MO-100 Microsoft Word (Word and Word 2019) Exam

February 28, 2020 Lindsay

An individual earning this certification has approximately 150 hours of instruction and hands-on experience with the product, has proven competency at an industry associate-level, and is ready to enter into the job market. They can demonstrate the correct application of the principal features of Word and can complete tasks independently.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Office Specialist: Word Associate (Word and Word 2019)

This exam measures competency in the correct application of the principal features of Word by creating and editing documents for a variety of purposes and situations. The exam covers the ability to create and maintain professional-looking reports, multicolumn newsletters, résumés, and business correspondence.

Manage documents (20-25%)

Navigate within documents
 Search for text
 Link to locations within documents
 Move to specific locations and objects in documents
 Show and hide formatting symbols and hidden text

Format documents
 Set up document pages
 Apply style sets
 Insert and modify headers and footers
 Configure page background elements

Save and share documents
 Save documents in alternative file formats
 Modify basic document properties
 Modify print settings
 Share documents electronically

Inspect documents for issues
 Locate and remove hidden properties and personal information
 Locate and correct accessibility issues
 Locate and correct compatibility issues

Insert and format text, paragraphs, and sections (20-25%)

Insert text and paragraphs
 Find and replace text
 Insert symbols and special characters

Format text and paragraphs
 Apply text effects
 Apply formatting by using Format Painter
 Set line and paragraph spacing and indentation
 Apply built-in styles to text
 Clear formatting

Create and configure document sections
 Format text in multiple columns
 Insert page, section, and column breaks
 Change page setup options for a section

Manage tables and lists (15-20%)

Create tables
 Convert text to tables
 Convert tables to text
 Create tables by specifying rows and columns

Modify tables
 Sort table data
 Configure cell margins and spacing
 Merge and split cells
 Resize tables, rows, and columns
 Split tables
 Configure a repeating row header

Create and modify lists
 Format paragraphs as numbered and bulleted lists
 Change bullet characters and number formats
 Define custom bullet characters and number formats
 Increase and decrease list levels
 Restart and continue list numbering
 Set starting number values

Create and manage references (5-10%)

Create and manage reference elements
 Insert footnotes and endnotes
 Modify footnote and endnote properties
 Create and modify bibliography citation sources
 Insert citations for bibliographies

Create and manage reference tables
 Insert tables of contents
 Customize tables of contents
 Insert bibliographies

Insert and format graphic elements (15-20%)

Insert illustrations and text boxes
 Insert shapes
 Insert pictures
 Insert 3D models
 Insert SmartArt graphics
 Insert screenshots and screen clippings
 Insert text boxes

Format illustrations and text boxes
 Apply artistic effects
 Apply picture effects and picture styles
 Remove picture backgrounds
 Format graphic elements
 Format SmartArt graphics
 Format 3D models

Add text to graphic elements
 Add and modify text in text boxes
 Add and modify text in shapes
 Add and modify SmartArt graphic content

Modify graphic elements
 Position objects
 Wrap text around objects
 Add alternative text to objects for accessibility

Manage document collaboration (5-10%)

Add and manage comments
 Add comments
 Review and reply to comments
 Resolve comments
 Delete comments

Manage change tracking
 Track changes
 Review tracked changes
 Accept and reject tracked changes
 Lock and unlock change tracking

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Microsoft 365

MB-700 Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect Exam (beta)

February 26, 2020 Lindsay

Solution Architects for Finance and Operations apps in Microsoft Dynamics 365 are trusted advisors who consult with organizations and implementation team members to refine business needs into a well-defined and cost-effective solution.

A Solution Architect is accountable for the integrity and successful delivery of the complete solution design. The architect provides critical guidance during pre-sales and design and consults throughout the remainder of the project lifecycle to address issues that arise throughout the implementation.

The Solution Architect must have a breadth of knowledge and experience spanning business needs and product capabilities. The Solution Architect must have broad functional and technical expertise as either a Developer or Functional Consultant role in one of the following: Finance, Manufacturing, or Supply Chain Management. In addition, they have extensive domain knowledge in one or more customer industries.

Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: identify solution requirements; design solution components; and define solution testing and management strategies.

Identify solution requirements (30-35%)
Identify business requirements
• describe an organization including companies, divisions, and other entities
• visualize an organization structure
• identify reporting requirements, including operational, analytical, and externally facing reports

Perform gap analyses
• categorize business requirements and determine what gaps exist between current apps and services and the proposed solution
• identify the functional business processes that must be added, removed, or modified

Define compliance requirements
• define audit requirements
• determine localization requirements and design a localization strategy, including taxes and user interfaces
• identify regulatory and governmental compliance requirements, including data privacy regulations

Define security requirements
• design a strategy for segregating duties
• design the security strategy and architecture for a solution

Determine licensing needs and costs • evaluate the costs and benefits of solution options • determine licensing requirements for Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations and third-party apps and services • estimate upfront and ongoing infrastructure and cloud services costs • estimate the long-term costs for a solution Design solution components (40-45%)

Design business processes
• identify use cases and business optimization opportunities, including upgrade and data migration scenarios
• map requirements and business process steps to a solution
• select solution functional components

Design data migration strategies
• identify and characterize data sources that must be migrated
• design a master data management strategy
• develop a data migration strategy
• develop a data cut-over plan

Design system integrations
• identify options to increase return on investment by integrating Office 365 apps and services and other Microsoft solutions
• identify options for integrating with third-party solutions
• select integration strategies
• recommend add-on technologies and services

Design solution infrastructure
• select a cloud-based or on-premises implementation
• identify required infrastructure apps, services, components, and features
• define performance requirements

Define solution testing and management strategies (25-30%)
Develop an application lifecycle management (ALM) strategy
• identify the available instance types
• select instance types for a solution
• identify use cases, integration points, and methodologies for implementing Azure DevOps functionality

Recommend Lifecycle Services (LCS) tools
• identify the available LCS tools, including Business Process Modeler (BPM), Regression Suite Automation Tool (RSAT) and Regulatory Updates
• select LCS tools to support a solution

Define a testing strategy
• design a strategy for performance and load testing
• define a regression testing strategy, including what requires testing and the order of testing
• determine when to use RSAT, SysTest, and other tools and technologies
• define performance goals and requirements, predict transaction volumes

QUESTION 1
You are responsible for regulatory compliance for a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You need to be able to search for the regulatory features of Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
What should you use?

A. Intelligent Data Management Framework (IDMF)
B. System diagnostics
C. Application Object Tree (AOT)
D. Issue search

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You set up security roles for the users in a company.
You must use standard security roles when possible.
You need to identify the standard security roles.
Which of the following can you assign to a user as a standard security role?

A. Waterspider
B. System engineer
C. Developer
D. Business development manager

Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft 365

MB-600 Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Solution Architect Exam

February 24, 2020 Lindsay

Exam MB-600: Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Solution Architect (beta)
Solution Architects for Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 lead successful implementations and focus on how solutions address the broader business and technical needs of organizations.

A Solution Architect has functional and technical knowledge of the Power Platform model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, such as Dynamics 365 Customer Service, Dynamics 365 Field Service, Dynamics 365 Marketing, and Dynamics 365 Sales, related Microsoft cloud solutions, and other third-party technologies. A Solution Architect applies knowledge and experience throughout an engagement. The Solution Architect performs proactive and preventative work to increase the value of the customer’s investment and promote organizational health. This role requires the ability to identify opportunities to solve business problems.

Solution Architects have experience across functional and technical disciplines of the Power Platform and model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Solution Architects should be able to facilitate design decisions across development, configuration, integration, infrastructure, security, availability, storage, and change management. This role balances a project’s business needs while meeting functional and non-functional requirements.

Perform solution envisioning and requirement analysis (30-35%)

Initiate Solution Planning
• evaluate business requirements
• identify solution components
• identify and estimate migration effort

Identify Organization Information and Metrics
• identify and document a organization’s business processes
• assess organization’s risk factors

Identify Existing Solutions and Systems
• evaluate organization enterprise architecture
• identify data sources to be included in the solution
• define usage and quality of legacy data
• identify desired high level organizational business processes

Capture requirements
• refine high level requirement
• identify functional requirements
• identify non-functional requirements
• confirm requirements meet organization’s goals

Perform Fit/Gap Analysis
• determine feasibility of requirements
• evaluate Dynamics 365 apps and AppSource options to solve requirements
• address functional gaps through alternate solutions
• determine scope

Architect a solution (45-50%)

Lead Design Process
• design solution topology
• tailor customizations to Dynamics 365 apps or AppSource apps used
• validate and/or design user experience prototypes
• identify opportunities for component reuse
• communicate system design visually
• design Application Lifecycle Management
• design data migration strategy
• partition features into apps
• design visualization strategy
• design for upgradeability

Design Data and Security Model
• design entities and fields
• design reference and configuration data
• design complex scenarios
• design business unit team structure
• design security roles
• design field security

Design Integrations
• design collaboration integration
• design Dynamics 365 integration
• design internal system integration
• design third-party integration
• design authentication strategy
• design business continuity strategy

Implement the solution (20-25%)
Validate the solution design
• evaluate detail designs and implementation
• validate security

Support Go-Live
• facilitate risk reduction of performance items
• troubleshoot data migration
• review and advise in deployment planning
• review and advise with Go-Live Assessment

QUESTION 1
You need to display data that is referenced by a lookup field on a form.
Which option should you use?

A. Quick Find View
B. Associated View
C. Quick View
D. Public View

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two series aggregate functions are only available on numeric field data types? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Count: Non-empty
B. Count: All
C. Avg
D. Max

Correct Answer: C,D

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Microsoft MOS, Microsoft Specialist

MO-201 Microsoft Excel Expert (Excel and Excel 2019)

February 21, 2020 Lindsay

An individual earning this certification has approximately 150 hours of instruction and hands-on experience with the product, has proven competency at an industry expert level and is ready to enter into the job market. They can demonstrate the correct application of the principal features of Excel at an expert-level and can complete tasks independently.

Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures competency in creating, managing, and distributing professional spreadsheets for a variety of specialized purposes and situations. The exam covers the ability to customize Excel environments to meet project needs and to enhance productivity. Expert workbook examples include custom business templates, multiple-axis financial charts, amortization tables, and inventory schedules.

Skills measured
Manage workbook options and settings (15-20%)
Manage and format data (20-25%)
Create advanced formulas and macros (30-35%)
Manage advanced charts and tables (25-30%)

Manage workbook options and settings (15-20%)

Manage workbooks
• copy macros between workbooks
• reference data in other workbooks
• enable macros in a workbook
• manage workbook versions

Prepare workbooks for collaboration
• restrict editing
• protect worksheets and cell ranges
• protect workbook structure
• configure formula calculation options
• manage comments

Use and configure language options
• configure editing and display languages
• use language-specific features

Manage and format data (20-25%)
Fill cells based on existing data
• fill cells by using Flash Fill
• fill cells by using advanced Fill Series options

Format and validate data
• create custom number formats
• configure data validation
• group and ungroup data
• calculate data by inserting subtotals and totals
• remove duplicate records

Apply advanced conditional formatting and filtering
• create custom conditional formatting rules
• create conditional formatting rules that use formulas
• manage conditional formatting rules

Create advanced formulas and macros (30-35%)
Perform logical operations in formulas
• perform logical operations by using nested functions including the IF(), IFS(), SWITCH(), SUMIF(), AVERAGEIF(), COUNTIF(), SUMIFS(), AVERAGEIFS(), COUNTIFS(), MAXIFS(), MINIFS(),

AND(), OR(), and NOT() functions

Look up data by using functions
• look up data by using the VLOOKUP(), HLOOKUP(), MATCH(), and INDEX() functions
Use advanced date and time functions
• reference date and time by using the NOW() and TODAY() functions
• calculate dates by using the WEEKDAY() and WORKDAY() functions

Perform data analysis
• summarize data from multiple ranges by using the Consolidate feature
• perform what-if analysis by using Goal Seek and Scenario Manager
• forecast data by using the AND(), IF(), and NPER() functions
• calculate financial data by using the PMT() function

Troubleshoot formulas
• trace precedence and dependence
• monitor cells and formulas by using the Watch Window
• validate formulas by using error checking rules
• evaluate formulas

Create and modify simple macros
• record simple macros
• name simple macros
• edit simple macros

Manage advanced charts and tables (25-30%)
Create and modify advanced charts
• create and modify dual axis charts
• create and modify charts including Box & Whisker, Combo, Funnel, Histogram, Map, Sunburst, and Waterfall charts

Create and modify PivotTables
• create PivotTables
• modify field selections and options
• create slicers
• group PivotTable data
• add calculated fields
• format data

Create and modify PivotCharts
• create PivotCharts
• manipulate options in existing PivotCharts
• apply styles to PivotCharts
• drill down into PivotChart details

QUESTION 1
Apply a cell style
Cell range A2:S2
Style 40% – Accent3

Correct Answer: Use the following steps to complete this task in explanation:

Step 1: Open the correct worksheet (Section 3 Worksheet).
Step 2: Click in cell A2.
Step 3: Press down the Shift key and click in cell S2.
Step 4: On the Home tab, under Format, scroll down until you see 40% . Accent3, and click on it.

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Tech, Uncategorized

QSSA2018 Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Exam – June 2018 Release Exam

February 19, 2020 Lindsay

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Tech

APSCA – Alfresco Process Services Certified Administrator Exam

February 14, 2020 Lindsay

GENERAL TERMS OF USE FOR EXAMS DEVELOPED BY ALFRESCO
The exam you are about to take is confidential. You (the candidate) are expressly prohibited from disclosing, selling, publishing, reproducing or transmitting this exam, in whole or in part, in any form or by any means including visual, aural, verbal, written, electronic or mechanical, for any purpose, without the prior express written permission of Alfresco. The exam is made available to you as a candidate, solely for your assessment. The personal data which you provide on registration and at the end of this exam session will be used to transmit your exam score to Kryterion and Alfresco for monitoring purposes.

Your personal data and exam data will be stored in the Kryterion database and Alfresco database. Alfresco reminds you that you have the right to access, delete and modify your personal data. To exercise such right with respect to Alfresco, please contact certification@alfresco.com Alfresco’s rights in the intellectual property used in providing this exam are protected by law. MS Office, MS Word, MS Excel are the intellectual property of Microsoft Corporation. Google and the Google logo are the intellectual property of Google Inc. Box and the Box logo are the intellectual property of Box.

2.2 Product Version
The current version of the Alfresco Content Services Certified Engineer exam is based upon Alfresco Content Services 5.2.

have 75 minutes to provide, review and submit your answers for assessment. You may mark any question for later review by selecting the “Mark this item for later review” checkbox in the bottom left-hand corner of the screen. You will have the opportunity to review all your answers before the exam is submitted for assessment. A grade of 70% is required to pass the exam and achieve certification. Upon submission of the exam, you will be immediately notified of whether you have passed or failed. If you pass, your results, certificate and logo will be included in your completion email. This will be sent to the e-mail address you registered with. If you do not receive this email, please check your junk email folder prior to contacting Alfresco. If you fail, your exam results will be sent to the e-mail address you registered with. This email will include topic results which you can use to target your studies if you wish to retake the exam at a later date. 2.4 Exam Format

The question formats used in the examination may be one or more of the following:
• Multiple Choice – Select one option which answers the question or completes a statement.
• Multiple Response – Select multiple options which answer the question or complete a statement. The question will indicate how many responses are required.
• Scenario – Read the statement or question and then select the option(s) that answer the question or statement given the information that has been provided.

2.5 Expiration Policy
We will continue to update our training curriculum and certification exams to reflect the release of new Alfresco products and versions.
In keeping with industry best practice, we will expire certifications two years after the subsequent revision of the exam.
• The current version of the ACSCE exam is v5.2; exam code ACSCE-5X
• No expiry date has been set for this version of the exam
• Certifications against exam code ACE501 do not have an expiry date
• Certifications against exam code ACE001 expired on 30th November 2017.

2.6 Retake Policy
If a candidate fails the exam, Alfresco would recommend a 14-day period of study before making a second attempt.
For third and subsequent attempts a 3-month period of study is recommended.
Each attempt at a certification exam will require payment of the exam fee.
If a candidate passes the exam, they will be unable to take the exam again until the next revision of the certification is released.

3.1 Activities
The exam is based upon demonstrating competency in the activities that an Alfresco Content Services Engineer would be expected to perform on a regular basis.
• Understand the Alfresco Content Services Architecture
• Understand the Alfresco Repository Subsystems
• Develop Content Models
• Package and deploy extensions and modules for Alfresco Content Services
• Configure and develop extensions for the Alfresco Share UI
• Develop applications and services using the Alfresco APIs
• Extend the Alfresco Content Services REST API using Web Scripts
• Develop workflows and task models for Alfresco Content Services
• Integrate with external applications using the REST API and protocols such as CMIS

3.2 Topic Areas
The following topic areas will be tested on the Alfresco Content Services Certified Engineer exam:

• Architectural Core (5 questions)
o Database
o Repository
o Security & Authentication
o Solr
o Subsystems

• Repository Customization (20 questions)
o Content Modelling
o Extension Classpath
o Packaging Extensions
o Event Model (Behaviours, Policies)
o Rules & Actions
o Transformations & Extractions
o Embedded Workflows

• User Interface Customization (10 questions)
o Aikau
o Share Configuration
o Share Customization

• Alfresco API Interface (20 questions)
o REST API
o Foundation Services API
o JavaScript API
o CMIS

• Web Scripts (5 questions)
o Web Scripts Framework

QUESTION 1
Why manually created users CANNOT log in to activiti-app after configuring authentication/synchronization of
users from an external source (ldap/ad)?

A. The authentication can only be set for either external users (ldap/ad) or the manually created users, not both.
B. The manually created users have to be activated again in the Identity Management users tab because the initial synchronization to external user data source inactivates all users.
C. The authentication database fallback configuration property for activiti-app needs to be set to true.
D. The authentication of manually created users check box needs to be checked in the Identity Management tenant configuration.

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
What is the username to log in to activiti-app application as an administrator? Assume out of the box defaults.

A. administrator@activiti.com
B. admin@alfresco.com
C. admin@activiti.com
D. admin@app.activiti.com
E. admin@activiti.app.com

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.alfresco.com/activiti/docs/admin-guide/1.5.0/

QUESTION 3
What is the username to log in to activiti-admin application? Assume out of the box defaults.

A. administrator
B. activiti-admin
C. admin
D. activitiAdmin
E. admin@activiti.admin.com

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https:://docs.alfresco.com/activiti/docs/admin-guide/1.4.0/

QUESTION 4
Which of the following configuration snippets enables Active Directory authentication?

A. ldap.authentication.active-directory.enabled=true
ldap.authentication.active-directory.domain=your domain
B. ldap.authentication.enabled=true
ldap.authentication.active-directory.domain=your domain
C. ldap.authentication=true
ldap.authentication.active-directory.domain=your domain
D. ldap.authentication.active-directory=true
ldap.authentication.active-directory.domain=your domain

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.alfresco.com/process-services1.9/topics/authentication.html

QUESTION 5
Which of the following approaches are valid for listing all of the available tenants? (Choose two.)

A. Log into activiti-app as tenant manager and view tenants under identity management (IDM).
B. Select list of tenants from database table ACT_TENANTS.
C. Use Alfresco Process Services REST API to list tenants.
D. Log into activiti-admin as tenant manager and view tenants under configuration.
E. Generate an Analytics report in activiti-app for tenant configurations.

Answer: C,D

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Tech

NSE7_EFW-6.0 Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 6.0 Exam

February 12, 2020 Lindsay

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following tasks are automated using the Install Wizard on FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A. Install configuration changes to managed devices.
B. Preview pending configuration changes for managed devices.
C. Import policy packages from managed devices.
D. Add devices to FortiManager.
E. Import interface mappings from managed devices

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 2
What conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)

A. OSPF IP MTUs match.
B. OSPF costs match.
C. OSPF peer IDs match.
D. IP addresses are in the same subnet.
E. Hello and dead intervals match.

Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 3
An administrator has configured two FortiGate devices for an HA cluster. While testing the HA failover, the administrator noticed that some of the switches in the network continue to send traffic to the former primary unit. The administrator decides to enable the setting link-failed-signal to fix the problem. Which one of the following statements about this command is true?

A. Forces the former primary device to shut down all its non-heartbeat interfaces for one second while the failover occurs.
B. Sends an ARP packet to all connected devices, indicating that the HA virtual MAC address is reachable through a new master after a failover.
C. Disables all the non-heartbeat interfaces in all the HA members for two seconds after a failover.
D. Sends a link failed signal to all connected devices.
|
Answer: A

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Cirtix

1Y0-204 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Administration Exam

February 11, 2020 Lindsay

QUESTION 1
Which PowerShell command can be used to display all the Citrix services installed on the Delivery Controller?

A. Get-Service -DisplayName *site*
B. Get-Service -DisplayName *citrix*
C. Get-Service -DisplayName *controller*
D. Get-Service -DisplayName *broker*

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to collect information to investigate issues with session performance?

A. CDF Control
B. HDX Monitor
C. Citrix Scout
D. Citrix Health Assistant

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which two features within Citrix Director can a Citrix Administrator use to view historical resource utilization for
a machine running the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA)? (Choose two.)

A. Alerts
B. Dashboard
C. Applications
D. Search
E. Trends

Answer: C,E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/director/troubleshoot-machines.html

QUESTION 4
A user calls the help desk to report that when launching any application from within their published desktop
session, it takes a long time and the overall performance is poor.
Which Citrix Director report can a Citrix Administrator use to initiate the investigation of the issue?

A. Machine Utilization in Machine Details
B. Launch Failures in Trends
C. Load Evaluator in Trends
D. Session Data in Filters

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2014/09/22/citrix-director-trends-explained/

QUESTION 5
Which tool should a Citrix Administrator use when a user reports “event ID 1022: The Citrix Desktop Service
Failed to register with any controller”?

A. HDX Monitor
B. VDA Cleanup Utility
C. Citrix Scout
D. Citrix Health Assistant

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX207624

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Tech

Vmedu Scrum Master Certified

February 8, 2020 Lindsay

Overview
Scrum Master Certified (SMC®) professionals are facilitators who ensure that the Scrum Team is provided with an environment conducive to completing the project successfully. The Scrum Master guides, facilitiates, and teaches Scrum practices to everyone involved in the project; clears impediments for the team; and, ensures that Scrum processes are being followed.

Successful candidates will be awarded the Scrum Master Certified (SMC®) certification by SCRUMstudy™ after passing the certification exam.

Exam Format
Multiple choice
100 questions per exam
No negative marks for wrong answers
120 minutes duration
Proctored online exam
Current pass rate: 95%

Audience Profile
This certification is appropriate for anyone who is interested in becoming a Scrum Master.

Prerequisites
There is no formal prerequisite for this certification. However, it is preferable to complete the Scrum Developer Certified (SDC®) certification before applying for the Scrum Master certification. It is also highly recommended to attend a 2-day SMC® classroom training provided by a SCRUMstudy™ approved Authorized Training Partner (A.T.P.)

How to Apply
1. Register for free on SCRUMstudy.com and apply for the exam (OR) Attend a classroom training provided by SCRUMstudy™ Authorized Training Partner and register for free on SCRUMstudy.com.

2. Apply for the exam by paying USD 450 or by using the exam voucher provided by the SCRUMstudy™ A.T.P. You need to submit relevant documents (if required).

3. Access the online course and take the exam
    Access the online course on ‘Scrum MasterCertified’.
    Get a copy of the SBOK® Guide online version.
    Schedule the two hour proctored exam.
    SCRUMstudy™ verifies the application: confirms the exam date and time.
    Take the two hour proctored exam online.

4. Upon successful completion of the exam get an online certificate.
    Your name will be added to the SCRUMstudy™ Certification Registry.
    You can add the certificate to your LinkedIn profile.
    If you are unable to pass the exam, you can schedule again and take a maximum of two Free Exam Retakes.

Maintaining Certification
To maintain the certification status, Scrum Master Certified (SMC®) professionals will need to earn 40 re-certification credits every 3 years.

Scrum-Master-Certified Scrum Master Certified Scrum Master Certified Exam

QUESTION 1
All of the following statements about Risk Communications are true, EXCEPT:

A. The Stakeholders should be continuously informed about risks, including the potential impact of these risks and the plans for responding to each risk.
B. The Scrum Team may also discuss specific risks related to their Tasks with the Product Owner during Daily Standup Meetings.
C. The Product Owner is responsible for the prioritization of risks and for communicating the prioritized list to the Scrum Team.
D. Information related to risks is maintained and updated through the Risk Burndown Chart.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A town has begun a project that involves keeping track of the buses traveling on the roads of the town. Which
of the following is NOT a characteristic of this project if it is managed according to Scrum Framework?

A. Detailed upfront planning will be done to ensure that risks are identified early on.
B. The team working on this project will meet every day for 15 minutes to list impediments to completing their tasks.
C. The Product Owner will prioritize the tasks that deliver maximum business value.
D. The customer does not have to be able to define very concrete requirements early on.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The Chief Scrum Master facilitates the Scrum of Scrums Meeting. Which of the following statements about a Scrum of Scrums Meeting is true?

A. This meeting can be conducted at any time without any pre-determined intervals.
B. This meeting can be scaled up.
C. This meeting is always time-boxed.
D. This meeting is relevant only for high-investment projects.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The senior management of a multi-national company undertakes turnkey projects. To provide better value to customers, the senior management wants to implement Scrum in the organization. Which of the following is NOT a Scrum principle that can be used as a selling point to illustrate the benefits of Scrum to customers?

A. Self-organization.
B. Collaboration.
C. Value-based Prioritization.
D. Theoretical process control.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The Chief Scrum Master plays an important role during the Retrospect Project process. By being a part of the Retrospect Project Meeting, he/she provides valuable inputs mainly to identify, document, and internalize the lessons learned during the process. What is an output of this process?

A. Agreed Actionable Improvements.
B. Agreed Actionable Schedule.
C. Agreed Actionable Lessons.
D. Agreed Actionable Objectives.

Correct Answer: A

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Tech

ACP-600 Project Administration in Jira Server Exam

February 6, 2020 Lindsay

Certification | Jira Project Admins / Jira Admins | JIRA / JIRA Software

Capable Project Administrators are essential to the optimal functioning of Jira in large organizations.
Certified Jira Project Administrators are the power users who know how to configure projects and boards, customize workflows and manage project permissions in their organization’s Jira Server or Data Center instance. They live in Jira day-to-day, and can help scale their instance to meet the demand of their business, so their Jira Administrator and teams can get more work done.

Six months’ exposure to Jira is recommended before taking the training course.

Exam Number ACP-600
LANGUAGES English, Japanese, Korean
TIME WINDOW You must complete the exam within 60 days of your purchase of the course.
Location Proctored online at your own location
Products Jira Software Server Enterprise Releases
Registration Availability
Price USD $100 for course + exam voucher bundle
Exam Time 180 minutes
Passing Score 63% (effective 15 March 2019)
Questions Up to 75

Important Concepts to Master
Which configurations (schemes, versions, components, etc) are shared versus unique
when new projects are (1) created from template or (2) with a shared configuration?
Who can change a Project Key, and what are the effects on issues in the project?
Which project details can be added and changed by Project Administrators?
What are the uses of Project Category in Jira?
What features are available for Jira Software projects, and to users who have Jira
Software application access (as compared to just Jira Core)?
What is the importance of the Browse Projects permission?

How do combinations of permissions work together to enable specific actions? For example:
• What permissions are needed to Move Issues?
• What permissions are needed to Edit or Delete All Worklogs?
• What permissions are needed to rank issues in the backlog?
• What permissions are needed to assign issues to yourself?
• What requirements must a user meet in order to use a particular workflow transition?
What is an Issue Collector and what permissions are needed to configure it?
Where are all the places you need to look to fully identify what permissions a particular user has?
What are the use cases where it is best to use Project Roles rather than Groups?
Which business requirements necessitate the use of separate issue types in a project (e.g. different screens, workflows, etc.)?
What is the relationship between screens, screen schemes and issue type screen schemes?
• How are they related to field configurations?
• How do you determine the maximum number of screens possibly used in a
project (for issue operations and workflow transitions)?
• Who can make changes to screens, screen schemes and issue type screen schemes?
What are all the various factors that influence whether a field is visible on a screen?
When is it best to use components, and when is it best to use a custom field instead?
What are the features, uses, limitations/restrictions of workflow changes, especially the Simplified Workflow?
1. Who can change the Simplified Workflow? What are the limitations on changes to the Simplified Workflow?
2. What changes can be performed on statuses and transitions?
3. What things may need to be updated as a result of workflow changes of any kind?
4. What workflow changes can be done through the board by board administrators?
5. What types of workflow changes can Project Administrators make if Extended
Project Administration is enabled?
How do these settings affect notifications?
• AutoWatch setting
• My Changes setting
• Share This Issue
• @Mentions
• Filter Subscriptions
What are the configuration options for all the out-of-box reports and gadgets (except Agile reports and gadgets)? What is their behavior and expected results?
How are valid JQL queries written? What operators and arguments are valid for various JQL functions (e.g. membersOf(), StartOfDay(), WAS, CHANGED, etc.)
Which export options are available are available from the Issue Navigator?

Exam Topics
Roles, Permissions and Issue Level Security
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine appropriate permissions for project team members
􀀀 Determine if and how issue-level security should be configured in a project
􀀀 Manage project role membership
􀀀 Troubleshoot issues with roles, permissions and issue security and escalate if required Project Configuration
􀀀 Describe how versions are managed in Jira
􀀀 Given requirements, determine how to create and configure project components and auto assignment
􀀀 Describe how to manage general project configurations (e.g., project details, project sidebar)
􀀀 Describe the use of schemes and the implications of using project templates Issue Types, Workflows, Fields, Screens and Notifications
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine the appropriate issue types
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine the appropriate Jira workflow configuration
􀀀 Given a scenario, determine the appropriate method to edit project workflows to meet business needs
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine appropriate screen configuration
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine appropriate field configuration
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine if and how to add fields to project screens
􀀀 Given business requirements, recommend the appropriate project notifications
􀀀 Troubleshoot issues with notifications, workflows, fields and screens Reports, Dashboards and JQL
􀀀 Determine an appropriate dashboard configuration
􀀀 Identify the appropriate project reports
􀀀 Translate business requirements into appropriate JQL queries Global Configuration
􀀀 Given a scenario, select changes to issue links, time tracking, priorities and resolutions

QUESTION 1
For the DEV project, Max has these requirements relating to time logging:
I need to be able to edit time logs.
I need to be able to delete time logs.
Which three project permissions does Max need in order to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Schedule Issues
B. Edit All Worklogs
C. Move Issues
D. Delete All Worklogs
E. Work On Issues
F. Edit All Comments

Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 2
Indicate which two use cases require the use of issue-level security within a project. (Choose two.)

A. Only managers should be able to see Critical issues in the project.
B. Only managers should be able to choose who sees certain issues in the project.
C. Only managers should be able to see the project.
D. Only managers should be able to set the Due Date on issues in the project.
E. Only managers should be able to Close issues in the project.

Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 3
Which two can project administrators associate with project roles? (Choose two.)

A. Security levels
B. Application access
C. Global permissions
D. Groups
E. Individual users
F. Project permissions

Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 4
Martina is unable to perform the following actions in the App project:
Create and manage versions
Create and manage components
Rank issues in the backlog
The App project does not use a shared permission scheme.
Which two permissions will allow her to perform those actions? (Choose two.)

A. Transition Issues
B. Move Issues
C. Administer Projects
D. Bulk Change
E. Schedule Issues

Correct Answer: C,E

QUESTION 5
All projects use a shared permission scheme.
The Browse Projects permission needs to be updated. Project administrators need to be able to manage access to their own projects.
What entry should be added to the Browse Projects permission?

A. Group
B. Project lead
C. Project Role
D. Single user
E. Application access

Correct Answer: B

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