, where to find an exam centre etc.

Have a look at the Foundation Level introduction video.

Business Outcomes
The Business Outcomes expected of a candidate who has achieved the 2018 Foundation Level certification are as follows:

Promote efficient and effective communication by using a common vocabulary for software testing.
Understand fundamental concepts of software testing.
Demonstrate understanding of how different development and testing practices, and different constraints on testing, may apply in optimizing testing to different contexts.
Contribute effectively in reviews.
Use established techniques for designing tests at all test levels.
Interpret and execute tests from given test specifications. Report on test results.
Understand test management principles for resources, strategies, planning, project control and risk management
Write and communicate clear and understandable defect reports
Understand the project factors that drive the test priorities and test approach
Understand the value that software testing brings to stakeholders
Appreciate how testing activities and work products align with project objectives, measures and targets
Assist in the selection and implementation process of testing tool

Learning Objectives
Learning objectives are indicated for each section in the syllabus and classified as follows:

K1: remember, recognize, recall
K2: understand, explain, give reasons, compare, classify, categorize, give examples, summarize
K3: apply, use
K4: analyze

There are 62 Learning objectives in the 2018 Foundation syllabus:

15 K1
40 K2
7 K3

The 2018 Foundation Level Learning objectives are as follows:
Chapter 1 Fundamentals of Testing

1.1 What is Testing?
LO-1.1.1 Identify typical objectives of testing (K1)
LO-1.1.2 Differentiate testing from debugging (K2)

1.2 Why is Testing Necessary?
LO-1.2.1 Give examples of why testing is necessary (K2)
LO-1.2.2 Describe the relationship between testing and quality assurance and give examples of how testing contributes to higher quality (K2)
LO-1.2.3 Distinguish between error, defect, and failure (K2)
LO-1.2.4 Distinguish between the root cause of a defect and its effects (K2)

1.3 Seven Testing Principles (K2)
LO-1.3.1 Explain the seven principles of testing (K2)

1.4 Test Process
LO-1.4.1 Explain the impact of context on the test process (K2)
LO-1.4.2 Describe the test activities and respective tasks within the test process (K2)
LO-1.4.3 Differentiate the work products that support the test process (K2)
LO-1.4.4 Explain the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and the test work products (K2)

1.5 The Psychology of Testing (K2)
LO-1.5.1 Identify the psychological factors that influence the success of testing (K1)
LO-1.5.2 Explain the difference between the mindset required for test activities and the mindset required for development activities (K2)
Chapter 2 Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle

2.1. Software Development Lifecycle Models
LO-2.1.1 Explain the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle (K2)
LO-2.1.2 Identify reasons why software development lifecycle models must be adapted to the context of project and product characteristics (K1)
LO-2.1.3 Recall characteristics of good testing that are applicable to any life cycle model (K1)

2.2 Test Levels (K2)
LO-2.2.1 Compare the different test levels from the perspective of objectives, test basis, test objects, typical defects and failures, and approaches and responsibilities (K2)

2.3 Test Types (K2)
LO-2.3.1 Compare functional, non-functional and white-box testing (K2)
LO-2.3.2 Recognize that functional and structural tests occur at any test level (K1)
LO-2.3.3 Recognize that functional, non-functional and white-box tests occur at any test level (K1)
LO-2.3.4 Compare the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing (K2)

2.4 Maintenance Testing (K2)
LO-2.4.1 Summarize triggers for maintenance testing (K2)
LO-2.4.2 Describe the role of impact analysis in maintenance testing (K2)
LO-2.4.3 Describe the role of impact analysis in maintenance testing (K2)
Chapter 3 Static Testing

3.1 Static Testing Basics
LO-3.1.1 Recognize types of software work product that can be examined by the different static testing techniques (K1)
LO-3.1.2 Use examples to describe the value of static testing (K2)
LO-3.1.3 Explain the difference between static and dynamic techniques, considering objectives, types of defects to be identified, and the role of these techniques within the software lifecycle (K2)

3.2 Review Process
LO-3.2.1 Summarize the activities of the work product review process (K2)
LO-3.2.2 Recognize the different roles and responsibilities in a formal review (K1)
LO-3.2.3 Explain the differences between different review types: informal review, walkthrough, technical review and inspection (K2)
LO-3.2.4 Apply a review technique to a work product to find defects (K3)
LO-3.2.5 Explain the factors that contribute to a successful review (K2)

Chapter 4 Test Techniques

4.1 Categories of Test Techniques
LO-4.1.1 Explain the characteristics, commonalities, and differences between black-box test techniques, white-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques (K2)

4.2 Black-box Test Techniques
LO-4.2.1 Apply equivalence partitioning to derive test cases from given requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.2 Apply boundary value analysis to derive test cases from given requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.3 Apply decision table testing to derive test cases from given requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.4 Apply state transition testing to derive test cases from given requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.5 Explain how to derive test cases from a use case (K2)

4.3 White-box Test Techniques
LO-4.3.1 Explain statement coverage (K2)
LO-4.3.2 Explain decision coverage (K2)
LO-4.3.3 Explain the value of statement and decision coverage (K2)

4.4 Experience-based Test Techniques
LO-4.4.1 Explain error guessing (K2)
LO-4.4.2 Explain exploratory testing (K2)
LO-4.4.3 Explain checklist-based testing (K2)

Chapter 5 Test Management

5.1 Test Organization
LO-5.1.1 Explain the benefits and drawbacks of independent testing (K2)
LO-5.1.2 Identify the tasks of a test manager and tester (K1)

5.2 Test Planning and Estimation
LO-5.2.1 Summarize the purpose and content of a test plan (K2)
LO-5.2.2 Differentiate between various test approaches (K2)
LO-5.2.3 Give examples of potential entry and exit criteria (K2)
LO-5.2.4 Apply knowledge of prioritization, and technical and logical dependencies, to schedule test execution for a given set of test cases (K3)
LO-5.2.5 Identify factors that influence the effort related to testing (K1)
LO-5.2.6 Explain the difference between two estimation techniques: the metrics-based technique and the expert-based technique (K2)

5.3 Test Monitoring and Control
LO-5.3.1 Recall metrics used for testing (K1)
LO-5.3.2 Summarize the purposes, contents, and audiences for test reports (K2)

5.4 Configuration Management
LO-5.4.1 Summarize how configuration management supports testing (K2)

5.5 Risks and Testing
LO-5.5.1 Define risk level by using likelihood and impact (K1)
LO-5.5.2 Distinguish between project and product risks (K2)
LO-5.5.3 Describe, by using examples, how product risk analysis may influence thoroughness and scope of testing (K2)

5.6 Defect Management
LO-5.6.1 Write a defect report, covering defects found during testing (K3)

Chapter 6. Tool Support for Testing

6.1 Test tool considerations
LO-6.1.1 Classify test tools according to their purpose and the test activities they support (K2)
LO-6.1.2 Identify benefits and risks of test automation (K1)
LO-6.1.3 Remember special considerations for test execution and test management tools (K1)

6.2 Test Planning and Estimation (K3)
LO-6.2.1 Identify the main principles for selecting a tool (K1)
LO-6.2.2 Recall the objectives for using pilot projects to introduce tools (K1)
LO-6.2.3 Identify the success factors for evaluation, implementation, deployment and on-going support of test tools in an organization (K1)

Syllabus
The Foundation Level Syllabus forms the basis for the International Software Testing Qualification at the Foundation Level.

The International Software Testing Qualifications Board® (ISTQB®) provides it to the national examination bodies for them to accredit the training providers and to derive examination questions in their local language.

Training providers will produce courseware and determine appropriate teaching methods for accreditation, and the syllabus will help candidates in their preparation for the examination.
The Certified Tester Foundation Level in Software Testing

The Foundation Level qualification is aimed at anyone involved in software testing. This includes people in roles such as testers, test analysts, test engineers, test consultants, test managers, user acceptance testers and software developers.

This Foundation Level qualification is also appropriate for anyone who wants a basic understanding of software testing, such as project managers, quality managers, software development managers, business analysts, IT directors and management consultants. Holders of the Foundation Certificate will be able to go on to a higher level software testing qualification.

The Foundation Level Syllabus 2018 is available in Materials for download section.

QUESTION 1
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report?

A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project
manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.

A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives?

A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics
package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan?

A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous
and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would
typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains!

A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews

Correct Answer: ABC

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GCP-GC-IMP Genesys Cloud Certified Professional – Implementation Exam

May 24, 2021 Lindsay

Certification Preparation for the Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC) Exam

Let us help you prepare for success! Your instructor will walk through a series of assessments and hands-on exploration to ensure you will know which topics are covered in the exam and what to expect from the exam experience. At the end of the day, you will walk away knowing if there are still areas you need to study, what those areas are, and have access to a live environment for an extra day to practice!
Target Audience

Students who plan to take the exam to be certified
The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional – Contact Center Admin exam introduces the fundamental concepts and major components associated with the Contact Center feature set of the Genesys Cloud platform.

This exam provides an overview of the Genesys Cloud interface and presents scenarios to facilitate your understanding of the administration of a contact center. You will also gain familiarity with daily contact center monitoring and administration tasks.

Note: The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC) certification is obtained by completing the following three exams (Contact Center Administration, Implementation, and Reporting & Analytics). The prerequisite for GCP-GC is the Genesys Cloud Certified Associate (GCA-GC) certification.

Target Audience
The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional – Contact Center Admin exam is intended for system administrators, contact center managers, project managers, and supervisors to help them monitor and administer the contact center. The exam is also useful for anyone else who needs to learn the basic functionality of Genesys Cloud Contact Center.

Course Objectives
Genesys Cloud Collaborate
Basic overview of the Genesys Cloud Platform and Administration
Overview of Genesys Cloud Collaborate
List the features of Genesys Cloud Contact Center
List the three levels of Contact Center licensing
Configure Automatic Call Distribution to optimize customer service
Describe ACD processing
Explain interaction flow and queue design
Evaluation and routing combination
Configure agent utilization
Configure ACD Skills and Language Skills
Configure wrap-up codes
Configure After Call Work
Activate and deactivate agents on queues
Test ACD call routing
Configure ACD email in Admin settings
Test ACD email routing
Describe ACD Messages
Purpose and capabilities of Genesys Cloud Architect
Features of Genesys Cloud Architect
Describe the options for Inbound
Describe how to create and edit System and User Prompts
Genesys Cloud Data Actions Integration
Describe the function and purpose of the Genesys Cloud data actions Integration
Scripting in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Describe Scripts and basic script functionality
Genesys Cloud Outbound Dialing
Describe the Outbound Dialing modes
Explain the use of Contact Lists
Configure and test an Outbound Power Dialing campaign
Use of Reports and Dynamic Views
List the main types of reports and describe their use
List the main Dynamic Views and describe their use
Configure and run an Interaction Details report
Quality Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Quality Policies Overview
Describe how to enable call recording on a Trunk
Create a recording policy
Create and publish an Evaluation form
Quality Evaluator and Quality Administrator dashboards
Workforce Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Workforce Management Overview
Working with Schedules
Benefits of scheduling agents
Create a manual schedule

QUESTION 1
Which license offers features for organizations that require multi-channel based support, including social media along with Workforce Management in their contact center?

A. Genesys Cloud 1
B. Genesys Cloud 2
C. Genesys Cloud 3
D. Genesys Cloud 4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Where can you find people in your organization and add external contacts to the organization?

A. Documents
B. Activity
C. Directory
D. Location

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How many categories of routing are there in a Call Route under the Call Routing page?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You can add more than one outbound route to the contact center.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

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Paloalto Networks PCCSE Prisma Certified Cloud Security Engineer Exam

May 22, 2021 Lindsay

PCCSE: Prisma Certified Cloud

Security Engineer
The Prisma Certified Cloud Security Engineer (PCCSE) certification validates the knowledge, skills and abilities required to onboard, deploy and administer all aspects of Prisma Cloud. Individuals with the PCCSE certification will have demonstrated in-depth knowledge of Palo Alto Networks Prisma Cloud technology and resources .

Certification Objectives
The cloud has changed all aspects of application development lifecycles. The Prisma Cloud platform offers the industry’s broadest security and compliance coverage—for applications, data, and the entire cloud native technology stack—throughout the development lifecycle and across multi- and hybrid cloud environments. The certification objectives cover Prisma Cloud, Prisma Cloud Enterprise, and Prisma Cloud Compute.

Palo Alto Networks Certifications not only benefits organizations, but also benefits the individuals by showcasing their knowledge of the Palo Alto Networks product portfolio. It provides an immediate improvement of their professional profile and aligns them with the fastest-growing security company for those with their sights on the future.

Target Audience
Anyone interested in demonstrating knowledge, skill and abilities with Prisma Cloud including cloud security, customer success, DevOps, cloud support, professional services and Appsec engineers, cybersecurity architects, and team leads.

Enablement Path
This certification has no prerequisites. Recommended training include s the Prisma Cloud Monitoring and Securing (EDU-150) course, the Prisma Cloud: Onboarding and Operationalizing (EDU-152) course, PCC training, and experience with containers, cloud architecture and computing.

Palo Alto Networks Education
The technical curriculum developed and authorized by Palo Alto Networks and delivered by Palo Alto Networks Authorized Training Partners helps provide the knowledge and expertise that prepare you to protect our digital way of life. Our trusted certifications validate your knowledge of the Palo Alto Networks product portfolio and your ability to help prevent successful cyberattacks and safely enable applications.

Domain Weight (%)
Install and Upgrade 18%
Visibility, Security and Compliance 20%
Cloud Workload Protection Platform 22%
Data Loss Prevention 9%
Web Application and API Security 5%
Dev SecOps Security (Shift-Left) 11%
Prisma Cloud Administration (inc. Compute) 15%
Domain 1 Install and upgrade 18%

Task 1.1 Deploy and manage Console for the Compute Edition
1.1.1 Locate and download Prisma Cloud release software.
1.1.2 Install Console in onebox configuration.
1.1.3 Install Console in Kubernetes.
1.1.4 Perform upgrade on Console.

Task 1.2 Deploy and manage Defenders
1.2.1 Deploy Container Defenders.
1.2.2 Deploy Host Defenders.
1.2.3 Deploy Serverless Defenders.
1.2.4 Deploy App-embedded Defenders.
1.2.5 Configure networking for Defender to Console connectivity.
1.2.6 Perform upgrade on Defenders.

Domain 2 Visibility, Security and Compliance 20%
Task 2.1 Configure policies
2.1.1 Understand policies related to compliance standards.
2.1.2 Build custom policies.
2.1.3 Identify policy types.

Task 2.2 Configure alerting and notifications
2.2.1 Understand alert states.
2.2.2 Build alert rules.
2.2.3 Create alert notifications.
2.2.4 Investigate alerts.

Task 2.3 Understand third-party integrations
2.3.1 Understand inbound and outbound notifications.

Task 2.4 Perform ad hoc investigations
2.4.1 Investigate resource configuration with RQL.
2.4.2 Investigate user activity using RQL.
2.4.3 Investigate network activity using RQL.
2.4.4 Investigate anomalous user event(s)..

Task 2.5 Identify assets in a Cloud account
2.5.1 Identify inventory of resources in a cloud account.
2.5.2 Identify how to check resource configuration history.
Task 2.6 Use Prisma Cloud APIs
2.6.1 Use APIs for automation of tasks.
2.6.2 Use APIs for custom queries.

Domain 3 Cloud Workload Protection Platform 22%
Task 3.1 Monitor and Protect Against Image Vulnerabilities
3.1.1 Understand how to Investigate Image Vulnerabilities.
3.1.2 Configure Image Vulnerability Policy.

Task 3.2 Monitor and Protect Host Vulnerabilities
3.2.1 Understand how to Investigate Host Vulnerabilities.
3.2.2 Configure Host Vulnerability Policy.

Task 3.3 Monitor and Enforce Image/Container Compliance
3.3.1 Understand how to Investigate Image and Container Compliance.
3.3.2 Configure Image and Container Compliance Policy.

Task 3.4 Monitor and Enforce Host Compliance
3.4.1 Understand how to Investigate Host Compliance.
3.4.2 Configure Host Compliance Policy.

Task 3.5 Monitor and Enforce Container Runtime
3.5.1 Understand container models.
3.5.2 Configure container runtime policies.
3.5.3 Understand container runtime audits.
3.5.4 Investigate incidents using Incident Explorer.

Task 3.6 Configure cloud native application firewalls
3.6.1 Configure cloud native application firewall policies.
Task 3.7 Monitor and Protect Against Serverless Vulnerabilities
3.7.1 Understand how to Investigate Serverless Vulnerabilities.
3.7.2 Configure Serverless Vulnerability Policy.
3.7.3 Configure Serverless Auto-Protect functionality.

Domain 4 Data Loss Prevention 9%
Task 4.1 Onboarding
4.1.1 Configure CloudTrail and SNS.
4.1.2 Configure Scan options.

Task 4.2 Use Data Dashboard features
4.2.1 Classify objects.
4.2.2 List object permissions for visibility.
4.2.3 Viewing Data inventory.
4.2.4 Viewing Resource Explorer.
4.2.5 List Object Identifiers.
4.2.6 Knowing Object exposure states.

Task 4.3 Assess Data Policies and Alerts
4.3.1 Differentiate differences between malware and regular policies.
4.3.2 Understand the scope of alert notifications.

Domain 5 Web Application and API Security 5%
Task 5.1 Configure CNAF policies

Domain 6 Dev SecOps Security (Shift-Left) 11%
Task 6.1 Implement scanning for IAC templates
6.1.1 Differentiate between Terraform and Cloudformation scanning configurations.
6.1.2 List OOTB IAC scanning integrations.
6.1.3 Configure API scanning for IAC templates.

Task 6.2 Configure policies in Console for IAC scanning
6.2.1 Review OOTB policies for IAC scanning.
6.2.2 Configure custom build policies for IAC scanning.

Task 6.3 Integrate Compute scans into CI/CD pipeline
6.3.1 Integrate container scans into CI/CD pipeline.
6.3.2 Integrate serverless scans into CI/CD pipeline.
6.3.3 Identify different options for scanning: Twistclip and plugins.
Task 6.4 Configure CI policies for Compute scanning
6.4.1 Review default CI policies for Compute scanning.
6.4.2 Configure custom CI policies for Compute scanning.

Domain 7 Prisma Cloud Administration -include Compute 15%
Task 7.1 Onboard accounts
7.1.1 Onboarding cloud accounts.
7.1.2 Configure account groups.

Task 7.2 Configure RBAC
7.2.1 Differentiate between Prisma Cloud and Compute roles.
7.2.2 Configure Prisma Cloud and Compute roles.

Task 7.3 Configure admission controller
7.3.1 Configure defender as an admission controller.
7.3.2 Create OPA policies.

Task 7.4 Configure logging
7.4.1 Familiarize with audit logging.
7.4.2 Enable defender logging.

Task 7.5 Manage enterprise settings
7.5.1 Differentiate UEBA settings.
7.5.2 Configure idle timeout.
7.5.3 Set autoenable policies.
7.5.4 Set mandatory dismissal reason(s).
7.5.5 Enable user attribution.

Task 7.6 Understand third-party integrations
7.6.1 Understand inbound and outbound notifications.
7.6.2 Configure third-party integration for alerts.

Task 7.7 Leverage Compute APIs
7.7.1 Authenticate with APIs.
7.7.2 Locate API documentation.
7.7.3 List policies by API.
7.7.4 Manage alerts using APIs.
7.7.5 Create reports using APIs.
7.7.6 Download vulnerability results via API.

QUESTION 1
Given a default deployment of Console, a customer needs to identify the alerted compliance checks that are set by default.
Where should the customer navigate in Console?

A. Monitor > Compliance
B. Defend > Compliance
C. Manage > Compliance
D. Custom > Compliance

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/prisma/prisma-cloud/prisma-cloud-admin-compute/compliance/
manage_compliance.html

QUESTION 2
Which container scan is constructed correctly?
A. twistcli images scan -u api -p api –address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 — container myimage/latest
B. twistcli images scan –docker-address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/ latest
C. twistcli images scan -u api -p api –address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 –details myimage/latest
D. twistcli images scan -u api -p api –docker-address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/latest

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The development team wants to fail CI jobs where a specific CVE is contained within the image.
How should the development team configure the pipeline or policy to produce this outcome?

A. Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Jenkins or twistcli.
B. Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Defender running the scan.
C. Set the specific CVE exception as an option using the magic string in the Console.
D. Set the specific CVE exception in Console’s CI policy.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three types of classifications are available in the Data Security module? (Choose three.)

A. Personally identifiable information
B. Malicious IP
C. Compliance standard
D. Financial information
E. Malware

Correct Answer: CDE

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Tech

CIS-Discovery Certified Implementation Specialist-Discovery Exam

May 19, 2021 Lindsay

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Discovery Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Discovery certified.

Exam Purpose
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Discovery exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to configure, administer, implement, and maintain the Discovery application within the ServiceNow platform.

Exam Audience
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Discovery exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Implementer or Administrator.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Discovery exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Get Started with Now Create
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• CMDB Fundamentals
• Discovery Fundamentals –
*Upon completion, the candidate will be eligible to collect a voucher for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Discovery exam.

Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• CIS-Discovery: Certification Test Prep
• Certified System Administrator
• ITIL v3 Foundations Certified

Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• Discovery Product Documentation

Additional Recommended Experience
• Intermediate or above Windows and Unix administration skills
• Intermediate or above SNMP query knowledge
• Intermediate or above JavaScript and regular expression scripting skills
• Introductory or above network administration knowledge
• Six (6) months field experience participating in implementing ServiceNow ITOM solutions, specifically Discovery
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow Discovery deployments
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content.

1 = 35%
Discovery Pattern Design
• Pattern Designer (i.e. Debug, Steps, Sections)
• Operations (i.e. Match, Parse variable, Parse file, Parsing strategies) –
• Syntax (i.e. Variables, Attributes, Regex)
• Application Identification and Connection Sections (Patterns, Identification and Connection Sections, Troubleshooting)

2 = 35%
Discovery Configuration
• Discovery Setup (i.e. Behaviors, Clusters, IP Services, Schedules)
• Discovery Process Flow (i.e. PCIE Phases, ECC Queue, Status, Discovered Device)
• Discovery Troubleshooting (i.e. Discovery Errors, Duplicates, Credentials)

3 = 15%
Configuration Management Database
• CI Class Manager (i.e. CMDB Health Dashboard, CI Class Manager, CMDB Tables, Reclassification, CMDB Relationships)
• CMDB Identification and Reconciliation (i.e. CI Identifiers, Reconciliation Definitions, Datasource Precedence, CMDB De-duplication)

4 = 15%
Discovery Engagement Readiness
• Planning (i.e. MID Server Requirements and Specifications)
• Operationalizing IT (i.e. MID Server and Discovery Dashboards, Benefits)
• Discovery Solution (i.e. Business Value, Definition, Positioning)

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Discovery Fundamentals training prerequisite. Voucher codes are nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Discovery exam only.

During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.

Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.

NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure

The exam consists of approximately (45) questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response most accurately answers the question.

Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times at a cost.

QUESTION 1
For the Parse Variable pattern operation, what is required to have two different parsing methods to populate variables?

A. Two different Debug Mode sessions.
B. A tabular and a scalar variable.
C. Two different steps.
D. Two different Define Parsing selections on the same step.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which best describes Discovery schedule of type Configuration Item?

A. Verifies Configuration Item data from the scanned IP ranges against the data in the CMDB.
B. Creates only a list of discovered IPs in both IPv4 and IPv6 formats.
C. Collects complete information from the scanned IP ranges and sends it to the CMDB.
D. Directly populates records in the assets table.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When installing a MID Server on a Windows platform, which right must be associated when creating a Service Account?

A. Local Admin
B. Domain Admin
C. MID Server User Role
D. Log on as service

Correct Answer: A

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NSE7_PBC-6.4 Fortinet NSE 7 – Public Cloud Security 6.4 Exam

May 17, 2021 Lindsay

Description
The NSE 7 Network Security Architect designation recognizes your advanced skills ans ability to deploy, administer, and troubleshoot Fortinet security solutions.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 7 Certification

We recommend this course for network and security professionals who are involved in the design, administration, and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions.

Program Requirements
You must successfully pass at least one of the NSE 7 exams:
Fortinet NSE 7 – Advanced Analytics
Fortinet NSE 7 – Advanced Threat Protection
Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall
Fortinet NSE 7 – OT Security
Fortinet NSE 7 – Public Cloud Security
Fortinet NSE 7 – SD-WAN
Fortinet NSE 7 – Secure Access

To prepare for the certification exams, we recommend that you take the NSE 7 product courses. The courses are optional.

Fortinet NSE 7 – Public Cloud Security 6.4
Exam series: NSE7_PBC-6.4
Number of questions: 30
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiOS 6.4, FortiWeb 6.4
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 7 Network Security Architect—Public Cloud Security
NSE 7 Certification
The Fortinet Network Security Architect designation identifies your advanced skills in deploying, administering, and troubleshooting Fortinet security solutions. We recommend this certification for network and security professionals who are involved in the advanced administration and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 7—Public Cloud Security 6.4 Exam
The Fortinet NSE 7—Public Cloud Security 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 7 Network Security Architect program, and recognizes the successful candidate’s knowledge and expertise with Fortinet solutions in public cloud network environments.

The exam tests applied knowledge of the integration and administration of Fortinet public cloud security solutions, and includes design scenarios, configuration extracts, and troubleshooting captures.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 7—Public Cloud Security 6.4 exam is intended for network and security professionals who are responsible for the integration and administration of an enterprise public cloud security infrastructure composed of multiple Fortinet solutions.

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 7— Public Cloud Security 6.4
Exam series NSE7_PBC-6.4
Time allowed 60 minutes
Exam questions 30 multiple-choice questions
Scoring Pass or fail, a score report is available from your Pearson VUE account
Language English and Japanese
Product version FortiGate 6.4
FortiWeb 6.4

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
Explain cloud-specific architectural requirements, deploy and integrate Fortinet solutions with public cloud providers, and troubleshoot public cloud components.

l Fortinet Solution for Amazon Web Services (AWS)
l Identify Fortinet WAF solutions for AWS
l Review AWS basic concepts and componets
l Configure high availability (HA), load balancing, and autoscaling
l Identify traffic patterns, MPLS, IPsec, Direct Connect
l Secure the public cloud
l Apply auto scaling, resilience / availability, transit VPCs, load balancing
l Implement marketplace deployment, templates, sizing, automation
l Apply FortiGate AWS SDN integration
l Choose Fortinet products licensing in AWS Marketplace: PAYG, BYOL
l Fortinet Solution for Microsoft Azure
l Identify Azure Security Center, Azure Stack
l Identify traffic patterns, MPLS, IPsec, ExpressRoute, Traffic Manager
l Configure resilience / availability, Transit VNet, load balancing, east-west inspection
l Configure HA, load balancing, and autoscaling
l Choose Fortinet products licensing in Azure Marketplace: PAYG, BYOL
l Implement marketplace deployment, templates, sizing, automation
l Fortinet Solution for Google Cloud Platform (GCP)
l Deploy FortiGate in GCP
l Identify traffic patterns, MPLS, IPsec, and dedicated interconnection
l Perform installation, sizing, and licensing: BYOL
l FortiCASB and FortiCWP
l Review FortiCASB architecture and supported applications
l Review FortiCWP architecture
l Configure FortiCASB

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
l NSE 7 Public Cloud Security 6.4

Other Resources
l FortiOS – AWS Cookbook 6.4
l FortiOS – Azure Cookbook 6.4
l FortiOS – GCP Cookbook 6.4

Experience
l Familiarity with various deployments in AWS, Azure, and GCP

Exam Sample Questions
A set of sample questions is available from the NSE Training Institute. These questions sample the exam content in question type and content scope. However, the questions do not necessarily represent all the exam content, nor are they intended to assess an individual’s readiness to take the certification exam.
See the NSE Training Institute for the course that includes the sample questions.

Examination Policies and Procedures
The NSE Training Institute recommends that candidates review exam policies and procedures before registering for the exam. Access important information on the Program Policies page, and find answers to common questions on the FAQ page.

QUESTION 1
When configuring the FortiCASB policy, which three configuration options are available? (Choose three.)

A. Intrusion prevention policies
B. Threat protection policies
C. Data loss prevention policies
D. Compliance policies
E. Antivirus policies

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
You have been tasked with deploying FortiGate VMs in a highly available topology on the Amazon Web
Services (AWS) cloud. The requirements for your deployment are as follows:
• You must deploy two FortiGate VMs in a single virtual private cloud (VPC), with an external elastic load balancer which will distribute ingress traffic from the internet to both FortiGate VMs in an active-active
topology.
• Each FortiGate VM must have two elastic network interfaces: one will connect to a public subnet and other will connect to a private subnet.
• To maintain high availability, you must deploy the FortiGate VMs in two different availability zones.

How many public and private subnets will you need to configure within the VPC?

A. One public subnet and two private subnets
B. Two public subnets and one private subnet
C. Two public subnets and two private subnets
D. One public subnet and one private subnet

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are deploying Amazon Web Services (AWS) GuardDuty to monitor malicious or unauthorized behaviors related to AWS resources. You will also use the Fortinet aws-lambda-guardduty script to translate feeds from AWS GuardDuty findings into a list of malicious IP addresses. FortiGate can then consume this list as an external threat feed.

Which Amazon AWS services must you subscribe to in order to use this feature?

A. GuardDuty, CloudWatch, S3, Inspector, WAF, and Shield.
B. GuardDuty, CloudWatch, S3, and DynamoDB.
C. Inspector, Shield, GuardDuty, S3, and DynamoDB.
D. WAF, Shield, GuardDuty, S3, and DynamoDB.

Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft

SC-400 Microsoft Information Protection Administrator Exam

May 11, 2021 Lindsay

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator
The Information Protection Administrator plans and implements controls that meet organizational compliance needs. This person is responsible for translating requirements and compliance controls into technical implementation. They assist organizational control owners to become and stay compliant.

They work with information technology (IT) personnel, business application owners, human resources, and legal stakeholders to implement technology that supports policies and controls necessary to sufficiently address regulatory requirements for their organization. They also work with the compliance and security leadership such as a Chief Compliance Officer and Security Officer to evaluate the full breadth of associated enterprise risk and partner to develop those policies.

This person defines applicable requirements and tests IT processes and operations against those policies and controls. They are responsible for creating policies and rules for content classification, data loss prevention, governance, and protection.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

Related exams: none
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: implement information protection; implement data loss prevention; and implement information governance.

Skills measured
Implement information protection (35-40%)
Implement data loss prevention (30-35%)
Implement information governance (25-30%)

Audience Profile
The Information Protection Administrator plans and implements controls that meet organizational compliance needs. This person is responsible for translating requirements and compliance controls into technical implementation. They assist organizational control owners to become and stay compliant. They work with information technology (IT) personnel, business application owners, human resources, and legal stakeholders to implement technology that supports policies and controls necessary to sufficiently address regulatory requirements for their organization. They also work with the compliance and security leadership such as a Chief Compliance Officer and Security Officer to evaluate the full breadth of associated enterprise risk and partner to develop those policies.

This person defines applicable requirements and tests IT processes and operations against those policies and controls. They are responsible for creating policies and rules for content classification, data loss prevention, governance, and protection.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Implement Information Protection (35-40%)
Create and manage sensitive information types
 select a sensitive information type based on an organization’s requirements
 create and manage custom sensitive information types
 create custom sensitive information types with exact data match
 implement document fingerprinting
 create a keyword dictionary

Create and manage trainable classifiers
 identify when to use trainable classifiers
 create a trainable classifier
 verify a trainable classifier is performing properly
 retrain a classifier

Implement and manage sensitivity labels
 identify roles and permissions for administering sensitivity labels
 create sensitivity labels
 configure and manage sensitivity label policies
 apply sensitivity labels to Microsoft Teams, Microsoft 365 groups, and SharePoint sites
 configure and publish automatic labeling policies (excluding MCAS scenarios)
 monitor label usage by using label analytics
 apply bulk classification to on-premises data by using the AIP unified labelling scanner
 manage protection settings and marking for applied sensitivity labels
 apply protections and restrictions to email including content marking, usage, permission, encryption, expiration, etc.
 apply protections and restrictions to files including content marking, usage, permission, encryption, expiration, etc.

Plan and implement encryption for email messages
 define requirements for implementing Office 365 Message Encryption
 implement Office 365 Advanced Message Encryption

Implement Data Loss Prevention (30-35%)
Create and configure data loss prevention policies
 recommend a data loss prevention solution for an organization
 configure data loss prevention for policy precedence
 configure policies for Microsoft Exchange email
 configure policies for Microsoft SharePoint sites
 configure policies for Microsoft OneDrive accounts
 configure policies for Microsoft Teams chat and channel messages
 integrate Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) with Microsoft Information Protection
 configure policies in Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS)
 implement data loss prevention policies in test mode

Implement and monitor Microsoft Endpoint data loss prevention
 configure policies for endpoints
 configure Endpoint data loss prevention settings
 recommend configurations that enable devices for Endpoint data loss prevention policies
 monitor endpoint activities

Manage and monitor data loss prevention policies and activities
 manage and respond to data loss prevention policy violations
 review and analyze data loss prevention reports
 manage permissions for data loss prevention reports
 manage data loss prevention violations in Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS)

Implement Information Governance (25-30%)
Configure retention policies and labels
 create and apply retention labels
 create and apply retention label policies
 configure and publish auto-apply label policies

Manage data retention in Microsoft 365
 create and apply retention policies in Microsoft SharePoint and OneDrive
 create and apply retention policies in Microsoft Teams
 recover content in Microsoft Teams, SharePoint, and OneDrive
 recover content in Microsoft Exchange
 implement retention policies and tags in Microsoft Exchange
 apply mailbox holds in Microsoft Exchange
 implement Microsoft Exchange Online archiving policies

Implement records management in Microsoft 365
 configure labels for records management
 manage and migrate retention requirements with a file plan
 configure automatic retention using File Plan descriptors
 classify records using retention labels and policies
 implement in-place records management in Microsoft SharePoint
 configure event-based retention
 manage disposition of records

QUESTION 1
You create three sensitivity labels named Sensitivity1, Sensitivity2, and Sensitivity3 and perform the following actions:
Publish Sensitivity1.
Create an auto-labeling policy for Sensitivity2.
You plan to create a file policy named Policy1 in Microsoft Cloud App Security.
Which sensitivity labels can you apply to Microsoft SharePoint Online in Policy1?

A. Sensitivity1 only
B. Sensitivity1, Sensitivity2, and Sensitivity3
C. Sensitivity2 only
D. Sensitivity1 and Sensitivity2 only

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are implementing a data classification solution.
The research department at your company requires that documents containing programming code be labeled as Confidential.
The department provides samples of the code from its document library. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?

A. Create a custom classifier.
B. Create a sensitive info type that uses Exact Data Match (EDM).
C. Use the source code classifier.
D. Create a sensitive info type that uses a regular expression.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a new Microsoft 365 tenant.
You need to ensure that custom trainable classifiers can be created in the tenant.
To which role should you be assigned to perform the configuration?

A. Security administrator
B. Security operator
C. Global administrator
D. Compliance administrator

Correct Answer: D

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SAP

C_TS452_2020 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP S/4HANA Sourcing and Procurement Exam

May 8, 2021 Lindsay

Delivery Methods: Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 61%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

Description
The “SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP S/4HANA Sourcing and Procurement” certification exam verifies that the candidate has the fundamental and core knowledge in the area of sourcing and procurement required for the consultant profile. This certificate proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and can implement the knowledge practically in projects to contribute to the success of the planning and implementation phases in a mentored role. Previous project experience is not necessarily a prerequisite to pass this exam.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Procurement Processes > 12%
Describe and execute basic and specific procurement processes, e.g. standard procurement, subcontracting, self-service procurement etc.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
TS452 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4500 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4520 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4510 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Enterprise Structure and Master Data > 12%
Determine and configure organizational levels and master data for procurement processes.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
TS452 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4500 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4550 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4520 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Configuration of Purchasing > 12%
Configure settings in purchasing, e.g. document types, account assignment categories, output processing and release procedures.

TS452 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4550 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4520 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Inventory Management and Physical Inventory 8% – 12%

Process goods receipts, goods issues, transfer postings, and special inventory processes. Differentiate the types of physical inventory.

TS452 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4510 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Valuation and Account Assignment 8% – 12%

Understand and configure account determination and valuation.

TS452 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4550 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Invoice Verification 8% – 12%

Perform and configure invoice verification, manage variances and blocks, enter subsequent debits/credits, enter delivery costs, handle credit memos and reversals, and apply GR/IR account maintenance functions.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4515 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Sources of Supply 8% – 12%

Articulate important elements of price determination and maintain and configure purchasing info records, central contracts, scheduling agreements, price changes.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4520 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Purchasing Optimization 8% – 12%

Maintain source lists, apply quota arrangements, define priorities, block sources of supply, and use catalogs. Assign and process purchase requisitions and monitor order confirmations and deliveries.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4520 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Analytics in Sourcing and Procurement < 8%

Apply embedded analytics capabilities to analyze procurement KPIs.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4500 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Consumption-Based Planning < 8%

Explain and set up MRP. Perform a planning run using different options.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4525 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

SAP S/4HANA User Experience < 8%

Identify key capabilities of SAP Fiori UX and use the SAP Fiori Launchpad to navigate.

TS450 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

—– OR —–

S4500 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.
SAP Global Certification FAQ – Overview
SAP Global Certification FAQ – Exam Process
SAP Global Certification FAQ – Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an end-to-end solution in Streamlined Procure to Pay?

A. Operational Procurement
B. Supplier Evaluation
C. Purchase Order Processing
D. Invoice Processing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What are benefits of self-service requisitioning? (Choose two.)

A. Increased no-touch rate for purchase orders
B. Decreased number of purchase contracts
C. Integrated update function for material master data
D. Reduced procurement costs

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which of these are layers in SAP Best Practice content? (Choose three.)

A. Solution packages
B. Scope items
C. Building blocks
D. Configuration guides
E. Process diagrams

Correct Answer: ABC

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