Category Archives: Cisco

350-201 Performing CyberOps Using Core Security Technologies (CBRCOR) Exam

350-201 CBRCOR
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional, Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Core
Duration: 120 minutes
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to core cybersecurity operations, including:
Fundamentals
Techniques
Processes
Automation


Exam Description:
Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies v1.0 (CBRCOR 350-201) is a 120-minute exam that is associated with the Cisco CyberOps Professional Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of core cybersecurity operations including cybersecurity fundamentals, techniques, processes, and automation. The course Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Fundamentals
1.1 Interpret the components within a playbook
1.2 Determine the tools needed based on a playbook scenario
1.3 Apply the playbook for a common scenario (for example, unauthorized elevation of privilege, DoS and DDoS, website defacement)
1.4 Infer the industry for various compliance standards (for example, PCI, FISMA, FedRAMP,

SOC, SOX, PCI, GDPR, Data Privacy, and ISO 27101)
1.5 Describe the concepts and limitations of cyber risk insurance
1.6 Analyze elements of a risk analysis (combination asset, vulnerability, and threat)
1.7 Apply the incident response workflow
1.8 Describe characteristics and areas of improvement using common incident response metrics
1.9 Describe types of cloud environments (for example, IaaS platform)
1.10 Compare security operations considerations of cloud platforms (for example, IaaS, PaaS)

30% 2.0 Techniques
2.1 Recommend data analytic techniques to meet specific needs or answer specific questions
2.2 Describe the use of hardening machine images for deployment
2.3 Describe the process of evaluating the security posture of an asset
2.4 Evaluate the security controls of an environment, diagnose gaps, and recommend improvement
2.5 Determine resources for industry standards and recommendations for hardening of systems
2.6 Determine patching recommendations, given a scenario
2.7 Recommend services to disable, given a scenario
2.8 Apply segmentation to a network
2.9 Utilize network controls for network hardening
2.10 Determine SecDevOps recommendations (implications)
2.11 Describe use and concepts related to using a Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) to automate intelligence
2.12 Apply threat intelligence using tools
2.13 Apply the concepts of data loss, data leakage, data in motion, data in use, and data at rest based on common standards
2.14 Describe the different mechanisms to detect and enforce data loss prevention techniques
2.14.a host-based
2.14.b network-based
2.14.c application-based
2.14.d cloud-based
2.15 Recommend tuning or adapting devices and software across rules, filters, and policies
2.16 Describe the concepts of security data management
2.17 Describe use and concepts of tools for security data analytics
2.18 Recommend workflow from the described issue through escalation and the automation needed for resolution
2.19 Apply dashboard data to communicate with technical, leadership, or executive stakeholders
2.20 Analyze anomalous user and entity behavior (UEBA)
2.21 Determine the next action based on user behavior alerts
2.22 Describe tools and their limitations for network analysis (for example, packet capture tools, traffic analysis tools, network log analysis tools)
2.23 Evaluate artifacts and streams in a packet capture file
2.24 Troubleshoot existing detection rules
2.25 Determine the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) from an attack

30% 3.0 Processes
3.1 Prioritize components in a threat model
3.2 Determine the steps to investigate the common types of cases
3.3 Apply the concepts and sequence of steps in the malware analysis process:
3.3.a Extract and identify samples for analysis (for example, from packet capture or packet analysis tools)
3.3.b Perform reverse engineering
3.3.c Perform dynamic malware analysis using a sandbox environment
3.3.d Identify the need for additional static malware analysis
3.3.e Perform static malware analysis
3.3.f Summarize and share results
3.4 Interpret the sequence of events during an attack based on analysis of traffic patterns
3.5 Determine the steps to investigate potential endpoint intrusion across a variety of platform types (for example, desktop, laptop, IoT, mobile devices)
3.6 Determine known Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) and Indicators of Attack (IOAs), given a scenario
3.7 Determine IOCs in a sandbox environment (includes generating complex indicators)
3.8 Determine the steps to investigate potential data loss from a variety of vectors of modality (for example, cloud, endpoint, server, databases, application), given a scenario
3.9 Recommend the general mitigation steps to address vulnerability issues
3.10 Recommend the next steps for vulnerability triage and risk analysis using industry scoring systems (for example, CVSS) and other techniques

20% 4.0 Automation
4.1 Compare concepts, platforms, and mechanisms of orchestration and automation
4.2 Interpret basic scripts (for example, Python)
4.3 Modify a provided script to automate a security operations task
4.4 Recognize common data formats (for example, JSON, HTML, CSV, XML)
4.5 Determine opportunities for automation and orchestration
4.6 Determine the constraints when consuming APIs (for example, rate limited, timeouts, and payload)
4.7 Explain the common https: response codes associated with REST APIs
4.8 Evaluate the parts of an https: response (response code, headers, body)
4.9 Interpret API authentication mechanisms: basic, custom token, and API keys
4.10 Utilize Bash commands (file management, directory navigation, and environmental variables)
4.11 Describe components of a CI/CD pipeline
4.12 Apply the principles of DevOps practices
4.13 Describe the principles of Infrastructure as Code

QUESTION 1
A threat actor attacked an organization’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute
timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The
threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A
second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When
the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was
disconnected, and the administrator’s account was disabled. Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server
B. accessing the server with financial data
C. accessing multiple servers
D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized
individual to enter a secured premise. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to
analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access
B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired
C. Change access controls to high risk assets in the enterprise
D. Identify movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives
have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to
NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)

A. incident response playbooks
B. asset vulnerability assessment
C. report of staff members with asset relations
D. key assets and executives
E. malware analysis report
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability?

A. Perform a vulnerability assessment
B. Conduct a data protection impact assessment
C. Conduct penetration testing
D. Perform awareness testing

Correct Answer: B

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300-615 Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-615 DCIT) Exam

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of troubleshooting a data center infrastructure, including:

Network
Compute platforms
Storage network
Automation
Management and operations

Exam preparation
Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)

Exam Description
The Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure v1.0 (DCIT 300-615) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Data Center and Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center Operations certifications. This exam certifies a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting a data center infrastructure including network, compute platforms, storage network, automation, management and operations. The course, Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Troubleshoot routing protocols
1.1.a OSPFv2, OSPFv3
1.1.b MP-BGP
1.1.c PIM
1.1.d FHRP (HSRP, VRRP)

1.2 Troubleshoot switching protocols, such as RSTP+, LACP, and vPC

1.3 Troubleshoot overlay protocols, such as VXLAN EVPN and OTV


1.4 Troubleshoot Application Centric Infrastructure
1.4.a Fabric discovery
1.4.b Access policies
1.4.c VMM domain integration
1.4.d Tenant policies
1.4.e Packet flow (unicast, multicast, and broadcast)
1.4.f External connectivity

2.1 Troubleshoot Cisco Unified Computing System rack servers

2.2 Troubleshoot Cisco Unified Computing System blade chassis

2.2.a Infrastructure such as chassis, power, IOM
2.2.b Network (VLANs, pools and policies, templates, QoS)
2.2.c Storage (SAN connectivity, FC zoning, VSANs, pools, policies, templates)
2.2.d Server pools and boot policies

2.3 Troubleshoot packet flow from server to the fabric

2.4 Troubleshoot hardware interoperability
2.4.a Converged Network Adapters / port expanders
2.4.b Firmware
2.4.c I/O modules / FEX
2.4.d Fabric interconnects

2.5 Troubleshoot firmware upgrades, packages, and interoperability

3.1 Troubleshoot Fibre Channel
3.1.a Switched fabric initialization
3.1.b Fibre Channel buffer credit starvation
3.1.c FCID
3.1.d Cisco Fabric Services
3.1.e Zoning
3.1.f Device alias
3.1.g NPV and NPIV
3.1.h VSAN

3.2 Troubleshoot FCoE Cisco Unified Fabric (FIP, DCB)

4.1 Troubleshoot automation and scripting tools
4.1.a EEM
4.1.b Scheduler

4.2 Troubleshoot programmability
4.2.a Bash shell and guest shell for NX-OS
4.2.b REST API
4.2.c JSON and XML encodings

5.1 Troubleshoot firmware upgrades, packages, and interoperability

5.2 Troubleshoot integration of centralized management


5.3 Troubleshooting network security
5.3.a Fabric binding and port security
5.3.b AAA and RBAC
5.3.c First-hop security such as dynamic ARP, DHCP snooping, and port security
5.3.d Troubleshoot CoPP

5.4 Troubleshoot ACI security domains and role mapping


5.5 Troubleshoot data center compute security
5.5.a Troubleshoot AAA and RBAC
5.5.b Troubleshoot key management

5.6 Troubleshoot storage security
5.6.a AAA and RBAC
5.6.b Port security
5.6.c Fabric binding

QUESTION 1
A vPC Type-1 inconsistency between two vPC peers in a VXLAN EVPN setup is discovered. Which two actions need to be attempted to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the NVE interfaces to be Up on both switches.
B. Set a different distributed gateway virtual MAC address.
C. Set a different secondary IP addresses on NVE source-interface.
D. Configure the same VNI to multicast group maping.
E. Set a different primary IP addresses on NVE source-interface.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
A mission-critical server is connected to site A. Connectivity to this server is lost from site B because the MAC
route is missing in the OTV VDC of the Cisco Nexus 7000 in site B due to MAC aging. Which action allows the
flooding of the unknown unicast MAC on the Nexus 7000 in the OTV VDC?

A. Use route map to statically advertise this MAC and redistribute with IS-IS.
B. Unknown unicast flooding is not allowed.
C. Use the otv flood mac <> command to selectively flood traffic for a given MAC.
D. Use the otv isis bfd <> command to configure BFD protocol.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An engineer troubleshoots a fabric discovery failure. Which two requirements about switch connectivity must be verified to solve the problem? (Choose two.)

A. A Cisco APIC must be attached to a spine node only.
B. A Cisco APIC must be attached to leaf nodes.
C. Spine nodes must connect to other spine nodes.
D. A Cisco APIC must be dual-attached to two separate spine nodes.
E. Leaf nodes must connect to spine nodes only.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
A customer configures HSRP between two data centers that are interconnected with OTV. The configuration
succeeds, but traffic between two ESXi virtual hosts on the same site is routed suboptimally through the OTV
overlay. Which two actions optimize the traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Disable first-hop redundancy.
B. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the OTV edge devices.
C. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC list on the ESXi vSwitch.
D. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the ESXi vSwitch.
E. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC list on the OTV edge devices.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
An engineer removes a VMM domain from an endpoint group called “EPG-1”, but the distributed port group fails to be deleted. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Manually remove the port group.
B. Migrate all virtual machines in the EPG-1 to different hypervisors.
C. Remove the remaining EPGs from the VMM domain.
D. Migrate all virtual machines in the EPG-1 to different port groups.

Correct Answer: C

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500-260 Cisco ASA Express Security (SAEXS)

Exam Description:

The Cisco ASA Express Security (SAEXS) exam is a 60 minute, 45 – 55 question assessment that assesses the candidate on the skills required to understand how the ASA functions, including FirePOWER services for ASA, while focusing on how to deploy and manage the Cisco ASA. This exam is required for partners to attain ASA Express Security Specialization.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

25% 1.0 ASA Product Overview: Platform and Positioning
1.1 Give a high-level overview of Cisco ASA NGFW solution, platform, and security services
1.2 Describe management tools
1.3 Describe base features
1.4 Describe license features
1.5 Describe platform and performance
1.6 Describe where Cisco ASA platforms are placed in the network
1.7 Configure basic connectivity
1.7.a Managing boot process
1.7.b Managing Cisco ASA with ASDM
1.7.c Basic Cisco ASDM features
1.7.d Basic upgrade
1.7.e Interface security level
1.7.f Configure static route, DHCP, NTP
1.7.g Configure VLANs
1.8 Implement routing
1.8.a Configure static routing
1.8.b Configure dynamic routing
1.9 Configure backup and restore
1.10 Configure basic access control foundation
1.10.a Configure interface ACL
1.10.b Configure global ACL
1.10.c Configure object groups
1.10.d Implement NAT
1.11 Describe active/standby HA

35% 2.0 ASA FirePOWER Services: Positioning and Best Practices
2.1 Positioning, platforms, licensing, and services
2.2 Management considerations
2.2.a Cisco FireSIGHT Management Center
2.2.b Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
2.2.c Cisco Security Manager
2.2.d SFR module management interfaces
2.3 SFR initialization and traffic redirection
2.4 FireSIGHT policies and system basics
2.4.a Policy types
2.4.b Security zones
2.4.c Active directory integration
2.4.d Network discovery
2.5 Implement intrusion policy
2.6 Implement access policies
2.7 Implement file policies
2.8 Implement user context
2.9 Implement system and health policies
2.10 Event and system monitoring
2.10.a Impact levels
2.10.b Indications of compromise
2.10.c Event types
2.10.d Monitoring and dashboards

25% 3.0 ASA VPN Features, Positioning and Best Practices

3.1 Introduction
3.2 Describe management of Cisco ASA VPN
3.3 Describe remote access VPN
3.3.a Cisco AnyConnect Mobile Security Client
3.3.b Cisco AnyConnect Mobile Security Client: Network Access Manager
3.3.c Configure full-tunnel SSL VPN
3.3.d Configure Web VPN
3.3.e Configure XML profiles
3.3.f OS integration options
3.3.g Customize user interface
3.4 Describe site-to-site VPN

10% 4.0 ASA Licensing

4.1 Introduction
4.2 Describe feature licensing
4.2.a Security plus
4.2.b Web security essentials
4.2.c Cloud web security
4.2.d Botnet filtering
4.2.e Cisco AnyConnect mobile security premium and essentials
4.2.f Security context
4.3 Describe license changes
4.3.a Permanent
4.3.b Time-based
4.3.c Share Cisco AnyConnect
4.4 Describe license management

5% 5.0 ASA Cloud Web Security

5.1 Implement cloud web security
5.1.a Configure CWS proxy on Cisco ASA
5.1.b Cisco ScanCenter integration
5.2 AMP and CTA

QUESTION 1
Which three Fire POWER services features require a subscription license? (Choose three.)

A. URL filtering
B. AVC
C. high availability
D. AMP
E. IPS
F. identity visibility

Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 2
Which application is required to enable Microsoft Active Directory identity integration for FirePOWER services?

A. Sourcefire User Agent
B. Microsoft Active Directory Manager
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Microsoft Active Directory Agent

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which impact flag indicates that action is to be taken immediately?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 4

Answer: B

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100-490 Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 – RSTECH Exam

Exam overview
Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems.

Exam preparation
E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) v3.0

Practice
Practice your skills for this exam in these hands-on lab environments:
Cisco Virtual Internet Routing Lab Personal Edition (VIRL PE)

Cisco Modeling labs

Exam Description:
The Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 (RSTECH 100-490) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question exam associated with Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification. The course, Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products. Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

25% 1.0 General Networking Knowledge

1.1 Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network
1.2 Describe the basic functionality and key differences of this hardware: LAN switch, router, and wireless access points
1.3 Differentiate between these Layer 2 technologies: Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, Serial, and Optical
1.4 Describe LAN cabling
1.5 Describe the function of CSU/DSU
1.6 Describe Telco termination point
1.7 Describe an IPv4 and IPv6 address and subnet
1.8 Describe the function of FTP, TFTP and PING
1.9 Describe the function of Telnet and SSH

20% 2.0 Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware

2.1 Identify the Cisco equipment including the Cisco Nexus 9000 Series, Nexus 7000 Series, Nexus 3000 Series, MDS 9000 Series, Catalyst 9000 Series, Catalyst 6800 Series, Catalyst 6500 E-Series, Catalyst 3850, 3650, 2960, 1000 Series and Meraki switches and Cisco 8000 Series, Cisco ASR 9000 Series, Cisco ASR 1000 Series, NCS 5500 Series ,NCS 5000 Series routers and Cisco 4000, 1100, 900, 800 Series Integrated Service routers.
2.2 Identify Cisco products by logo marking and model number (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.3 Identify Cisco Transceiver Modules
2.4 Identify and locate the serial number of Cisco products (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.5 Identify and describe commonly used components
2.6 Describe hardware memory common terms and their use in Cisco routers and switches
2.7 Identify the cabling on Cisco equipment
2.8 Identify tools for hardware installation and replacement
2.9 Identify the different loop-back plugs (RJ45 Ethernet, T1, 56K)

29% 3.0 Cisco IOS Software Operation

3.1 Describe the key role of Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, IOS-XR and NX-OS software
3.2 Navigate between different operating modes
3.3 Determine the current mode of a device
3.4 Copy and paste a configuration file from/to a router or switch
3.5 Use and interpret the basic Cisco IOS Software commands
3.6 Describe the location and process to change the configuration register parameter
3.7 Identify a configuration file from a Cisco device
3.8 Describe the licensing process on different platforms
3.10 Describe Bundle Mode/Install Mode IOS-XE

26% 4.0 Service-Related Knowledge

4.1 Locate and use a text editor such as, Notepad
4.2 Locate and use the Windows command prompt
4.3 Locate, configure, and use Terminal Emulation (Tera Term, Putty)
4.4 Configure networks settings for Ethernet port on laptop (IP address, subnet mask and default gateway) and establish a connection with Ethernet ports on Cisco equipment using correct cable
4.5 Make a physical connection from laptop to Cisco console port
4.6 Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface
4.7 Configure and use TFTP and FTP servers (TFTP d32/64, FIlezilla)
4.8 Perform software upgrade or downgrade using TFTP, FTP, xmodem, tftpdnld, or USB Storage
4.9 Manage configurations via the TCP/IP network
4.10 Perform password recovery on a Cisco device
4.11 Identify and correct common network problems at Layers 1 and 2 4.11.a Serial or ether interface status 4.11.b Ethernet layer 2 (full and half duplex, speed issues) 4.11.c WAN serial loopback test (T1, 56K and Telco assisted loopback)

QUESTION 1
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?

A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. https:
D. UDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.
C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC

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350-801 Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (350-801 CLCOR) Exam

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing core collaboration technologies, including:

Infrastructure and design
Protocols, codecs, and endpoints
Cisco IOS XE gateway and media resources
Call Control
QoS
Collaboration applications

Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies v1.0 (CLCOR 350-801) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Collaboration, CCIE Collaboration, and Cisco Certified Specialist – Collaboration Core certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing core collaboration technologies including infrastructure and design, protocols, codecs, and endpoints, Cisco IOS XE gateway and media resources, Call Control, QoS, and collaboration applications. The course, Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Infrastructure and Design
1.1 Describe the key design elements of the following, pertaining to the Cisco Collaboration architecture as described in the SRND/PA
1.1.a Licensing (Smart, Flex)
1.1.b Sizing
1.1.c Bandwidth
1.1.d High availability
1.1.e Disaster recovery
1.1.f Dial plan
1.1.g Security (certificates, SRTP, TLS)
1.1.h QoS
1.2 Describe the purpose of Edge devices in the Cisco Collaboration architecture such as Expressway and Cisco Unified Border Element
1.3 Configure these network components to support Cisco Collaboration solutions
1.3.a DHCP
1.3.b NTP
1.3.c CDP
1.3.d LLDP
1.3.e LDAP
1.3.f TFTP
1.3.g Certificates
1.4 Troubleshoot these network components in a Cisco Collaboration solution
1.4.a DNS (A/AAA, SRV, Reverse Pointer Record (PTR))
1.4.b NTP
1.4.c LDAP integration on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
1.5 Explain these components to support Cisco Collaboration solutions
1.5.a SNMP
1.5.b DNS

20% 2.0 Protocols, Codecs, and Endpoints

2.1 Troubleshoot these elements of a SIP conversation
2.1.a Call set up and tear down
2.1.b SDP
2.1.c DTMF
2.2 Identify the appropriate collaboration codecs for a given scenario
2.3 Configure codec negotiations
2.4 Deploy SIP endpoints
2.4.a Manual
2.4.b Self provisioning
2.4.c Bulk Administration Tool (BAT)
2.5 Troubleshoot collaboration endpoints

15% 3.0 Cisco IOS XE Gateway and Media Resources
3.1 Configure these voice gateway elements
3.1.a DTMF
3.1.b Voice translation rules and profiles
3.1.c Codec preference list
3.1.d Dial peers
3.2 Configure ISDN PRI/BRI
3.3 Troubleshoot ISDN PRI/BRI
3.4 Configure and verify the MGCP
3.5 Identify the appropriate media resources for a given scenario (hardware and software)

25% 4.0 Call Control
4.1 Describe the Cisco Unified Communications Manager digit analysis process
4.2 Implement toll fraud prevention on Cisco Unified CM
4.3 Configure globalized call routing in Cisco Unified CM
4.3.a Route patterns (traditional and +E.164 format)
4.3.b Translation patterns
4.3.c Standard local route group
4.3.d Transforms
4.3.e SIP route patterns
4.4 Describe Mobile and Remote Access (MRA)

10% 5.0 QoS

5.1 Describe problems that can lead to poor voice and video quality
5.1.a Latency
5.1.b Jitter
5.1.c Packet loss
5.1.d Bandwidth
5.2 Describe the QoS requirements for these application types (voice and video)
5.3 Describe the class models for providing QoS on a network
5.3.a 4/5 Class model
5.3.b 8 Class model
5.3.c QoS Baseline model (11 Class)
5.4 Describe the purpose and function of these DiffServ values as it pertains to collaboration
5.4.a EF
5.4.b AF41
5.4.c AF42
5.4.d CS3
5.4.e CS4
5.5 Describe QoS trust boundaries and their significance in LAN-based classification and marking
5.6 Describe and determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements
5.7 Configure and verify LLQ (class map, policy map, service policy)

10% 6.0 Collaboration Applications

6.1 Configure Cisco Unity Connection mailbox and MWI
6.2 Configure Cisco Unity Connection SIP integration options to call control
6.3 Describe Cisco Unity Connection call handlers
6.4 Describe Cisco Unified IM&P protocols and deployment
6.4.a XMPP
6.4.b High availability
6.5 Deploy Cisco Jabber on premises

QUESTION 1
Which two functionalities does Cisco Expressway provide in the Cisco Collaboration architecture? (Choose two.)

A. Survivable Remote Site Telephony functionality
B. customer interaction management services
C. secure firewall and NAT traversal for mobile or remote Cisco Jabber and TelePresence Video endpoints
D. MGCP gateway registration
E. Secure business-to-business communications

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with
their own devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure
element achieves these goals?

A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media
resource is necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer is designing a load balancing solution for two Cisco Unified Border Element routers. The first
router (cube1.abс.com) takes 60% of the calls and the second router (cube2.abc.com) takes 40% of the calls.
Assume all DNS A records have been created. Which two SRV records are needed for a load balanced
solution? (Choose two.)

A. _sip._udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 2 60 5060 cube1.abc.com
B. _sip._udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 60 1 5060 cube1.abc.com
C. _sip._udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 40 5060 cube2.abc.com
D. _sip._udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 3 60 5060 cube2.abc.com
E. _sip._udp.abc.com 60 IN SRV 1 60 5060 cube1.abc.com

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5

Which two functions are provided by Cisco Expressway Series? (Choose two.)

A. interworking of SIP and H.323
B. endpoint registration
C. intercluster extension mobility
D. voice and video transcoding
E. voice and video conferencing

Correct Answer: AD

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350-901 Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR 350-901) Exam

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

Using APIs
Cisco platforms
Application deployment and security
Infrastructure and automation

Exam Description:
Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs v1.0 (DEVCOR 350-901)is a 120-minute exam associated with the DevNet Professional Certification. This exam tests acandidate’s knowledge of software development and design including using APIs, Cisco platforms,application deployment and security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, DevelopingApplications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Software Development and Design
1.1 Describe distributed applications related to the concepts of front-end, back-end, and load balancing
1.2 Evaluate an application design considering scalability and modularity
1.3 Evaluate an application design considering high-availability and resiliency (including on-premises, hybrid, and cloud)
1.4 Evaluate an application design considering latency and rate limiting
1.5 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering maintainability
1.6 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering observability
1.7 Diagnose problems with an application given logs related to an event
1.8 Evaluate choice of database types with respect to application requirements (such as relational, document, graph, columnar, and Time Series)
1.9 Explain architectural patterns (monolithic, services oriented, microservices, and event driven)
1.10 Utilize advanced version control operations with Git
1.10.a Merge a branch
1.10.b Resolve conflicts
1.10.c git reset
1.10.d git checkout
1.10.e git revert
1.11 Explain the concepts of release packaging and dependency management
1.12 Construct a sequence diagram that includes API calls

20% 2.0 Using APIs
2.1 Implement robust REST API error handling for time outs and rate limits
2.2 Implement control flow of consumer code for unrecoverable REST API errors
2.3 Identify ways to optimize API usage through https: cache controls
2.4 Construct an application that consumes a REST API that supports pagination
2.5 Describe the steps in the OAuth2 three-legged authorization code grant flow
2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 2

20% 3.0 Cisco Platforms

3.1 Construct API requests to implement chatops with Webex Teams API
3.2 Construct API requests to create and delete objects using Firepower device management (FDM)
3.3 Construct API requests using the Meraki platform to accomplish these tasks
3.3.a Use Meraki Dashboard APIs to enable an SSID
3.3.b Use Meraki location APIs to retrieve location data
3.4 Construct API calls to retrieve data from Intersight
3.5 Construct a Python script using the UCS APIs to provision a new UCS server given a template
3.6 Construct a Python script using the Cisco DNA center APIs to retrieve and display wireless health information
3.7 Describe the capabilities of AppDynamics when instrumenting an application
3.8 Describe steps to build a custom dashboard to present data collected from Cisco APIs

20% 4.0 Application Deployment and Security

4.1 Diagnose a CI/CD pipeline failure (such as missing dependency, incompatible versions of components, and failed tests)
4.2 Integrate an application into a prebuilt CD environment leveraging Docker and Kubernetes
4.3 Describe the benefits of continuous testing and static code analysis in a CI pipeline
4.4 Utilize Docker to containerize an application
4.5 Describe the tenets of the “12-factor app”
4.6 Describe an effective logging strategy for an application
4.7 Explain data privacy concerns related to storage and transmission of data
4.8 Identify the secret storage approach relevant to a given scenario
4.9 Configure application specific SSL certificates
4.10 Implement mitigation strategies for OWASP threats (such as XSS, CSRF, and SQL injection)
4.11 Describe how end-to-end encryption principles apply to APIs

20% 5.0 Infrastructure and Automation
5.1 Explain considerations of model-driven telemetry (including data consumption and data storage)
5.2 Utilize RESTCONF to configure a network device including interfaces, static routes, and VLANs (IOS XE only)
5.3 Construct a workflow to configure network parameters with:
5.3.a Ansible playbook
5.3.b Puppet manifest
5.4 Identify a configuration management solution to achieve technical and business requirements
5.5 Describe how to host an application on a network device (including Catalyst 9000 and Cisco IOx-enabled devices)

QUESTION 1
A developer has created an application based on customer requirements. The customer needs to run the
application with the minimum downtime. Which design approach regarding high-availability applications,
Recovery Time Objective, and Recovery Point Objective must be taken?

A. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data
centers must be timely to allow seamless request flow.
B. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data
centers does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
C. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers
does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
D. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers
must be timely to allow seamless request flow.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A cloud native project is being worked on in which all source code and dependencies are written in Python,
Ruby, and/or JavaScnpt. A change in code triggers a notification to the CI/CD tool to run the CI/CD pipeline.
Which step should be omitted from the pipeline?

A. Deploy the code to one or more environments, such as staging and/or production.
B. Build one of more containers that package up code and all its dependencies.
C. Compile code.
D. Run automated tests to validate the correctness.


QUESTION 3
Which two statements are considered best practices according to the 12-factor app methodology for application design? (Choose two.)

A. Application code writes its event stream to stdout.
B. Application log streams are archived in multiple replicated databases.
C. Application log streams are sent to log indexing and analysis systems.
D. Application code writes its event stream to specific log files.
E. Log files are aggregated into a single file on individual nodes.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture. No
notable issues occur with downtime because the services of this application are redundantly deployed over
three or more data center regions. However, several times a week reports are received about application
slowness. The container orchestration logs show faults in a variety of containers that cause them to fail and
then spin up brand new.
Which action must be taken to improve the resiliency design of the application while maintaining current scale?

A. Update the base image of the containers.
B. Test the execution of the application with another cloud services platform.
C. Increase the number of containers running per service.
D. Add consistent “try/catch(exception)” clauses to the code.

Correct Answer: D

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500-452 Enterprise Networks Core and WAN Exam

Exam Description:
The Enterprise Networks Core and WAN exam (500-452) is a 60-minute, 30–40 question assessment that is associated with the Cisco Enterprise Networks Specialization program. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the IWAN solution, including identifying the components and features that comprise it, the benefits of each, and how to implement each part successfully as an end-to-end network solution. The Cisco IWAN solution is highly-valued by our customers who seek to improve their network routing services while also improving their bottom line through application visibility, control and optimization, and traffic offload to the Internet, among other IWAN options. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Enterprise Networks Core and WAN Essentials (ENCWE) course.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

13% 1.0 Enterprise IP WAN Technologies Network

1.1 Enterprise WAN architecture
1.2 WAN transport models
1.3 IPsec VPN
1.4 WAN routing topologies
1.5 WAN QoS
1.6 Services
1.7 Self- and SP-managed WANs

18% 2.0 Intelligent WAN Overview
2.1 Cisco Intelligent WAN architecture
2.2 Transport independent
2.3 Intelligent path control
2.4 Application performance
2.5 Secure connectivity
2.6 Managing the IWAN

25% 3.0 IWAN Deployment
3.1 Cisco Prime Infrastructure
3.2 Transport-independent design
3.3 AVC for application visibility
3.4 Guest portal
3.5 Hierarchical quality of service
3.6 IPv6
3.7 Cisco Prime Infrastructure plug-and-play

14% 4.0 Cisco WAN Optimization Solution
4.1 Positioning and value proposition
4.2 Solution and platform offerings
4.3 Technology, deployment, and sizing
4.4 IWAN Solution

19% 5.0 Intelligent WAN Secure Connectivity
5.1 IWAN security threats
5.2 Securing the connectivity
5.3 Securing direct Internet access
5.4 Full services direct Internet access
5.5 Direct Internet access use cases
5.6 Cisco TrustSec in the branch
5.7 NetFlow security application
5.8 IOS hardening

11% 6.0 Cisco UCS-E, Cloud Connectors, and Cisco UBE

6.1 Cisco UCS-E Series
6.2 Cisco Cloud Connectors
6.3 Cisco Unified Border Element Enterprise

QUESTION 1
What are the three architectural building blocks of the enterprise WAN? (Choose three.)

A. regional WAN
B. MAN
C. LAN
D. WAN core
E. data center interconnect
F. virtual overlay

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
What is one example of a typical enterprise WAN deployment model?

A. single or dual MPLS VPN
B. Frame Relay
C. VPN
D. hub and spoke

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
DMVPN builds tunnels in which two ways? (Choose two.)

A. statically
B. randomly
C. by requiring IKEv2
D. by using dynamic spoke to spoke
E. by using multipoint hub to spoke
F. by using full mesh

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Which option is suited only for private IP network infrastructures?

A. GETVPN
B. IPsec
C. L2TP
D. FlexVPN
E. DMVPN

Correct Answer: A
 

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820-605 Cisco Customer Success Manager (CSM) Exam

820-605 CSM Certification: Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist
Duration: 90 minutes
Available language: English, Japanese

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills to develop and integrate solutions, identify adoption barriers and actions to remove them, implement adoption frameworks and interpret customer usage data while leading customers to renewals and cultivating new sales opportunities through the entire customer lifecycle.

Exam preparation
Our authorized Learning Partners teach instructor-led classes around the world. For this exam, we recommend:
Cisco Customer Success Manager (DTCSM)

E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Cisco Customer Success Manager (DTCSM) v2.1

Exam Description
The Cisco Customer Success Manager v2.0 (CSM 820-605) is a 90-minute exam associated with the Customer Success Manager Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills to develop and integrate solutions, identify adoption barriers and actions to remove them, implement adoption frameworks and interpret customer usage data while leading customers to renewals and cultivating new sales opportunities through the entire customer lifecycle.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Customer Success Industry 15%
1.1 Explain the key drivers creating the need for Customer Success
1.2 Define customer success (expected and unexpected value)
1.3 Explain the customer lifecycle journey
1.4 Compare customer success, customer support and sales
1.5 Explain the value proposition for customer success
1.5.a Vendor
1.5.b Customer
1.6 Explain different IT purchasing and consumption models
1.6.a Software licensing
1.6.b Service subscriptions
1.6.c Enterprise agreements
1.6.d CapEx vs OpEx
1.7 Identify the key metrics for customer success
1.7.a Leading indicators
1.7.b Lagging indicators
1.8 Explain the financial implication of the following metrics
1.8.a Churn
1.8.b Expand
1.8.c Renewal (MRR, ATR, LTV, ACV)
1.9 Describe customer engagement models based on customer segmentation
1.9.a High touch
1.9.b Virtual touch
1.9.c Digital touch
1.10 Describe the objectives of the Customer Success Manager

2.0 Success Plan Creation 25%
2.1 Identify the product or solution purchased
2.2 Identify key stakeholder roles
2.3 Validate the desired business outcome based on information obtained from key stakeholders
2.4 Identify critical success factors to connect to business outcomes
2.5 Analyze the account baseline to identify gaps
2.5.a Tools
2.5.b Process
2.5.c People
2.6 Analyze a customer health score
2.6.a Product Usage
2.6.b Product Quality
2.6.c Customer Sentiment
2.6.d Customer Financials
2.7 Describe the common elements of a customer success plan
2.8 Explain the purpose of targeted use cases
2.9 Identify the individuals and responsibilities within a RACI
2.10 Explain how outcomes, Key Performance Indicators (KPI) and metrics contribute to customer value achievement

3.0 Barrier Management 25%
3.1 Identify types of customer barriers
3.1.a Business
3.1.b Operational
3.1.c Technical
3.1.d Corporate Culture
3.2 Describe sources used to identify customer barriers
3.2.a Tools (telemetry, consumption data)
3.2.b Process
3.2.c People
3.3 Identify customer barriers
3.3.a Observation
3.3.b Conversation
3.3.c Data
3.4 Identify actions that impact time to value for common customer barriers
3.4.a Stalled or prolonged implementation
3.4.b Loss of a project sponsor
3.4.c Lack of product features
3.4.d Product quality or performance issues
3.4.e Product is not the right fit for the customer

4.0 Customer Success Management 20%
4.1 Explain the elements of customer onboarding
4.1.a Deployment planning
4.1.b Priority success focus
4.1.c Timeline to value
4.1.d Feature matrix utilization
4.2 Explain the purpose of essential customer management activities
4.2.a Customer and industry observations
4.2.b Customer conversations and interactions
4.2.c Account data and scoreboard review
4.2.d Capturing moments of success
4.2.e Success Plan review
4.3 Explain communication needs of stakeholders
4.3.a Customer Executive
4.3.b Account Manager
4.3.c Customer User
4.3.d Services
4.3.e Business Unit
4.4 Describe the Quarterly Success Review process
4.5 Identify outcomes from a Quarterly Success Review
4.6 Identify opportunities for customers to act as advocates

5.0 Expand Opportunities and Renewal 15%
5.1 Describe types of expand opportunities
5.1.a Additional features
5.1.b New use cases
5.1.c Additional User groups
5.1.d New solutions
5.1.e Change management services
5.2 Identify potential expansion opportunities across the customer lifecycle from a customer success plan
5.3 Create an adoption campaign to identify expand opportunities
5.4 Update customer success plan with expand opportunities
5.5 Explain the elements of a renewal risk analysis
5.6 Create mitigation plans that address risk factors

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300-515 Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (300-515 SPVI) Exam

CCNP Service Provider
Cisco Certified Specialist,
Service Provider VPN Services Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

Exam overview

This exam tests your knowledge of implementing service provider VPN services, including:
Layer 2
Layer 3
IPv6

Exam Description:
The Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Solutions v1.0 (SPVI 300-515) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Service Provider Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing service provider VPN services, including Layer 2, Layer 3, and IPv6. The course, Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

25% 1.0 VPN Architecture
1.1 Compare VPN architecture
1.1.a Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPN
1.1.b Inter-AS and Intra-AS
1.2 Troubleshoot underlay
1.2.a Core IGP
1.2.b LSP
1.3 Describe Layer 2 service architecture
1.3.a IOS XR Ethernet Flowpoints
1.3.b IOS XE Ethernet Virtual Circuits
1.4 Describe the L3VPN control plane operation
1.4.a MP-BGP
1.4.b Route distinguisher
1.4.c VPNv4 address
1.4.d Route target
1.4.e VPN label
1.4.f VRF routing instance
1.4.g PE-CE route advertisement
1.5 Describe the L3VPN data plane operation
1.5.a Underlay label
1.5.b VRF forwarding instance

30% 2.0 Layer 2 VPNs

2.1 Troubleshoot L2VPN Services
2.1.a E-LAN
2.1.b E-Line
2.1.c E-Tree

2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 2
2.2 Describe EVPN concepts
2.2.a Data plane and control plane operation
2.2.b Multihoming mechanisms
2.2.c Suppression mechanisms
2.2.d Traffic forwarding operation
2.3 Implement Ethernet Operations, Administration, and Maintenance (E-OAM)
2.4 Implementing EVPN
2.4.a EVPN IRB
2.4.b EVPN VPWS
2.4.c EVPN native

35% 3.0 Layer 3 VPNs
3.1 Describe routing requirements
3.1.a MP-BGP
3.1.b PE-CE routing protocol
3.2 Troubleshoot Intra-AS L3VPNs
3.2.a PE-CE
3.2.b PE-PE
3.2.c PE-RR
3.3 Implement multicast VPN
3.3.a Intranet MVPN
3.3.b Extranet MVPN
3.3.c MLDP
3.4 Implement extranet/shared services
3.4.a Import and export route targets
3.4.b Route policy
3.5 Describe Inter-AS L3VPNs
3.5.a Option A
3.5.b Option B
3.5.c Option AB
3.5.d Option C
3.6 Describe CSC concepts

10% 4.0 IPv6 VPNs

4.1 Describe routing requirements
4.1.a MP-BGP
4.1.b PE-CE routing protocol
4.2 Troubleshoot IPv6 VPN provider edge
4.2.a PE-PE
4.2.b PE-CE

QUESTION 1
Which utility can you use to validate an LSP in an MPLS environment?

A. uRPF
B. MPLS LSP ping
C. logging
D. RSVP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the primary function of a VRF on a router?

A. It enables the router to support multiple separate routing tables, which allows the device to handle overlapping IP addresses.
B. It enables a router to run BGP and a distance vector routing protocol at the same time, which allows it to serve as a VPN endpoint between remote sites.
C. It enables a router to configure VLANs locally, which provides segregation between networks.
D. It enables the router to provide faster switching through the network by using labels to identify the input and output interfaces for neighbor routers.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements describe primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two frames can be configured on an Ethernet flow point? (Choose two.)

A. of a specific VLAN
B. with different type of service values
C. with identical type of service value
D. with different class of service values
E. with no tags

Correct Answer: AE

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300-550 Designing and Implementing Cisco Network Programmability Exam

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to Network programmability fundamentals, APIs and automation protocols, data models, operations, and controllers.

QUESTION 1
How are authentication credentials sent in a Cisco APIC REST API authorization request?

A. by using OAuth
B. in a token in the header
C. by using Basic Auth
D. in JSON in the payload

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about OpenFlow are true? (Choose two.)

A. The OpenFlow flow table contains header fields, counters, and actions
B. OpenFlow automatically determines network forwarding rules.
C. OpenFlow interfaces with the management plane
D. OpenFlow is a southbound protocol
E. OpenFlow is an agentless technology, like Ansible
F. OpenFlow is a northbound protocol

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?

A. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which network configuration protocol uses JSON as a data representation format?

A. NETCONF
B. SOAP
C. RESTCONF
D. HTML

Correct Answer: C

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