C_TS414_2021 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP S/4HANA Quality Management Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 56%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English, Portuguese, Chinese

Description
The “SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP S/4HANA Quality Management” certification exam for essentials edition validates that the candidate possesses SAP onboarding fundamentals and core knowledge in the Quality Management line of business area required of the consultant profile. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of an SAP S/4HANA OnPrem with a focus on Quality Management in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification. The certificate issued after passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

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Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Quality Management in Manufacturing > 12%
Describe the processes for implementing QM in Manufacturing
S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4145 E-Learning
S4146 E-Learning

Quality Management in Procurement and Inventory Management > 12%
Describe how QM integrates with Procurement and Inventory Management
S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4142 E-Learning
S4143 E-Learning

Quality Improvement > 12%
Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Improvement
S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4141 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Quality Inspection > 12%
Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Inspection

S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4141 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Quality Planning > 12%
Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Planning

S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4141 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Quality Management in Sales and Distribution 8% – 12%
Describe how QM integrates with Sales and Distribution

S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4144 E-Learning

Audit Management < 8%
Describe the process of Audit Management

S4140 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines
 

QUESTION 1
During an inspection the lab technicians record the same test values for an inspection characteristic.
Which of the following do they assign to the products?

A. As a sample size
B. As an inspection point
C. As a partial lot
D. As a batch

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is required in inspection planning to transfer a characteristic value from results recording of inspection lot processing………

A. Configuration settings
B. Settings for the inspection type activated in the material level
C. Master inspection characteristic linked to class characteristics
D. Usage of the class characteristics in the task list

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When creating a process order, what type of task list is primary used for inspection ? Correct 3

A. Routings
B. master recipe
C. Equipment
D. Reference rate routing

Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION 4
You have determined a new business inspection process and need to customize a new inspection type
Which of the following activities must you complete? Correct 2

A. Define goods movement type
B. Assign inspection type to inspection lot origin
C. Define default values for inspection type
D. Assign Task list type to material types

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
In the material master, at which organizational level do you create Quality management (QM) data for inspection type.

A. Client level
B. Plant level
C. Business area level
D. Company code level

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your customer automatically create inspection lot for general deliveries in sales and distribution process for its production
If QM not started result recording what does the system do in response to a change in the material quality……………..

A. Block the current inspection lot from processing
B. Create a new inspection lot with the different quantity
C. Cancel the current inspection lot and create a new one
D. Change the quality of the current inspection lot

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A buyer wants to quality management department to approve a new vender malarial -combination.
After activating the QM in procurement process , what the quality management department ensure in…… Correct 2

A. A quality agreement for vendor master exists
B. The material master has a relevant QM Control key assigned to it
C. The material master has an active inspection type
D. The inspection plan includes a relevant control key at operation level
E. A valid release quality info record exists

Answer: A, E

1Z0-149 Oracle Database Program with PL/SQL Exam PDF and Dumps

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 65
Passing Score: 66%
Validation: Exam has been validated for product version Oracle Database 19c

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Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-149
Oracle Advanced PL/SQL Developer Certified Professionals demonstrate expertise in database-centric Internet applications for Oracle Database 10g, 11g and 12c.

Review exam topics

Declaring PL/SQL Variables
Recognize valid and invalid identifiers
List the uses of variables, declare and initialize variables, use bind variables
List and describe various data types using the %TYPE and %ROWTYPE attributes

Writing Executable Statements
Identify lexical units in a PL/SQL block
Use built-in SQL functions in PL/SQL and sequences in PL/SQL expressions
Describe when implicit conversions take place and when explicit conversions have to be dealt with
Write nested blocks and qualify variables with labels
Write readable code with appropriate indentation

Writing SQL in PL/SQL
Create PL/SQL executable blocks using DML and transaction control statements
Make use of the INTO clause to hold the values returned by a SQL statement

Writing Control Structures
Identify the uses and types of control structures (IF, CASE statements and expressions)
Construct and identify loop statements
Use EXIT and CONTINUE statements inside loops

Working with Composite Data Types
Create user-defined PL/SQL records
Create a record with the %ROWTYPE attribute
Create an INDEX BY table and INDEX BY table of records
Describe the differences among records, collections, and collections of records
Initialize collections and records

Using Explicit Cursors
Distinguish between implicit and explicit cursors and use SQL cursor attributes
Declare and control explicit cursors, use simple loops and cursor FOR loops to fetch data
Declare and use cursors with parameters
Lock rows with the FOR UPDATE clause and reference the current row with the WHERE CURRENT OF clause

Handling Exceptions
Define PL/SQL exceptions
Recognize unhandled exceptions
Handle different types of exceptions (internally defined exceptions, predefined exceptions and user-defined exceptions)
Propagate exceptions

Using PL/SQL Subprograms
Differentiate between anonymous blocks and subprograms
Create a simple procedure and invoke it from an anonymous block
Identify benefits of subprograms

Creating Procedures and Using Parameters
Create a procedure with parameterrs
Use named notation
Work with procedures (create, invoke and remove procedures)
Handle exceptions in procedures and display a procedure’s information

Creating Functions
Differentiate between a procedure and a function
Describe the uses of functions
Work with functions (create, invoke and remove functions)

Creating Packages
Identify the benefits and the components of packages
Work with packages (create package specification and body, invoke package subprograms, remove a package and display package information)
Overload package subprograms and use forward declarations

Working with Packages
Use package types and variables
Use packaged constants and functions in SQL
Use ACCESSIBLE BY to restrict access to package subprograms

Using Dynamic SQL
Describe the execution flow of SQL statements
Use Native Dynamic SQL (NDS)
Bind PL/SQL types in SQL statements

Design Considerations for PL/SQL Code
Create standard constants and exceptions
Write and call local subprograms
Control the run-time privileges of a subprogram
Perform autonomous transactions
Use NOCOPY hint, PARALLEL ENABLE hint and DETERMINISTIC clause
Use bulk binding and the RETURNING clause with DML

Creating Compound, DDL, and Event Database Triggers
Create triggers on DDL statements
Create triggers on system events
Describe different types of triggers and their uses

Using the PL/SQL Compiler

Describe the PL/SQL compiler and features
Use the PL/SQL compiler initialization parameters
Use the PL/SQL compile time warnings

Managing PL/SQL Code
Describe and use conditional compilation
Code-based access control: granting roles to program units
Whitelist code access with the ACCESSIBLE BY clause
Mark code as deprecated

Managing Dependencies
Track and manage procedural dependencies

QUESTION 1
Which two PL/SQL elements can be deprecated using the DEPRECATE pragma? (Choose two.)

A. PACKAGES
B. VARIABLES
C. ANONYMOUS BLOCK
D. TRIGGER BODY
E. DATABASE LINKS

Answer: A, E

QUESTION 2
Which three are true about functions and procedures? (Choose three.)

A. The ACCESSIBLE BY clause can be used only for procedures.
B. In a function, every execution path must lead to a RETURN statement.
C. Both can have only constants as actual parameters for IN mode parameters.
D. Both can be invoked from within SQL statements.
E. In a procedure the RETURN statement cannot specify an expression.
F. In a function every RETURN statement must specify an expression.

Answer: B, E, F

QUESTION 3
Which two are true about Conditional Compilation in PL/SQL using $IF, $ELSE, $END, and $ERROR? (Choose two.)

A. PL/SQL code can be compiled and executed based on different versions of the operating system.
B. PL/SQL code can be compiled and executed based on different versions of Oracle.
C. It is newer syntax that works the same way as ‘IF , ELSEIF , ELSE, and END IF’.
D. Conditional compilation is disabled by default.
E. The PL/SQL compiler can conditionally include selected parts of a program.

Answer: B, E

QUESTION 4
Which three are true about the NOCOPY hint, the PARALLEL ENABLE hint, and the DETERMINISTIC clause? (Choose three.)

A. The PARALLEL_ENABLE clause can be used only in the CREATE FUNCTION statement.
B. The NOCOPY hint asks the compiler to pass the actual parameters by reference.
C. A deterministic function’s results always depend on the state of session variables.
D. The NOCOPY hint asks the compiler to pass the actual parameters by value.
E. A function is deterministic if it always returns the same result for a specific combination of input values.
F. The PARALLEL_ENABLE clause can be specified for a nested function.
G. A function defined with the PARALLEL_ENABLE clause may be executed in parallel in a SELECT statement or a subquery in a DML statement.

Answer: B, E, G

QUESTION 5
Which two are true about INDEX-BY tables? (Choose two.)

A. The index can be integer or string.
B. The index can be integer only.
C. INDEX-BY table types can be created in PL/SQL blocks only.
D. INDEX-BY table types can be created both with the CREATE TYPE statement and in PL/SQL blocks.
E. INDEX-BY table types can be created with the CREATE TYPE statement.

Answer: A, C

QUESTION 6
Which three are true about anonymous blocks and subprograms? (Choose three.)

A. Named subprograms cannot be called from other packages.
B. PROCEDURE subprograms can accept parameters.
C. A FUNCTION subprogram must return one or more values.
D. Anonymous blocks cannot use packaged variables.
E. Named subprograms are stored in the database server.
F. Anonymous blocks must always start with the Declare keyword.
G. FUNCTION subprograms must be called and passed through one or more parameters.

Answer: B, C, E

JN0-1361 Service Provider Design Specialist (JNCDS-SP) Exam

Description
Designed for networking professionals and designers with intermediate knowledge of service provider design, theory, and best practices, this written exam verifies the candidate’s understanding of service provider design principles.

Further Information

JNCDS-SP exam ics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses (when available), as well as additional resources.

Exam code: JN0-1361
Written exam
Exam length: 90 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Pass/fail status is available immediately

Objectives
The Contents list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam

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Content

Describe the various methods of WAN connectivity

Public/private/managed
Service provider connectivity
Service provider hand-off methods
Service provider MPLS services
Enterprise Internet transport
Enterprise Layer 2/Layer 3 handoff services
Enterprise private connections

Describe network availability concepts
Calculating availability
Physical redundancy
Logical redundancy
Fate sharing (for example, high availability)
Capacity planning

Describe class of service concepts
Diffserv
CoS processing

Describe the design considerations of a service provider’s core WAN
Network segmentation
IGP design
BGP design
MPLS design

Describe the design considerations of a service provider’s edge WAN
Layer 2 Services
Layer 3 services
Metro Ethernet
Subscriber services
Multicast services

Describe the design considerations of an Enterprise WAN
Private WANs
Large enterprise WAN design
SME WAN design

Describe the design considerations of a data center WAN
Gateway and fabric connectivity
L2 WAN extensions
EVPN
VXLAN

Describe the design considerations for security in the WAN
Platform security
BGP Flowspec
MACsec
IPsec
Subscriber access security

Describe the design considerations for WAN management
OoB management design
Junos Space management platform
Best practices

Describe the design considerations of SDN in the WAN
SD-WAN (protocols, considerations, benefits)
NorthStar Controller
NorthStar Planner
Contrail Cloud CPE

Related Courses

Juniper Networks Design-Service Provider

QUESTION 1

You work for service provider B that wants to implement a hot potato routing policy on the network
so that router C uses link C-A to reach service provider A’s advertised routes and router D uses link DB
to reach Service Provider A’s advertised routes Currently traffic from router C is traversing the core
to exit the network on router B .
Referring to the exhibit, what are two design actions that would satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Implement BGP-ORR
B. Configure new IBGP neighbors between routers C and A and routers D and B
C. Implement BGP-LS
D. Configure the route reflector to send multiple copies of a route learned from different IBGP peers to its clients.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION 2
Your customer is paying for traffic prioritization and you must ensure that all traffic from their 172.27.
10.0 network receives top priority through your network.
Which action will satisfy this requirement?

A. Apply a behavior aggregate classifier to the egress interface.
B. Apply a custom rewrite rule to the ingress interface.
C. Apply a multifield classifier to the ingress interfaces.
D. Apply a custom scheduler map to the ingress interface.

Answer: C

We would need MF to match the address and set the forwarding class.

QUESTION 3
You are designing a service provider core network As part of the design, you must ensure that the
MPLS network utilizes the traffic engineering database (TED) for path selection and resiliency. You
have chosen OSPF as the IGP for your design.
In this scenario which statement is correct?

A. You must enable traffic engineering in OSPF to populate the TED.
B. OSPF cannot be used to populate the TED.
C. You must disable traffic engineering in OSPF to use the TED.
D. OSPF populates the TED by default.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your company is designing a new data center in a remote location that must be connected to your
local data center. You have a service provider connection between the CE devices at each site. You
want to implement EVPN with VXLAN services between sites, but the service provider does not offer
EVPN services.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two )

A. The provider’s edge devices must map your VXLAN VNIs to MPLS LSPs within the provider network at each site
B. The customer’s edge devices within your data center can act as VXLAN Layer 2 gateways
C. You can still implement EVPN service across the service provider as long as there is IP reachability between the sites.
D. The service provider must provide an MPLS-based VPN connection between sites

Answer: B, C

C1000-143 IBM Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps v3.2 Administrator Exam

Certification Overview
An IBM Certified Administrator on IBM Cloud Pak for Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps v3.2 is a system administrator who has extensive knowledge and experience on IBM Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps v3.2 including AI Manager, Event Manager and Metric Manager. This administrator can perform the intermediate tasks related to planning, sizing, installation, daily management and operation, security, performance, configuration of enhancements (including fix packs and patches), customization and/or problem determination.

Requirements
Exam C1000-143: IBM Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps v3.2 Administrator

Exam Objectives
During exam development, the Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) define all of the tasks, knowledge and experience that an individual would need in order to successfully fulfill their role with the product or solution. These are represented by the objectives below and the questions on the exam are based upon these objective.

Number of questions: 65
Number of questions to pass: 46
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Live

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Purpose of Exam Objectives
When an exam is developed, Subject Matter Experts work together to define the role the certified individual will fill. They define the tasks and knowledge that an individual would need to successfully perform this job role doe the product or solution. This creates the foundation for the objectives and measurement criteria, which form the basis of the certification exam. Question writers then use these objectives to develop
exam questions.

It is recommended that you review these objectives and ask yourself the following questions:
 Do you know how to complete the task in the objective?
 Do you know why that task needs to be done?
 Do you know what will happen if you do it incorrectly?

If you are not familiar with a task, go through the objective, perform that task in your own environment and read more information on the task. If there is an objective on a task, there is a high likelihood that you WILL see a question about it on the actual exam. Review the recommended learning designed to prepare you to take the certification exam.

After reviewing the objectives in this guide and completing your own research, take the assessment exam. While the assessment exam does not indicate which specific questions were answered incorrectly, it does indicate overall performance by section. This is a good indicator of preparedness or if further preparation is warranted.

High-level Exam Objectives
Section 1 – IBM Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps Overview
1.1 Describe the architectural overview of Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps
1.2 Describe AI Manager key functionalities
1.3 Describe Event Manager key functionalities
1.4 Describe Metric Manager key functionalities

Section 2 – Install the IBM Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps
2.1 Plan for an installation of Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps
2.2 Prepare the infrastructure
2.3 Add catalog sources
2.4 Install AI Manager
2.5 Install Event Manager
2.6 Install Metric Manager
2.7 Uninstall the IBM Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps

Section 3 – Configuration
3.1 Manage certificates
3.2 Configure AI Manager
3.3 Configure Event Manager
3.4 Configure Metric Manager
3.5 Configure Topology
3.6 Backup and restore Cloud Pak for Watson AIOps

Section 4 – Operate the Platform

4.1 Operate AI Manager
4.2 Operate Event Manager
4.3 Operate Metric Manager
4.4 Operate Topology Manager

Section 5 – Manage User Access Control
5.1 Add and manage Roles, User Groups and Users
5.2 Configure LDAP servers and authentication
5.3 Change the cluster administrator credentials

Section 6 -Troubleshoot
6.1 Troubleshoot theCloud Pak for Watson AIOps installation
6.2 Troubleshoot pods
6.3 Troubleshoot access control and user management
6.4 Troubleshoot the CP4WAIOps components

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about a topology merge rule?

A. Specifies that the value of a resource field should be copied to the matchTokens field so that it can be used to merge events to resources
B. Merges two or more events together and relate them to the same topology resource
C. Specifies that the value of a resource field should be copied to the tags field so that it becomes searchable in the Ul
D. Specifies that two resources from different topology Observer jobs in fact refer to the same physical device

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about Event Manager (NOI) in an on-premises installation?

A. Event Manager Components can only be started by using the Installation Manager.
B. Start-up scripts can be created to automatically start the various Event Manager components.
C. Startup GUI can be installed to automatic start the various components.
D. Event Manager components can only be started ally by using Linux or Windows commands.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the default duration of the CA certificate used by IBM foundational services?

A. 120 days
B. Two years
C. 90 days
D. One year

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about topology management in Cloud Pak for Watson AlOps?

A. It has an ETSI interface (European Telecommunications Standards Institute)
B. It enables the real-time and historical visualization of highly dynamic and distributed infrastructure
C. It provides a holistic view into geographic data
D. It provides Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What does the Resource filter toolbar in Topology Manager reduce?

A. Entity types in the Topology view
B. Observer loads
C. Resources exported from the Topology Manager
D. Resources that an instance of Topology Manager holds

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which secret provides the credential for importing WebGUI settings in Event Manager?

A. <no-instance>-was-secret
B. <noi-instance>-settings-secret
C. aiops-was-secret
D. <noi-instance>-secret

Answer: D

1Z0-1075-22 Oracle Manufacturing Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Manufacturing Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 64%

Validation:
This exam has been validated against 22A/22B

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1075-22
An Oracle Manufacturing Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge and skills required to use Oracle Manufacturing Cloud on a project by creating work orders, managing work definitions, and executing production. Individuals who earn this certification are able to set up Manufacturing, set up reporting and analytics and understand the complexities of manufacturing integrations, including Costing and Inventory foundations.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

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Review exam topics

Manufacturing Setup
Describe Functional Set Up Manager and Simplified Setup
Configure Resources, Operations, and Work Centers
Set up Plant Parameters and Security, Profile Options, Lookups and DFFs
Manage Production Calendars and add Shift and Work Center Resource exceptions
Set up common Configuration Elements

Manage Work Definitions
Create Work Definition
Describe Manufacturing Lead-time
Process Item Structure changes
Describe Work Definition versions
Describe how work definition is automatically generated
Manage Items and Structures

Manage Work Orders
Explain Work Execution Work Areas
Create and update Work Orders for standard and non-standard Work Orders and Serialized Manufacturing
Explain Work Order Reservations and History

Execute Production
Describe Production Execution transactions (including Outside Processing)
Explain a Dispatch List
Report Production Transactions
Report Orderless Transactions
Explain Production Transaction Review and Product Genealogy
Transfer Production Transactions to Costing
Describe Import Production Transactions
Create manufacturing Production Exceptions, including raising exceptions and managing and resolving exceptions
Describe Manufacturing Supervisor Mobile Applications

Manufacturing Integrations
Describe Manufacturing Cloud integrations
Integrate IoT into Manufacturing

Manufacturing Costing
Describe and Compute Production Costs
Evaluate a Work Order completion cost, including Partial and Scrap
Explain Cost Reporting, including WIP Inventory Valuation Report
Set up and implement Cost Planning estimates

Reporting and Analytics for Manufacturing
Execute Basic Transaction and Work Order Reporting
Set up BI Reporting and OTBI

Costing and Inventory Foundations
Explain Common Inventory Configurations
Describe Managerial Accounting Basics & Cost Accounting

Projects Enabled SCM
Explain Common Projects Enabled SCM Configurations
Manage Project enabled Work Orders

QUESTION 1
A Work Center created a month ago is no longer in use now. You want to remove the Work Center;
however, the system is no allowing you to delete it.
Identify three reasons for this.

A. There are resources associated with the Work Center.
B. The Work Center is being referenced in the Closed Work Order.
C. The Work Center is being referenced in the Open Work Order.
D. The work center is being references in the work definition operation.
E. The work center is being referenced in the Work Area.

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 2
In a manufacturing plant, a production operator in a given shift completes a car assembly and reports
this using orderless completion by referencing a Work Definition.
Identify the two purposes of the referenced Work Definition in Orderless reporting.

A. Material usage
B. Resource usage
C. Processing steps
D. Scrap material
E. Return material

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 3
While creating an item in Product Information Management (PIM), the following two item templates are selected in sequence and applied.

1. Template: Finished Goods (WIP = No, Customer Ordered = Yes)
2. Template: Sub-assembly (WIP = Yes, Customer Ordered = No)

Identify the Item Attribute values in the application.

A. WIP = Yes, Customer Ordered = Yes
B. WIP = Yes, Customer Ordered = No
C. WIP = No, Customer Ordered = Yes
D. WIP = No, Customer Ordered = No

Answer: C

CRT-101 Salesforce Certification Preparation for Administrator Exam

What you’ll learn
Are you considering the Salesforce Administrator certification? In this course, Introduction to the Salesforce Certified Administrator Certification, you’ll learn to prepare for the certification exam. First, you’ll explore what makes the Salesforce Administrator different as a role compared to other technologies. Next, you’ll discover what resources to use in preparing for pursuing an Administrator certification credential. Finally, you’ll learn powerful test-taking strategies on exam day. When you’re finished with this course, you’ll have the skills and knowledge of Salesforce paths needed to begin your journey in studying for the Salesforce Administrator certification.

Pass the Salesforce Certified Administrator Exam
Become Intimately Familiar With The Salesforce Platform
Learn from a 19x Salesforce Certified & 7x Salesforce MVP!
Become an Awesome Admin
Understand how to create apps in the cloud
Become Salesforce Certified

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Configuration & Setup Introduction
Creating a FREE Salesforce Org
Logging into Salesforce
Navigating the Salesforce User Interface
Lightning vs Classic Salesforce Interface
Lightning vs Classic Feature Compatibility
Salesforce Branding and UI Customization
Density Settings
User Navigation Bar Customization
Salesforce Themes and Branding
Lightning Chrome Extension
Classic User Interface Overview
Customising the Classic User Interface
Classic Homepage Customization
UI Customization for Admins
Company Profile
User Management
Delegated Administration
Sandboxes
Deploying Changes Between Sandboxes
Sandbox Best Practice
Organizational & User Setup

Salesforce Certifications are fast becoming the must-have certificates for any IT professional working with Salesforce. This course is designed to help you pass the Salesforce Certified Administrator Exam. Even if you have never logged in to the Salesforce platform before, by the end of our Salesforce training you will be able to take the Salesforce exam with ease. No programming knowledge is needed and no prior Salesforce experience is required. With this Salesforce certification under your belt, you will be in high demand by many employers and you can command a superior salary.

In this course, we will start with how to get your FREE Salesforce account. Understand how to navigate and change the user interface of Salesforce as well as configure and make an Invoicing application on the platform. We will then move on and take a detailed look at the process automation, security & reporting functionality within Salesforce before diving into the two clouds: Sales & Marketing and Support Cloud and finally taking a look at Data Management.

This course follows the Salesforce Administrator syllabus very closely so that you only learn what you need to learn for the exam with best practices along the way.

Salesforce is constantly evolving its platform, three times a year Salesforce updates its product. As 2020 progresses we will continuously update this course with new content so you will never have to worry about missing out or failing the Salesforce certification test because of new content. This is the best online Salesforce training available, at a greatly affordable rate.

Most lectures are around 10-15 minutes long, with no lecture being over 20 minutes in length. I’ve been working in the Salesforce eco-system for over 11 years and I am a 7x Salesforce MVP & in the Salesforce Hall of Fame (an award given to only around 50 people globally on their expertise and knowledge of Salesforce). I am also 17x Salesforce Certified in a number of certifications as well as other technical certifications including AWS & TOGAF9.

This course is cheaper than most other courses because I am not doing this as a full-time job, rather because I love teaching cloud. So join me in becoming Awesome Admin today and get your Salesforce Administrator Certification qualification by completing our Salesforce online course today!

Who this course is for:
Salesforce Absolute Beginners. No prior Salesforce experience necessary
Existing Salesforce Administrators
Administrators interested in creating Applications on Salesforce and wanting in depth knowledge on building business processes, reports & security around their application.

QUESTION 1
Inline editing updates the field when

A. The field is saved/updated
B. When the record is saved/updated
C. When the return key is pressed
D. None of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
If a company opts to use Custom Fiscal Years, they cannot use the standard forecasting option.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are not standard objects?

A. Opportunities
B. Solutions
C. Job Applicants
D. Accounts
E. Campaigns

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are part of the Service Cloud offering?

A. Opportunities
B. Knowledge
C. Entitlements
D. Campaigns
E. Quotes

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
Locale settings control how users view date formats, time formats and number formats.

A. True
B. False
Answer: A

DEA-5TT2 Dell-EMC Associate – Networking Exam

If you are looking to build a career in the Networking domain, obtaining a certification from Dell EMC can be a great way to demonstrate your knowledge and skills. The Dell EMC Networking Associate (DEA-5TT2) Certification exam is designed to verify your understanding of the fundamentals of Dell EMC DCA-Networking. To help you prepare for the exam, it is recommended that you use the quick start guide provided by Dell EMC. This guide contains a list of objectives and resources that can assist you in your exam preparation. The Sample Questions included in the guide can help you to familiarize yourself with the type and difficulty level of the questions that you may encounter in the actual exam. The Practice Exams provided in the guide can also help you to become familiar with the format and environment of the certification exam. It is essential that you refer to this guide carefully before attempting your actual Dell EMC DCA-Networking certification exam. Obtaining the Dell EMC Networking Associate certification can help you to establish your expertise and stand out in the competitive Networking domain.

Certification Overview
This certification validates the ability to perform basic skill level tasks in installing, configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting Dell Technologies Networking products.
Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
Pass the following Associate level exam on or after September 16, 2022.

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• DEA-5TT2 Associate – Networking Exam
Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of September 16, 2022.
Other Certification Recommendations

This certification will qualify towards the following Specialist level certifications in the Dell Technologies Proven Professional Program:
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Campus Networking Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Data Center Networking Version 1.0
• Specialist – Infrastructure Security Version 1.0
* The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate – Networking track.
This exam focuses on basic Networking foundational skills and portfolio introduction.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• Dell EMC Networking Switches

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Network Essentials (5%)
• Explain the purpose and function of network devices such as switches and routers
• Distinguish between interface and cabling options (Copper, Fibre, Breakout)
• Configure and verify the initial configuration steps for a switch

Ethernet Technologies (40%)
• Describe how Ethernet addressing and framing operates (Source learning, Mac address tables)
• Describe the operation and behavior of LLDP, VLANs, STP, LAG (Link Layer Discovery Protocol, Virtual LANs, Spanning-Tree Protocol, Link Aggregation Group)
• Identify the CLI commands to configure and verify LLDP, VLANs, STP, LAG (Link Layer Discovery Protocol, Virtual LANs, Spanning-Tree Protocol, Link Aggregation Group)
• Configure and verify common storage networking features (flow control, MTU, Portfast)

IP Networking (25%)
• Identify the differences between private and public IP addressing
• Configure and verify the operation of IPv4 addressing (IP address ranges, subnetting, analyze routing table entries)
• Describe the IPv6 address format and types of IPv6 address
• Explain the forwarding logic used by Layer 3 capable devices
• Identify the differences between static and dynamic routing (connected, static, default routes)

Network Services (5%)

• Identify the CLI commands to configure and verify the operation of DHCP
• Describe the operation and behavior of the NTP service
• Identify the CLI commands to configure and verify the operation of NTP

Security Essentials (10%)
• Describe the options for securing access to a network switch (best practices for interface configuration, VLAN settings, securing spanning tree etc.)
• Configure and verify local authentication
• Configure and verify ACLs (Access Control Lists)

Network Operations (10%)

• Identify the CLI commands to transfer files to/from switches
• Troubleshoot common connectivity problems (link down, VLAN access, IP reachability, Blocked ports)
• Outline the recommended steps during a switch OS upgrade (OS10 update)
• Identify the CLI commands to enable a switch for SNMP monitoring

Automation (5%)
• Explain the role and advantages of using Smart Fabric Services
• Configure and verify the enablement of Smart Fabric Services

QUESTION 1
What are Network Address Translation (NAT) inside global addresses?

A. Addresses used by NAT router when sending frames to devices on the local network
B. Public IP addresses used by the local network to communicate with the Internet
C. Private IP addresses used by the local network
D. Pubic addresses used by other networks outside of the local network

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which topology is considered a best practice when stacking switches?

A. Ring
B. Cascade
C. Serial
D. Daisy-chain

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option is used to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide one-to-one mapping between local and global addresses?

A. Outside source static
B. Overload
C. Inside source static
D. PAT

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the valid range assigned to a client during a TCP connection?

A. 20 – 25
B. 443 – 1000
C. 1023 – 2024
D. 40000 – 65535

Answer: D

5V0-35.21 VMware vRealize Operations Specialist Exam

Exam 5V0-35.21 : VMware vRealize Operations Specialist
Language : English
Number of Questions : 76
Format : Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Duration : 135 Minutes
Passing Score :
300 (scaled)

Passing Score – VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300. Your exam may contain unscored questions in addition to the scored questions, this is a standard testing practice. You will not know which questions are unscored, your exam results will reflect your performance on the scored questions only.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The Minimally Qualified Candidate (MQC) can install, configure and manage vRealize Operations Manager without assistance. The MQC can utilize vRealize Operations Manager to perform capacity planning; health and performance monitoring (including using Custom Reports, Dashboards, Views, Alerts, extending vROPS functionality through Management packs, and super metrics). The MQC can also utilize vRealize Operations Manager to perform performance optimization and troubleshooting, to perform compliance checks and cost analysis of the environment, and to monitor service and applications. The MQC holds a VCP 2019, 2020 or 2021 certification. Minimally Qualified Candidate should
have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

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Exam Sections
If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Section 1 – Introduction – There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 2- Introduction to vRealize Operations
Objective: 2.1: Identify use cases for vRealize Operations.
Objective: 2.2: Identify the role played by the admin UI in managing a vRealize Operations cluster.

Section 3 – vRealize Operations Architecture
Objective: 3.1: Identify the types of nodes and their role in a vRealize Operations cluster.
Objective: 3.2: Identify how high availability is achieved in vRealize Operations.
Objective: 3.3: Identify the use cases for configuring Continuous Availability (CA).

Section 4 – Deploying vRealize Operations

Objective: 4.1: Given a scenario, identify the deployment architecture that should be used.
Objective: 4.2: Identify how to use the sizing tool.
Objective: 4.3: Given a scenario including an output of the sizing tool, identify information about the configuration.
Objective: 4.4: Identify the deployment options and requirements for vRealize Operations node.
Objective: 4.5: Given a scenario, identify how to create or expand the cluster.
Objective: 4.6: Identify the types of supported cloud accounts.
Objective: 4.7: Given a scenario, identify the type of Cloud Account and Other Accounts that should be used.

Section 5 – vRealize Operations Concepts
Objective: 5.1: Identify the components of the product UI.
Objective: 5.2: Identify the types and uses of object groupings.

Section 6 – vRealize Operations Policies and Certificates Management
Objective: 6.1: Given a use case, identify what can be configured in the policy and how the policy can be applied.
Objective: 6.2: Identify the characteristics of policy inheritance.

Section 7 – Capacity Optimization
Objective: 7.1: Identify the differences between demand and allocation capacity models.
Objective: 7.2: Given a scenario, identify the options for resource reclamation.
Objective: 7.3: Given a scenario, identify the impact of adding or removing virtual machines or hosts to a datacenter.
Objective: 7.4: Given a scenario, identify the impact of migrating from one datacenter to another.
Objective: 7.5: Given a scenario, identify the cost impact of migrating workloads to a public cloud.
Objective: 7.6: Identify the need for a custom cloud provider when completing What If scenarios.
Objective: 7.7: Identify the types of cost drivers in vRealize Operations.
Objective: 7.8: Identify requirements for completing cost calculations for a datacenter inventory.
Objective: 7.9: Identify the use case for configuration a price card.

Section 8- Performance Optimization

Objective: 8.1: Identify the options for performance optimization.
Objective: 8.2: Given a scenario, identify the use case for operational intent.
Objective: 8.3: Given a scenario, identify the use case for business intent.
Objective: 8.4: Identify the configuration options for operational and business intent.

Section 9 – Troubleshooting and Managing Configuration PillarsObjective: 9.1: Identify the characteristics of the troubleshooting workbench.
Objective: 9.2: Given a scenario, identify how to use to the troubleshooting workbench to resolve the alert or issue.
Objective: 9.3: Given a scenario, identify the compliance of the environment to a compliance benchmark.
Objective: 9.4: Identify the various compliance standards supported by vRealize Operations.
Objective: 9.5: Identify how to view or change vSphere object configurations.

Section 10 – Application Monitoring in vRealize Operations
Objective: 10.1: Identify the characteristics of service discovery and application monitoring.
Objective: 10.2: Given a scenario, identify the pre-requisites for service discovery.
Objective: 10.3: Given a scenario, identify the pre-requisites for application monitoring.
Objective: 10.4: Identify the process for configuring application monitoring.
Objective: 10.5: Given a scenario, identify the additional monitoring options that are provided using application monitoring.

Section 11 – Custom Alert Definitions
Objective: 11.1: Identify the components of an alert definition.
Objective: 11.2: Identify characteristics of a symptom definition.
Objective: 11.3: Given a scenario, identify the type of alert action that is required.
Objective: 11.4: Identify the function of an alert recommendation.
Objective: 11.5: Identify the characteristics of the automation action framework.
Objective: 11.6: Identify the characteristics of an alert notification.
Objective: 11.7: Given a scenario, identify how to create the alert definitions.

Section 12 – Custom Views and Reports
Objective: 12.1: Identify the components of custom views.
Objective: 12.2: Identify options for report generation.

Section 13 – Custom Dashboards

Objective: 13.1: Identify characteristics of dashboards.
Objective: 13.2: Given a scenario, identify how to troubleshoot issues with a dashboard.
Objective: 13.3: Given a scenario, identify the interactions between views and widgets on a dashboard.
Objective: 13.4: Identify the process to include a metric configuration file for the Scoreboard widget.
Objective: 13.5: Identify how to manage dashboards.
Objective: 13.6: Given a scenario, identify the options for sharing dashboards.

Section 14 – Super Metrics
Objective: 14.1: Identify the characteristics of super metrics.
Objective: 14.2: Identify options to apply super metrics.

Section 15 – User Access Control
Objective: 15.1: Given a scenario, identify how to configure role-based access control.
Objective: 15.2: Identify how privilege priorities impact user rights.
Objective: 15.3: Identify how to import users in groups from an LDAP source.
Section 16 – Extending and Managing a vRealize Operations Deployment Objective: 16.1: Identify characteristics of a management pack.
Objective: 16.2: Identify how to monitor the health of a vRealize Operations cluster.
Objective: 16.3: Identify types of support bundles.
Objective: 16.4: Identify how to generate support bundles.
Objective: 16.5: Identify how to view vRealize Operations logs and audit reports in the UI.
Objective: 16.6: Given a scenario, identify how to perform vRealize Operations cluster management tasks.

Section 17 – vRealize Operations Cloud Overview
Objective: 17.1: Identify the characteristics of the cloud services console.
Objective: 17.2: Identify the role and use cases of the cloud proxy when used with vRealize Operations Cloud.
Objective: 17.3: Given a scenario, identify the process of onboarding workload in vROPS cloud.
Objective: 17.4: Identify the integration options for the vRealize Cloud solutions.
Objective: 17.5: Given a scenario, identify the differences between vRealize Operations Cloud and vRealize Operations.

QUESTION 1
An administrator discovered a problem in the virtual infrastructure and obtained instructions that would resolve the triggered alert.
Which alert component was used by the administrator?

A. Threshold
B. Symptom
C. Recommendation
D. Reclamation

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An administrator created a pricing card for a new environment. After the pricing card was created and attached, the administrator immediately checked-the cost dashboard but only sees zero prices
for the VMs in the new environment.
What is the reason for this behavior?

A. The prices are only available for ESXi hosts.
B. A cost-based pricing card was created.
C. The cost calculation has not run yet.
D. The pricing card was not attached to the VM resource.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to manage a vRealize Operations cluster using the Admin UI.
Which two actions are possible? (Choose two.)

A. Deploying a new vRealize Operations node OVA
B. Uploading and installing vRealize Operations PAK files
C. Activating a vRealize Operations native management pack
D. Enabling or disabling high availability for the vRealize Operations cluster
E. Configuring a DNS server on the vRealize Operations nodes

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 4
What is used to monitor third-party solutions from vRealize Operations?

A. Inventory
B. Management packs
C. Authentication sources
D. Super metrics

Answer: B

1Z0-1032-22 Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

Oracle 1Z0-1032-22 exam, also known as the Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Implementation Essentials exam, is a certification exam offered by Oracle. This exam is designed for professionals who are interested in becoming certified in Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Implementation.

The exam is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge and skills in implementing and configuring Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022. This includes understanding the platform architecture, setting up and managing campaigns, designing and creating messages, managing data and audience segmentation, and analyzing campaign results.

To prepare for the Oracle 1Z0-1032-22 exam, candidates should have a solid understanding of marketing concepts and strategies, as well as experience working with marketing automation platforms. Oracle offers a range of training and certification resources, including online courses, study guides, and practice exams, to help candidates prepare for the exam.

The Oracle 1Z0-1032-22 exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions, and candidates have 105 minutes to complete the exam. The passing score for the exam is 65%, and results are available immediately after the exam is completed.

Becoming certified in Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Implementation can provide numerous benefits for professionals in the marketing industry. Certification demonstrates a high level of expertise and proficiency in using the Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform, which can increase job opportunities and earning potential. Additionally, certified professionals may have access to exclusive resources and networking opportunities within the Oracle community.

In conclusion, the Oracle 1Z0-1032-22 exam is an essential certification for professionals interested in becoming certified in Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Implementation. By demonstrating their proficiency in using the platform, certified professionals can increase their job opportunities and earning potential, as well as gain access to exclusive resources and networking opportunities. With the right preparation and resources, passing this exam can be a valuable step in advancing a career in marketing.

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 64%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1032-22

An Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2022 Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge skills to successfully implement the Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform, perform account administration tasks and describe integrations. They understand the Responsys Data Model, can perform initial warm-up, configuration, create and manage Campaign/Forms, design Programs, and develop basic Responsys Personalization Language (RPL).

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Responsys Data Model
Describe the Responsys Data Model
Create and manage Contact Lists, Supplemental Tables, and Profile Extension Tables
Create and manage Filters, Segment Groups, and Seed Groups

Initial Configuration/Deliverability
Describe domain branding and domain delegation, and gather initial account settings
Describe how Responsys manages bounce processing, spam and feedback loops, and soft bounce suppression
Perform IP Warm Up and IP Ramp Up
Configure global settings, campaign management options, domain suppressions, soft bounce settings, external tracking, and campaign categories
Implement conversion tracking
Configure subscription management

Integration: Interact Connect

Describe the Data Gateway Setup process
Configure Connect jobs to import data
Configure Contact Event Data (CED) exports

Creating and Managing Content
Create and manage documents
Read, write, and edit HTML code for emails

Campaigns/Forms
Create, manage, and test campaigns
Configure campaign settings in the Campaign Dashboard
Manage Campaign Categories, Link Categories, and Link Tables
Configure dynamic content modules
Create and manage forms

Programs
Design, manage, and publish programs
Analyze and test programs

Multi-Channel Campaigns
Create Short Message Service (SMS) campaigns
Create Push campaigns

Integrations
Describe Responsys API Authentication
Describe Responsys API scalability

Responsys Personalization Language (RPL)
Develop basic RPL
Develop important RPL directives

Reporting
Explain Interactive Dashboards
Analyze using Campaign Performace
Analyze using Deliverability Analysis
Analyze using Live Reports
Use Monitor Campaign Functionality

Account Admin
Create and Configure Responsys Users
Configure Global Settings
Configure Campaign Management

QUESTION 1
What three actions must you take to set up your new IP for deliverability success with your major ISPs? (Choose three.)

A. Do everything possible to remove lapsed, bounced, or old email addresses to increase the possibility of getting your emails into the inbox.
B. Set up a backup IP address so you will get through to the inbox even if you are blocked by an ISP.
C. Automate the daily delivery of Insight Deliverability reports for your warm-up campaigns, especially the Feedback Loop reports to check on true spam complaint rates.
D. Ensure that your warm-up audience lists consist of recently opted-in, opened/clicked within the last few months, or are known brand advocates.

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 2
Which three actions will change the EMAIL_PERMISSION_STATUS_ column for a profile list contact from opt-in to opt-out? (Choose three.)

A. Recipient deletes a promotional email from the inbox.
B. Use Set Data in a Responsys Program to change the EMAIL_PERMISSION_STATUS_ column in a profile list record from I to O.
C. Recipient selects a Reply-to unsubscribe in a promotional email.
D. Recipient registers a SPAM complaint for an email.
E. Recipient inbox is full, so the promotional email is rejected by the server.

Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 3
In every email, your client wants to provide a link so customers can download their latest menu.
They want to serve this from the Responsys content library, updating the document periodically.
How can they accomplish this?

A. Upload the document into Manage Hosted Content, then publish. Insert this URL into every email
document. To update, unpublish the document, upload the current version with the same name, and publish.

B. Upload the document into the Content Library. From the document pull-down menu, select Create
Embeddable URL and copy the URL into every email. Upload and overwrite this document with the
most current version as needed.

C. Your client must host and update the document from their own content server and provide the
URL to Responsys. In the Responsys email documents, use the ServeURL function to reference the
document as needed.

D. Upload the document into the Content Library. Right-click the document and select Copy Link.
Insert this link into every email document. Upload and overwrite this document as needed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are planning an integration of Salesforce.com and Responsys. You navigate to the Account
Administration screen to configure the access to Salesforce.com, but the configuration options are not available.
What is the reason for this?

A. You need to work with Salesforce.com technical resources to configure the gateway to Responsys from within the Salesforce.com application.
B. You need to create a new user specifically for Responsys from within the Salesforce.com application.
C. Responsys Customer Support must first enable the Salesforce integration functionality before the Account Administrator can configure the access between Salesforce.com and Responsys.
D. You must first create a new Salesforce Connect job to enable the automated data feed between the Salesforce.com and Responsys contacts lists.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
While configuring the import of a PET table, you need to match new records to existing records for the data merge.

Which two profile fields are options to configure the import to match existing records? (Choose two.)

A. PET_ID_
B. EMAIL_ADDRESS_
C. CUSTOMER_ID_
D. ADDRESS_

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 6
Before moving a campaign to production you need to test whether the links are working properly.
What functionality should you use in Responsys?

A. In the Testing section of a campaign Workbook, there is a Test links button that can automate this process.
B. Using RPL, use the clickthrough() method to iterate through the associated link table and test that they do not retrieve 404 errors.
C. In Program, you can use the Test tab because it will display any issues with links according to a campaign.
D. You should test all links manually.

Answer: C

JN0-363 Service Provider Routing and Switching, Specialist Exam

The Service Provider Routing and Switching track enables you to demonstrate a thorough understanding of networking technology in general and Juniper Networks service provider routing and switching platforms. JNCIS-SP, the specialist-level certification in this track, is designed for networking professionals with beginner to intermediate knowledge of routing and switching implementations in Junos. The written exam verifies your basic understanding of routing and switching technologies and related platform configuration and troubleshooting skills.

This track contains four certifications:
JNCIA-Junos: Junos, Associate. For details, see JNCIA-Junos.
JNCIS-SP: Service Provider Routing and Switching, Specialist. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIP-SP: Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional. For details, see JNCIP-SP.
JNCIE-SP: Service Provider Routing and Switching, Expert. For details, see JNCIE-SP.

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code : JN0-363
Prerequisite Certification : JNCIA-Junos
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Junos OS 21.2

Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

Recommended Training
Junos Intermediate Routing (JIR)
Junos Service Provider Switching (JSPX)
Junos MPLS Fundamentals (JMF)

Exam Resources
Industry/product knowledge
Juniper TechLibrary
Additional Preparation
Juniper Learning Portal

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Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIS-SP certification exam.

Exam Objective / Description

Protocol-Independent Routing
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of various protocol-independent routing components:
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including routing information base (RIB) (also known as routing table) group
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot various protocol-independent routing components:
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of OSPF:
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router and backup designated router
OSPF area and router types
Link-state advertisement (LSA) packet type

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot OSPF:
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of IS-IS:
Link-state database
IS-IS protocol data units (PDUs)
Type, length, values (TLVs)
Adjacencies and neighbors
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot IS-IS:
Levels, interfaces and adjacencies
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP:
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
Internal and external BGP (IBGP and EBGP) functionality and interaction

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot BGP:
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application

Layer 2 Bridging or VLANs
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 bridging for the Junos OS:
Service provider switching platforms
Bridging elements and terminology
Frame processing
Virtual Switches
Provider bridging (Q-in-Q tunneling)

Identify the concepts, benefits, or functionality of VLANs:
Port modes
Tagging
Integrated Routing and Bridging (IRB)/li>

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Layer 2 bridging or VLANs:
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
IRB
Provider bridging

Spanning-Tree Protocols
Identify the concepts, benefits, operation, or functionality of Spanning Tree Protocol and its variants:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP), and VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol (VSTP) concepts
Port roles and states
Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)
Convergence and reconvergence
Spanning-tree security

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot STP and its variants:
Spanning-tree protocols (STP, RSTP, MSTP, VSTP)
BPDU, loop and root protection

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of MPLS:
MPLS terminology
MPLS packet header
End-to-end packet flow and forwarding
Labels and the label information base
MPLS and routing tables
RSVP
LDP
Segment routing

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot MPLS:
MPLS forwarding
RSVP-signaled and LDP-signaled Label-Switched Paths (LSPs)

IPv6
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of IPv6:
IPv4 versus IPv6
Address types, notation, and format
Address scopes
Autoconfiguration
Tunneling

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshooting IPv6:
Interfaces
Static routes
Dynamic routing (OSPFv3, IS-IS, BGP)
IPv6 over IPv4 tunneling

Tunnels
Identify the concepts, requirements, or functionality of IP tunneling:

Tunneling applications and considerations
Generic routing encapsulation (GRE)

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot IP tunnels:

GRE
High Availability

Identify the concepts, benefits, applications, or requirements of high availability:
Link aggregation groups (LAGs) and multichassis LAGs (MC- LAGs)
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop bridging (NSB)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot high availability components:
LAG
Graceful restart, GRES, NSB, and NSR
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

QUESTION 1

Exhibit button
Which two statements are correct about the service provider MPLS network shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)

A. R3 will perform a label pop operation on the transport MPLS label.
B. Traffic from Network 1 to Network 3 and traffic from Network 1 to Network 4 each need their own unique label-switched path.
C. Traffic from Network 1 to Network 3 and from Network 1 to Network 4 can share the same labelswitched path.
D. R3 will perform a label swap operation on the transport MPLS label.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are correct about IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A. A level 1 only router can never form an adjacency with a level 2 only router.
B. For level 2 adjacencies, the area IDs can be different.
C. For level 2 adjacencies, the area IDs must be the same.
D. A level 1 only router can form an adjacency with a level 2 only router.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You are adding an IPv6 configuration to an Interface on a Junos device.
In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. The link local address must be manually configured within the fdO0:: prefix range.
B. The link local address must be manually configured within the fe80:: prefix range.
C. The link local address is automatically created using the MAC address within the fe80::’l0 prefix range.
D. The link local address is automatically created using the MAC address within the fd00:: prefix range.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which statement is correct about IS-IS?

A. IS-IS is a distance vector routing protocol.
B. IS-IS is a path vector routing protocol.
C. IS-IS is a link-state routing protocol.
D. IS-IS is a classful routing protocol.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which new field is added to an IPv6 header as compared lo IPv4?

A. version
B. checksum
C. fragment offset
D. flow label

Answer: D