Monthly Archives: January 2021

VMware

5V0-21.20 VMware Certified Master Specialist (HCI 2020) Exam

Exam Info Duration: 105 minutes
Number of Questions : 55
Passing Score : 300
Format Multiple Choice, Proctored

EXAM OVERVIEW
The VMware HCI Master Specialist exam validates a candidate’s ability to deploy and manage a software-defined storage solution with VMware vSAN.

Required Training
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7] [Required]
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7]-On Demand (Required)
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7] plus VMware vSAN: Troubleshooting [V6.6] Workshop (Required)
VMware vSAN: Troubleshooting Workshop [V6.x] (Recommended)
VMware vSAN: Production Operations [V6.7] (Recommended)

Exam Details
The Master Specialist HCI exam (5V0-21.20), which leads to Master Specialist -HCI 2021certification, is a 55-itemexam with a passing score of 300, using a scaled method. Exam timeis 100 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website

Badge Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware  Education Services

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate will have achieved VCP-DCV and vSAN Specialist certification. Candidates should have 1 year of experience designing, configuring, managing, and upgrading VMware HCI environments. Candidates should be familiar with deployment and administration of VMs using Storage Policy-Based Management. Candidates should have intermediate knowledge of storage, storage hardware, monitoring, and remediation topics, as well as basic networking and security knowledge and should have completed the VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage training. The MQC should have all of the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 –Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 –Products and Solutions
Section 3 –Planning and Designing
Section 4 –Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 –Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 –Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 –Administrative and Operational Task

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be notedbelow, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in the Exam

Section 1 -Architecture and Technologies-There are no testable objectives for this

Section 2 -VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 -Configure vSphere replication (effects of storage policies)
Objective 2.2 -Deploy vRealize Operations with vSAN

Section 3 -Planning and Designing
Objective 3.1 -Define and demonstrate vSAN design considerations (policies; fault domains; disc groups; vmkernel traffic; VCG; networking etc.)
Objective 3.2 -Design a vSAN cluster (availability; capacity tier; failure to tolerate; etc.)
Objective 3.3 -Use vSAN design and sizing tools (sizing cache tier for workload; no of nodes; VM sizing; Live Optics; HCI Bench etc.)

Section 4 -Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 -Configure and validate a vSANconfiguration (networking [emphasize this]; vSAN Health; Cluster Quickstart; fault domains)
Objective 4.2 -Create and manage disk groups
Objective 4.3 -Configure and validate vSAN services (iSCSI Target service, vSAN Encryption; vSAN fault domains; Health Service; dedupe/compression etc.)
Objective 4.4 -Configure vSAN stretched cluster and 2-node configurations
Objective 4.5 -Configure Cloud Native storage (CNS) with appropriate policies (Ensure container volumes are mapped to correct policies, datastore and are compliant)

Section 5 -Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades
Objective 5.1 -Determine upgrade requirements
Objective 5.2 -Apply patches using vSphere Update Manager (VUM)
Objective 5.3 -Upgrade an HCI environment using VUM (AirGap environments)
Objective 5.4 -Add and remove hosts from a cluster (capacity: compute, storage etc.)
Objective 5.5 -Evaluate use case and apply appropriate maintenance mode option.
Objective 5.6 -Create, expand, reconfigure, and remove disk groups
Objective 5.7-Manage firmware and driver versions using vSAN Health, VUM, and Compatibility Guide
Objective 5.8 -Set VUM baseline preferences

Section 6 -Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 -Identify failure scenarios (firmware and hardware compatibility; ESXi host failure; disk, hardware, network failures; vSAN failure recovery; DDH etc)
Objective 6.2 –Interpret vSAN Health warnings (most common: [use Humbug to define]; disk rebalance; congestion; hardware compatibility; object states etc)
Objective 6.3 -Determine vSAN Health using the vSphere Host Client, ESXCLI
Objective 6.4 -Evaluate performance information in the UI and using vsantop
Objective 6.5 -Manage hardware replacement (device failure; disk replacement; replace a host)
Objective 6.6 -Monitor resync impact
Objective 6.7 -Identify and remove unassociated objects to reclaim capacity
Objective 6.8 -Resolve capacity issues using storage policies (Proper way to return to a healthy capacity How to free capacity when an out-of-capacity situation, Capacity behavior best practices vs version specific)
Objective 6.9 -Resolve object compliance issues
Objective 6.1 -Configure/setup Network Diagnostics mode/option

Section 7 -Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 -Describe vSAN data placement changes (stretched clusters, fault domains)
Objective 7.2 -Evaluate vSAN performance metrics (IOPS, congestion, latency, throughput, vsantop, resync)
Objective 7.3 -Describe effects of maintenance mode options(UI and CLI, new features and functionality)
Objective 7.4 -Monitor storage policy compliance
Objective 7.5 -Interpret Health Check (actioning alerts, resolving alerts, configuring on-line Health; evaluate vSAN object health.)
Objective 7.6 -Identify the impact of policy changes (capacity, fault tolerance, IOPS limit)
Objective 7.7 -Identify cluster configuration inconsistency and remediate through health check (Initiate remediation workflow from Health check)

QUESTION 1
When designing a vSAN Cluster, which three should be considered when sizing a vSAN datastore? (Choose three.)

A. Storage Policy or Policies to be used
B. capacity device queue depth
C. vSAN Slack Space
D. cache disks with 10% of the Disk Group
E. On-Disk Format overheard
F. endurance level of capacity disk used

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
Which must be configured by a Kubernetes user allow for dynamic provisioning of container volumes in vSAN using storage policies?

A. ReplicaSet
B. Pod
C. StorageClass
D. ReplicationController

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An All-Flash vSAN cluster has 4 nodes with this disk group composition on each host:
1 × 800 GB SAS SSD
6 × 3.84 TB SATA SSD
An administrator observes that in an All-Flash cluster, the Write Buffer Free Percentage is consistently low.
As a result, there is increased latency experienced by the workloads.
Which remediation steps will resolve this issue?

A. Add a second disk group with a new cache device and distribute the capacity disks equally.
B. Add a second cache device to the same disk group to increase the caching size.
C. Modify advanced vSAN configuration parameters to utilize the complete 800 GB for caching.
D. Replace the existing cache device with a larger cache device.

Correct Answer: C

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Cirtix

1Y0-341 Citrix ADC Advanced Topics – Security. Management and Optimization (CCP-N) Exam

Citrix 1Y0-341 (CCP-N) Certification Exam Syllabus
1Y0-341 Dumps Questions, 1Y0-341 PDF, CCP-N Exam Questions PDF, Citrix 1Y0-341 Dumps Free, CCP-N Official Cert Guide PDFThe Citrix 1Y0-341 exam preparation guide is designed to provide candidates with necessary information about the CCP-N exam. It includes exam summary, sample questions, practice test, objectives and ways to interpret the exam objectives to enable candidates to assess the types of questions-answers that may be asked during the Citrix Certified Professional – Networking (CCP-N) exam.

It is recommended for all the candidates to refer the 1Y0-341 objectives and sample questions provided in this preparation guide. The Citrix CCP-N certification is mainly targeted to the candidates who want to build their career in Networking domain and demonstrate their expertise. We suggest you to use practice exam listed in this cert guide to get used to with exam environment and identify the knowledge areas where you need more work prior to taking the actual Citrix ADC Advanced Topics – Security, Management and Optimization exam.

Citrix 1Y0-341 Exam Summary:
Exam Name Citrix ADC Advanced Topics – Security, Management and Optimization (CCP-N)
Exam Code 1Y0-341
Exam Price $300 USD
Duration 75 minutes
Number of Questions 69
Passing Score 66%
Recommended Training / Books CNS-320: Citrix ADC 12.x Advanced Concepts – Security, Management and Optimization
Schedule Exam PEARSON VUE
Sample Questions Citrix 1Y0-341 Sample Questions
Recommended Practice Citrix Certified Professional – Networking (CCP-N) Practice Test

Citrix CCP-N Syllabus:

Introducing Citrix Web App Firewall – Determine how to audit for PCI-DSS compliance.
– Determine the appropriate methodology to use for a given scenario.
– Determine the functionality of Citrix Web App Firewall, given a scenario.

Citrix Web App Firewall Profiles and Policies – Determine how to configure Citrix Web App Firewall Policies.
– Determine how to create or implement (binding) Citrix Web App Firewall profiles.
– Determine how to configure Citrix Web App Firewall learning for a given scenario.
– Determine how to analyze Citrix Web App Firewall settings.

Implementing Citrix Web App Firewall Protections – Determine how to configure security checks to meet given requirements.
– Determine how to analyze data flow to meet given requirements.
– Determine how to configure rules and adaptive learning to meet the needs of a given environment.
– Determine how to create or modify signature rules based on given requirements.
– Determine how to configure the various top-level protections based on the needs of an environment.

Additional Citrix Web App Firewall Protections
– Determine how to configure cookie consistency checks for an environment.
– Determine how to configure advanced form protection checks for an environment.
– Determine how to appropriately protect URLs based on a description of an environment.
– Determine how to appropriately protect the data based on a description of an environment.

Monitoring and Troubleshooting Citrix Web App Firewall – Determine how to deploy Citrix Web App Firewall for a given environment.
– Determine how Citrix Web App Firewall interacts with applications in a given environment.
– Determine how to resolve Citrix Web App Firewall configuration issues given a description of an issue.
– Determine how to Implement logging and reporting.
– Determine how to customize error pages for a given environment.
– Identify troubleshooting methods for Citrix Web App Firewall.

Citrix ADC Security and Filtering – Determine how to implement https: Callout.
– Determine how to implement IP rate-limiting.
– Determine how to implement IP reputation.
– Determine how to Implement AppQoE.

Authentication using Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
– Determine how to configure SAML based on a given scenario.

Authentication using OAuth and OpenID – Determine how to configure OAuth and OpenID based on a description of a Citrix ADC environment.
– Determine how to configure multi-factor authentication in a Citrix ADC environment based on a given scenario.

Introduction and Configuration of Citrix Application Delivery Management – Determine which features of Citrix Application Delivery Management should be used based on a description of an environment.
– Determine what is needed for the Citrix ADM Service.
– Determine how to deploy Citrix Application Delivery Management based on a given scenario.
– Determine how to perform the initial configuration of Citrix Application Delivery Management.
– Determine how to create additional instances of Citrix Application Delivery Management.

Managing and Monitoring Citrix ADC Instances – Determine how to manage multiple instances in a single Citrix Application Delivery Management deployment with Instance Management.
– Determine how to manage the aspects of Authentication and Authorization on Citrix ADM.
– Identify what data is captured and utilized with Analytics and Automation.
– Determine how to configure and install SSL Certificates on Citrix Application Delivery Management.
– Determine how to monitor user connections using dashboards.

Managing Citrix ADC Configurations
– Determine how to manage applications in a Citrix ADC environment.
– Determine how to create, manage, and configure StyleBooks.
– Determine how to complete configuration jobs based on a scenario.

Integrated Caching – Determine when to use static or dynamic content requests.
– Determine how to configure cache policies.
– Determine which content group settings to configure based on a given scenario.

Front End Optimization – Determine how to utilize front-end optimizations based on a given scenario.
Performance Tuning and Other Optimizations – Determine how the Citrix ADC system uses https: connections based on a given description.
– Determine how to Tune https: and TCP behaviors in Connection Profiles.

Recommended Knowledge and Skills for 1Y0-341: Item
– Intermediate knowledge of TCP/IP, https: protocols and understanding of the OSI model
– Experience with network devices (e.g. routers, switches), various networking protocols, and aspects of application and site architecture (e.g. DMZ, VLANS)
– Moderate exposure to UNIX (particularly BSD variants)
– Exposure to basic systems administration concepts, including logging, software upgrade procedures and high availability operations
– Familiar with web server software (e.g. Apache, IIS, WebSphere)
– Familiar with Windows and Linux Server administration
– Basic knowledge of DNS, SSL and compression concepts
– Understanding of concepts related to server load balancing and content switching
– Knowledge of network security threats and site protection concepts (e.g. firewalls, worms, DDoS attacks)
– Familiar with regular expressions
– Knowledge of Active Directory
– Knowledge of virtualization
– Knowledge of application optimization
– Familiar with basic concepts of cloud computing

Recommended Product Experience for 1Y0-341: Item
– Introducing Citrix Web App Firewall
– Citrix Web App Firewall Profiles and Policies
– Implementing Citrix Web App Firewall Protections
– Additional Citrix Web App Firewall Protections
– Monitoring and Troubleshooting Citrix Web App Firewall
– Citrix ADC Security and Filtering
– Authentication using Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
– Authentication using OAuth and OpenID
– Introduction and Configuration of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM)
– Managing and Monitoring Citrix ADC Instances
– Managing Citrix ADC Configurations
– Integrated Caching
– Front End Optimization
– Performance Tuning and Other Optimizations

Time Limit:
Type of Candidate Time Limits* Notes
Native English speakers 75 minutes

Non-native English speakers that take the exam in countries where English is a foreign language
75 minutes + 30 minutes time extension) Time extension granted automatically

Non-native English speakers that take the exam in countries where English is NOT a foreign language
75 minutes + 30 minutes time extension) Must request time extension from Citrix.

QUESTION 1
How can a Citrix Engineer monitor the Citrix ADC appliances to check that all SSL certificates have a key strength of at least 2048 bits from the SSL Dashboard Settings?

A. Delete 512, 1024, and 4096 on the Enterprise Policy tab.
B. Delete 512 and 1024 on the Enterprise Policy tab.
C. Select 2048 and 4096 on the Enterprise Policy tab.
D. Select 2048 on the Enterprise Policy tab.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer notices that a web page takes a long time to display. Upon further investigation,
the engineer determines that the requested page consists of a table of high-resolution pictures which are
being displayed in table cells measuring 320 by 180 pixels.
Which Front End Optimization technique can the engineer enable on the Citrix ADC to improve time to display?

A. Shrink to Attributes
B. Make Inline
C. Extend Page Cache
D. Minify

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A Web Application Engineer is reviewing log files and finds that a large number of bad https: requests are
being sent to the web application servers.
What can the Citrix ADC Engineer to do prevent bad https: requests from getting to the web application?

A. Create an https: profile and select ‘Drop invalid https: requests’. Assign the https: profile to the virtual server.
B. Create an https: profile and select ‘Drop invalid https: requests’. Assign the https: profile to the Web App Firewall policy.
C. Modify the default https: profile and select ‘Drop invalid https: requests’. Bind the default https: profile globally.
D. Select ‘Change https: Parameters’ under System > Settings.Select ‘Drop invalid https: requests’.

Correct Answer: D

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Tech

PCS Pulse Connect Secure (PCS): Administration and Configuration Exam

Pulse Connect Secure (PCS): Administration and Configuration

Certification Description
Be recognized for your technical expertise and highly specialized technical skills. Show your employer that you have a strong capacity to make a greater contribution to your organization as well being a trusted resource for Pulse Connect Secure (PCS) Administration and Configuration questions. Achieving Certified Technical Expert status will raise your profile and allow for career growth opportunities.

Target Audience
Network Engineers
Enterprise System Architect
Technical Support Specialists
Implementation Consultants

Prerequisites
Admin Guide
Instructor Led Training (4 Days): Pulse Connect Secure (PCS): Administration and Configuration

Topics Covered:
Initial Configuration
PCS Technology and Terminology
User Roles
Basic Logging and Troubleshooting
Resource Policies and Profiles
Authentication
Advanced Authentication Options
Certificates
Client and Server Applications
Pulse Secure Client
License Server Client Deployment
Endpoint Security
Administration
Virtualization
Clustering
Cloud Secure

QUESTION 1
To successfully connect to PCS, local authentication users:

A. Submit a username and password that matches a Microsoft Active Directory server.
B. Submit a digital certificate that matches a defined Certificate Authority.
C. Submit a username and password that matches a PCS database.
D. Submit a time-based, one-time password from their RSA SecurID software.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
To successfully connect to PCS, remote authentication users can: (Choose three.)

A. Submit a username and password that matches a Microsoft Active Directory server.
B. Submit a digital certificate that matches a defined Certificate Authority.
C. Submit a username and password that matches a SQL database.
D. Submit a time-based, one-time password from their RSA SecurID software.

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which user role is configured by default?

A. Users
B. Partners
C. Read Only Administrators
D. Contractors

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
True or False: When defining a User Role an administrator can restrict access to a role based on the type of browser the user is utilizing to attempt access.

A. true
B. false

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which settings can be changed under User Role? (Choose two.)

A. Sessions Options
B. UI Options
C. Authentication Server
D. Policy Server

Correct Answer: AB

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Oracle, Uncategorized

1z0-1054-20 Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2020 Implementation Essentials Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2020 Certified Implementation Specialist
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.36,887
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 60%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 20D.
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
From learning path: Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2020 Certified Implementation Specialist
In the subscription: Oracle Financials Cloud Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
Note:
Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.

Enterprise Structures
Configure the Chart of Accounts
Explain Essbase
Set up accounting hierarchies
Set up the accounting calendar
Configure Chart of Accounts Security
Configure the legal entity structure and define the relationship to the Chart of Account
Configure Ledgers

Journal Processing
Process journal entries
Configure automated journal processing
Explain the journal approval set up
Configure allocations and periodic entries
Explain the secondary ledger and reporting currencies

Subledger Accounting
Create and manage Accounting Rules
Create and process subledger accounting entries
Explain the journal description rules
Identify supporting references

Intercompany Processing
Design the Chart of Accounts and segment level rules for intercompany
Set up Intercompany Accounting (system options, transaction types, organizations)
Describe intercompany balancing
Process intercompany transactions and periods
Process intercompany reconciliations

Reporting & Anaytics
Explain how to design and use various reporting tools
Set up the Financials Reporting Studio
Explain OTBI and GL Subject Areas
Describe Smart View accounting inquiry and analysis
Describe the General Accounting Dashboard and Work Areas
Analyze budgets versus actuals

Period Close
Explain the Close Process
Configure and process revaluations
Configure and process translations
Configure and process consolidations
Analyze reconciliations
Close monitor

Budgetary Control and Encumbrance
Configure and Process Budgets
Explain how to analyze and monitor Budget Consumption
Configure Encumbrance Accounting
Process Encumbrance Journals

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Juniper, Uncategorized

JN0-663 Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-SP) Exam

A great way to start the Juniper Networks Certified Professional Service Provider Routing and Switching (JNCIP-SP) preparation is to begin by properly appreciating the role that syllabus and study guide play in the Juniper JN0-663 certification exam. This study guide is an instrument to get you on the same page with Juniper and understand the nature of the Juniper JNCIP Service Provider exam.

Our team of experts has composed this Juniper JN0-663 exam preparation guide to provide the overview about Juniper Service Provider Routing and Switching Professional exam, study material, sample questions, practice exam and ways to interpret the exam objectives to help you assess your readiness for the Juniper JNCIP-SP exam by identifying prerequisite areas of knowledge. We recommend you to refer the simulation questions and practice test listed in this guide to determine what type of questions will be asked and the level of difficulty that could be tested in the Juniper JNCIP Service Provider certification exam.

Juniper JN0-663 Exam Overview:
Exam Name Service Provider Routing and Switching Professional
Exam Number JN0-663 JNCIP-SP
Duration 120 minutes
Number of Questions 65
Passing Score Pass / Fail (60-70% Approx.)
Recommended Training Advanced Junos Service Provider Routing (AJSPR)
Junos Layer 2 VPNs (JL2V)
Junos Layer 3 VPNs (JL3V)
Exam Registration PEARSON VUE
Practice Exam Juniper Networks Certified Professional Service Provider Routing and Switching Practice Test

Juniper JN0-663 Exam Topics:

Section Objectives
OSPF Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of OSPFv2 or OSPFv3

OSPF area types and operations
LSA flooding through an OSPF multi-area network
DR/BDR operation
SPF algorithm
Metrics, including external metric types
Summarize and restrict routes
Virtual links
OSPFv2 versus OSPFv3

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor single-area or multi-area OSPF
Implement OSPF routing policy

IS-IS Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of IS-IS
IS-IS areas/levels and operations
LSP flooding through an IS-IS multi-area network
DIS operation
SPF algorithm
Metrics, including wide metrics
Route summarization and route leaking

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor single-area or multi-area IS-IS
Implement IS-IS routing policy

BGP Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP
BGP route selection process
Next hop resolution
BGP attributes: concept and operation
BGP communities
Regular expressions
Multipath
Multihop
Load balancing
Advanced BGP options
BGP route damping
FlowSpec
Multiprotocol BGP

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP scaling mechanisms
Route reflection

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor BGP
Implement BGP routing policy

Class of Service (CoS) Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Junos CoS
CoS processing on Junos devices
CoS header fields
Forwarding classes
Classification
Packet loss priority
Policers
Schedulers
Drop profiles
Rewrite rules

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor CoS

IP Multicast Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of IP multicast
Components of IP multicast, including multicast addressing
IP multicast traffic flow
Any-Source Multicast (ASM) versus Source-Specific Multicast (SSM)
RPF: concept and operation
IGMP
PIM dense-mode and sparse-mode
Rendezvous point (RP): concept, operation, discovery, and election
SSM: requirements, benefits, address ranges
Anycast RP

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor IGMP, PIM-DM, or PIM-SM (including SSM)
Implement IP multicast routing policy

Layer 3 VPNs Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 3 VPNs
Traffic flow: control and data planes
Full mesh versus hub-and-spoke topology
VPN-IPv4 addressing
Route distinguishers
Route targets
Route distribution
Site of origin
Sham links
vrf-table-label
Next-generation MVPNs
Flow of control and data traffic in an MVPN
Layer 3 VPN scaling
IPv6 Layer 3 VPNs
Layer 3 VPN Internet access options

– Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure or monitor the components of Layer 3 VPNs

– Describe Junos support for carrier-of-carriers or interprovider VPN models

Layer 2 VPNs Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP Layer 2 VPNs
Traffic flow: control and data planes
Forwarding tables
Connection mapping
Layer 2 VPN NLRI
Route distinguishers
Route targets
Layer 2 VPN scaling

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of LDP Layer 2 circuits
Traffic flow: control and data planes
Virtual circuit label
AutoDiscovery
Layer 2 interworking

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of VPLS
Traffic flow: control and data planes
BGP VPLS label distribution
LDP VPLS label distribution
Route targets
VPLS Multihoming
Site IDs

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of EVPN
Traffic flow: control and data planes
MAC learning and distribution
EVPN Multihoming
BGP EVPN label distribution

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Layer 2 VPNs
BGP Layer 2 VPNs
LDP Layer 2 circuits
EVPNs
VPLS

Juniper JNCIP-SP Exam Description:
Designed for experienced networking professionals with advanced knowledge of the Juniper Networks Junos OS, this written exam verifies the candidate’s understanding of advanced routing technologies and related platform configuration and troubleshooting skills.

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Cisco

350-201 Performing CyberOps Using Core Security Technologies (CBRCOR) Exam

350-201 CBRCOR
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional, Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Core
Duration: 120 minutes
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to core cybersecurity operations, including:
Fundamentals
Techniques
Processes
Automation


Exam Description:
Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies v1.0 (CBRCOR 350-201) is a 120-minute exam that is associated with the Cisco CyberOps Professional Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of core cybersecurity operations including cybersecurity fundamentals, techniques, processes, and automation. The course Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Fundamentals
1.1 Interpret the components within a playbook
1.2 Determine the tools needed based on a playbook scenario
1.3 Apply the playbook for a common scenario (for example, unauthorized elevation of privilege, DoS and DDoS, website defacement)
1.4 Infer the industry for various compliance standards (for example, PCI, FISMA, FedRAMP,

SOC, SOX, PCI, GDPR, Data Privacy, and ISO 27101)
1.5 Describe the concepts and limitations of cyber risk insurance
1.6 Analyze elements of a risk analysis (combination asset, vulnerability, and threat)
1.7 Apply the incident response workflow
1.8 Describe characteristics and areas of improvement using common incident response metrics
1.9 Describe types of cloud environments (for example, IaaS platform)
1.10 Compare security operations considerations of cloud platforms (for example, IaaS, PaaS)

30% 2.0 Techniques
2.1 Recommend data analytic techniques to meet specific needs or answer specific questions
2.2 Describe the use of hardening machine images for deployment
2.3 Describe the process of evaluating the security posture of an asset
2.4 Evaluate the security controls of an environment, diagnose gaps, and recommend improvement
2.5 Determine resources for industry standards and recommendations for hardening of systems
2.6 Determine patching recommendations, given a scenario
2.7 Recommend services to disable, given a scenario
2.8 Apply segmentation to a network
2.9 Utilize network controls for network hardening
2.10 Determine SecDevOps recommendations (implications)
2.11 Describe use and concepts related to using a Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) to automate intelligence
2.12 Apply threat intelligence using tools
2.13 Apply the concepts of data loss, data leakage, data in motion, data in use, and data at rest based on common standards
2.14 Describe the different mechanisms to detect and enforce data loss prevention techniques
2.14.a host-based
2.14.b network-based
2.14.c application-based
2.14.d cloud-based
2.15 Recommend tuning or adapting devices and software across rules, filters, and policies
2.16 Describe the concepts of security data management
2.17 Describe use and concepts of tools for security data analytics
2.18 Recommend workflow from the described issue through escalation and the automation needed for resolution
2.19 Apply dashboard data to communicate with technical, leadership, or executive stakeholders
2.20 Analyze anomalous user and entity behavior (UEBA)
2.21 Determine the next action based on user behavior alerts
2.22 Describe tools and their limitations for network analysis (for example, packet capture tools, traffic analysis tools, network log analysis tools)
2.23 Evaluate artifacts and streams in a packet capture file
2.24 Troubleshoot existing detection rules
2.25 Determine the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) from an attack

30% 3.0 Processes
3.1 Prioritize components in a threat model
3.2 Determine the steps to investigate the common types of cases
3.3 Apply the concepts and sequence of steps in the malware analysis process:
3.3.a Extract and identify samples for analysis (for example, from packet capture or packet analysis tools)
3.3.b Perform reverse engineering
3.3.c Perform dynamic malware analysis using a sandbox environment
3.3.d Identify the need for additional static malware analysis
3.3.e Perform static malware analysis
3.3.f Summarize and share results
3.4 Interpret the sequence of events during an attack based on analysis of traffic patterns
3.5 Determine the steps to investigate potential endpoint intrusion across a variety of platform types (for example, desktop, laptop, IoT, mobile devices)
3.6 Determine known Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) and Indicators of Attack (IOAs), given a scenario
3.7 Determine IOCs in a sandbox environment (includes generating complex indicators)
3.8 Determine the steps to investigate potential data loss from a variety of vectors of modality (for example, cloud, endpoint, server, databases, application), given a scenario
3.9 Recommend the general mitigation steps to address vulnerability issues
3.10 Recommend the next steps for vulnerability triage and risk analysis using industry scoring systems (for example, CVSS) and other techniques

20% 4.0 Automation
4.1 Compare concepts, platforms, and mechanisms of orchestration and automation
4.2 Interpret basic scripts (for example, Python)
4.3 Modify a provided script to automate a security operations task
4.4 Recognize common data formats (for example, JSON, HTML, CSV, XML)
4.5 Determine opportunities for automation and orchestration
4.6 Determine the constraints when consuming APIs (for example, rate limited, timeouts, and payload)
4.7 Explain the common https: response codes associated with REST APIs
4.8 Evaluate the parts of an https: response (response code, headers, body)
4.9 Interpret API authentication mechanisms: basic, custom token, and API keys
4.10 Utilize Bash commands (file management, directory navigation, and environmental variables)
4.11 Describe components of a CI/CD pipeline
4.12 Apply the principles of DevOps practices
4.13 Describe the principles of Infrastructure as Code

QUESTION 1
A threat actor attacked an organization’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute
timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The
threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A
second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When
the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was
disconnected, and the administrator’s account was disabled. Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server
B. accessing the server with financial data
C. accessing multiple servers
D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized
individual to enter a secured premise. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to
analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access
B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired
C. Change access controls to high risk assets in the enterprise
D. Identify movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives
have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to
NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)

A. incident response playbooks
B. asset vulnerability assessment
C. report of staff members with asset relations
D. key assets and executives
E. malware analysis report
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability?

A. Perform a vulnerability assessment
B. Conduct a data protection impact assessment
C. Conduct penetration testing
D. Perform awareness testing

Correct Answer: B

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Tech

AD01 Blue Prism Accredited Developer Exam

If you’re looking for a career in RPA, then Blue Prism Professional developer certification AD01 is the best option. As it will elevate your career in the RPA platform.

Technologies like artificial intelligence, data analytics and machine learning are now overpowering all the major industries including the IT sector, transitioning into a digital era. While talking about digitalization, many industry leaders agree upon the fact that automation is the need of the hour. Along with this, comes Robotic Process Automation (RPA) which too had made its mark in the IT sector as well.

Justin Watson,a global robotic and intelligent automation leader at Deloitte, said:

“2020 looks to be a breakout year for intelligent automation. Moreover, organizations will combine robotic process automation with artificial intelligence and other technologies to enable new ways of working”.

What is Blue Prism?
There is a wide range of tools available in the RPA market. Amongst, them the Blue Prism is the only tool which holds the capability of virtual workforce powered by software robots. This tool is helpful to the enterprise to automate any business task into an agile and cost-effective operation.

Firstly, Blue Prism offers two different exams for developers.

BLUE PRISM DEVELOPER
First is Blue Prism Developer (Exam code: AD01) AD01 certification is for entry and associate level developers and can be given by anyone regardless of their technical background. A developer certification affirms that you have basic knowledge and are able to work in various Blue Prism platforms and environments. Candidates need to qualify the AD01 exam before starting your blue prism professional developer certification preparation.

BLUE PRISM PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPER
The other one is Blue Prism Professional Developer (Exam code: APD01). This is an advanced level exam in Blue Prism Accreditation program. So, according to the Blue Prism portal, a candidate must have passed the Blue Prism Developer exam (AD01) at least 6 months before appearing for the blue prism professional developer exam.

Benefits of certified Blue Prism Professional Developer AD01
Every sector requires professionals and this certification will help you get ahead of all the other aspiring developers.
Many surveys and reports indicate that a Blue Prism Certified Professional Developer is offered a higher pay in comparison to another employee.
this particular certification is not just to land on a perfect job profile, but also provide personal growth.
since technology is taking over and RPA is becoming the future, certified professionals will never run out of a job.
Blue Prism Professional Developer Certification is accepted all around the globe which gives the candidate an upper hand if they need to move across globally anywhere.
There are so many companies including IBM, Accenture, Deloitte etc. which use Blue Prism to automate their operation, giving you a wide range of companies to apply in.

Exam Overview for AD01
Blue Prism Certified Professional Developer is also known as APD01 exam. This Exam is apt for all the candidates who wish to persue their dream career as a Blue Prism Professional Developer. In order to achieve this certification, candidates need to first qualify the Blue Prism Developer Certification (AD01) Exam.

So, here is a list of skills in which candidates need to be well skilled-
First thing first, Prior knowledge of the broad range of Blue Prism knowledge, experience and skills.
Secondly, Candidate needs to be well skilled in advanced exception handling and work queues.
Next candidate should be proficient in Development best practice, browser automation, Java automation, credentials management and login Agent.
Last but not least, the candidate must be able to handle web services, mainframe automation and Surface Automation.

Exam details: Blue Prism Professional Developer– AD01
Before venturing on any exam journey, it’s always a good idea to be thorough with all the important exam details. In order to avoid any inconvenience, all information regarding the exam should be known beforehand. Therefore, we have provided all the necessary information you may need before applying for the Blue Prism Professional Developer Exam.

Not to mention, Blue Prism Professional Developer Certification (APD01) is the advanced level exam in Blue Prism Developer Hierarchy. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions that must be completed within 60 minutes. Moreover, the exam is conducted in only the English language. So, make sure you’re familiar with the language beforehand. Candidates need to score at least 70% to qualify the Blue Prism Professional Developer Exam. Lastly, the examination fee is 65 USD.

Prerequisites to know beforehand
Prerequisites become an important part to understand since every exam has different requirements. To clarify this for you, Blue Prism Professional Developer must have qualified Blue Prism Developer Certification (AD01) Exam. In case the candidate hasn’t qualified the AD01 exam, the candidate is exempted from taking the APD01 exam.

Likewise, Candidate must be able to create, design, develop, and implement the RPA systems. So, make sure, you’re thorough with all the skills before preparing for the exam.
Now that you have a great understanding of all the prerequisites, let’s head towards the course outline.

Blue Prism provides you with all the course outline. This list includes all the modules that need to be covered in the Blue Prism Professional Developer Exam.

So, here is a list of modules would be covered in the examination-
Surfacing automation of terminal emulators
Java Automation Guide
Browser Automation Guide
Developer’s Best Practices
Exception Handling
Using the Mainframe Spy tool
Working the Queues Guide
Mainframe Automation Guide

However, the Blue Prism Professional Developer Certification Preparation won’t be successful, unless you grasp the key concepts in various Blue Prism related data sheets and user guides to apply in the exam. Candidate can easily access these data sheets under the Documents section in the Blue Prism portal. Below, you can see the list of datasheets and user guides available in that section.

User Guide – Login Agent
User Guide – Web Services
Data Sheet – Credential Manager
Data Sheet – Secure Windows Authentication

These modules cover all the skills that will help you qualify the Blue Prism Professional Developer certification examination. In short, just prepare according to the above-mentioned modules and you’re good to go. The moment you are ready with your preparation, just schedule the exam.

How to schedule the exam?
The process to schedule the exam is really very easy. To schedule, you need to first register yourself on the blue prism portal. So, you need to follow the given steps in the process of scheduling the exam.

First, the candidate has to register in blue prism professional developer exam in Pearson VUE portal. (since Pearson VUE is the official exam partner for Blue Prism exams)
Next, the candidate needs to create a free account using your Blue Prism portal ID (the user name you choose when you register your Blue Prism account).
After the creation of the account, the exam list will be displayed where you can easily locate all the listing of the applicable Blue Prism exams. Now choose the link to APD01 and fill all tThe process to schedule the exam is really very easy. To schedule, you need to first register yourself on the blue prism portal. So, you need to follow the given steps in the process of scheduling the exam.
he necessary details here.

In the next page, the candidate can view all the available appointments of the exam. Select the date and time and confirm the location according to your convenience
Lastly, pay the exam fee and your exam will be scheduled immediately.

Now that your exam is scheduled. Check out the preparatory guide below to qualify the exam with flying colours.

QUESTION 1
How many Start Stages can a sub-page in a Process have?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Any Number

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You identify an element in Application Modeller but when you highlight or use that element Blue Prism gives
you an error message saying that duplicate elements were found.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. It is common for duplicate elements to be found based upon the attributes that are ticked by default using the Blue Prism product. Time needs to be spent experimenting with the attribute ticks until a unique, reliable, and consistent selection of attributes is found.
B. It will not be possible to interface with the element in a unique way. You will need to use Surface Automation techniques for this element.
C. A code stage interface will need to be created and used for this application, this will give you more flexibility to interact with the application elements.
D. You will need to make the attributes you have selected dynamic. This will allow your flow to loop around, incrementing the attribute value until the correct element is found and used.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements about Business Objects is true?

A. It is Blue Prism best practice to include business rules within Business Objects
B. A Business Object is configured in the Studio area of Blue Prism
C. A Business Object can be exposed to Control Room
D. Logging of individual stages is not configurable in Business Objects

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A Blue Prism solution works fine when developing and testing it in Process and Object studio but when it is run in Control Room exceptions occur because of screen elements not being found.
What is the most likely cause?

A. The most likely cause for the errors is that your application has changed.
B. The most likely cause for the errors seen in Control Room is that best practice use of wait stages has not been followed.
C. The most likely cause for the errors is that the Object Studio action has not been published and therefore cannot be used by the Process in control room.
D. The most likely cause for the exceptions is that best practice exception handling has not been incorporated into the Process.

Correct Answer: B

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Cisco

300-615 Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-615 DCIT) Exam

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of troubleshooting a data center infrastructure, including:

Network
Compute platforms
Storage network
Automation
Management and operations

Exam preparation
Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)

Exam Description
The Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure v1.0 (DCIT 300-615) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Data Center and Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center Operations certifications. This exam certifies a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting a data center infrastructure including network, compute platforms, storage network, automation, management and operations. The course, Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Troubleshoot routing protocols
1.1.a OSPFv2, OSPFv3
1.1.b MP-BGP
1.1.c PIM
1.1.d FHRP (HSRP, VRRP)

1.2 Troubleshoot switching protocols, such as RSTP+, LACP, and vPC

1.3 Troubleshoot overlay protocols, such as VXLAN EVPN and OTV

1.4 Troubleshoot Application Centric Infrastructure
1.4.a Fabric discovery
1.4.b Access policies
1.4.c VMM domain integration
1.4.d Tenant policies
1.4.e Packet flow (unicast, multicast, and broadcast)
1.4.f External connectivity

2.1 Troubleshoot Cisco Unified Computing System rack servers

2.2 Troubleshoot Cisco Unified Computing System blade chassis
2.2.a Infrastructure such as chassis, power, IOM
2.2.b Network (VLANs, pools and policies, templates, QoS)
2.2.c Storage (SAN connectivity, FC zoning, VSANs, pools, policies, templates)
2.2.d Server pools and boot policies

2.3 Troubleshoot packet flow from server to the fabric

2.4 Troubleshoot hardware interoperability
2.4.a Converged Network Adapters / port expanders
2.4.b Firmware
2.4.c I/O modules / FEX
2.4.d Fabric interconnects

2.5 Troubleshoot firmware upgrades, packages, and interoperability

3.1 Troubleshoot Fibre Channel
3.1.a Switched fabric initialization
3.1.b Fibre Channel buffer credit starvation
3.1.c FCID
3.1.d Cisco Fabric Services
3.1.e Zoning
3.1.f Device alias
3.1.g NPV and NPIV
3.1.h VSAN

3.2 Troubleshoot FCoE Cisco Unified Fabric (FIP, DCB)

4.1 Troubleshoot automation and scripting tools
4.1.a EEM
4.1.b Scheduler

4.2 Troubleshoot programmability
4.2.a Bash shell and guest shell for NX-OS
4.2.b REST API
4.2.c JSON and XML encodings

5.1 Troubleshoot firmware upgrades, packages, and interoperability

5.2 Troubleshoot integration of centralized management

5.3 Troubleshooting network security
5.3.a Fabric binding and port security
5.3.b AAA and RBAC
5.3.c First-hop security such as dynamic ARP, DHCP snooping, and port security
5.3.d Troubleshoot CoPP

5.4 Troubleshoot ACI security domains and role mapping

5.5 Troubleshoot data center compute security
5.5.a Troubleshoot AAA and RBAC
5.5.b Troubleshoot key management

5.6 Troubleshoot storage security
5.6.a AAA and RBAC
5.6.b Port security
5.6.c Fabric binding

QUESTION 1
A vPC Type-1 inconsistency between two vPC peers in a VXLAN EVPN setup is discovered. Which two actions need to be attempted to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the NVE interfaces to be Up on both switches.
B. Set a different distributed gateway virtual MAC address.
C. Set a different secondary IP addresses on NVE source-interface.
D. Configure the same VNI to multicast group maping.
E. Set a different primary IP addresses on NVE source-interface.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
A mission-critical server is connected to site A. Connectivity to this server is lost from site B because the MAC
route is missing in the OTV VDC of the Cisco Nexus 7000 in site B due to MAC aging. Which action allows the
flooding of the unknown unicast MAC on the Nexus 7000 in the OTV VDC?

A. Use route map to statically advertise this MAC and redistribute with IS-IS.
B. Unknown unicast flooding is not allowed.
C. Use the otv flood mac <> command to selectively flood traffic for a given MAC.
D. Use the otv isis bfd <> command to configure BFD protocol.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An engineer troubleshoots a fabric discovery failure. Which two requirements about switch connectivity must be verified to solve the problem? (Choose two.)

A. A Cisco APIC must be attached to a spine node only.
B. A Cisco APIC must be attached to leaf nodes.
C. Spine nodes must connect to other spine nodes.
D. A Cisco APIC must be dual-attached to two separate spine nodes.
E. Leaf nodes must connect to spine nodes only.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
A customer configures HSRP between two data centers that are interconnected with OTV. The configuration
succeeds, but traffic between two ESXi virtual hosts on the same site is routed suboptimally through the OTV
overlay. Which two actions optimize the traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Disable first-hop redundancy.
B. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the OTV edge devices.
C. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC list on the ESXi vSwitch.
D. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the ESXi vSwitch.
E. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC list on the OTV edge devices.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
An engineer removes a VMM domain from an endpoint group called “EPG-1”, but the distributed port group fails to be deleted. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Manually remove the port group.
B. Migrate all virtual machines in the EPG-1 to different hypervisors.
C. Remove the remaining EPGs from the VMM domain.
D. Migrate all virtual machines in the EPG-1 to different port groups.

Correct Answer: C

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Tech

NSE6_FVE-5.3 Fortinet NSE 6 – FortiVoice 5.3 Exam

Fortinet NSE 6 – FortiVoice 5.3

Exam series: NSE6_FVE-5.3
Number of questions: 30
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiVoice 5.3
Status: Registration ends March 31, 2021

QUESTION 1
What is a Page Group?

A. A group containing saved fax messages to be printed.
B. A group of extensions that can receive a page from another extension.
C. A group of available extensions to receive queued calls.
D. A group of extensions that are waiting to be configured.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What does the caller ID modification option do on managed gateways?

A. Allows the reception and relay of caller ID out on the trunk
B. Allows the relay of the caller ID from FortiVoice out on the trunk
C. Allows the reception of caller ID on the trunk and passes it to FortiVoice
D. Allows the application of caller ID modification rules to the trunk

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
For which purpose can the Pickup Group be used?

A. To update names in the directory
B. To email transcripts of voicemail to users
C. To make calls to any specified phone number
D. To allow you to log into another extension with your extension number

Correct Answer: D

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Oracle

1z0-1065-20 Oracle Procurement Cloud 2020 Implementation Essentials Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Procurement Cloud 2020 Certified Implementation Specialist

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.36,887
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 62%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 20D
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
From learning path: Oracle Procurement Cloud 2020 Certified Implementation Specialist
In the subscription: Oracle Procurement Cloud Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Note:
Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.

Procurement Application Overview
Explain Procurement architecture and components
Explain simplified Procure to Pay flow
Explain Procurement applications integration

Fusion Functional Set Up Manager
Explain the Application implementation lifecycle
Explain Functional Set Up Enterprise Roles
Plan an implementation
Configure offerings
Generate Set Up Task lists, Offerings, and Options
Assign Tasks to users
Manage implementation projects

Common Applications for Procurement
Explain Enterprise Structures
Configure Applications security, Job roles, Duty roles, and Privileges
Create Business Units, common Payables, Procurement options, and Approval Management for Procurement

Common Procurement
Manage Supplier configuration and Supplier site assignment
Define Payment Terms, UOM, Carriers, and Hazard Classes
Define a Supplier Business classification lookup, Supplier Products, and the Services hierarchy
Create Freight Lookups, and Purchasing Profile options

Purchasing
Define Purchase Document Configuration and Document Styles
Define Business Unit Function configuration, Configure Procurement Business Unit, Document types, Change Order template
Define Receiving Parameters for Purchasing
Create Line Types and Change Orders, and assign Procurement agents
Set up Budgetary Control and Encumbrance accounting
Set up Procurement of Consigned Inventory from Supplier
Set up Transaction Manager, Shared Service Center, B2B Communication

Self Service Procurement
Explain Self Service Procurement
Manage Profile Options, Catalog categories, Content Maps, and configure Requisitioning Business Functions
Create Public Shopping Lists, Smart Forms, Catalog-Category Hierarchies, Templates and Punch Out
Configure Requisition approvals

Supplier Portal
Explain objectives, Portal Setup, and maintenance
Create Portal Registration, Supplier Provisioning, and Default Roles
Explain Supplier business classification, internal and external supplier registrations

Sourcing
Explain Sourcing configuration objectives
Use Negotiation styles and Templates
Create Cost Factors, Attribute lists, Negotiation lookups, and Negotiation lists
Configure Negotiation and Award Approval, Surrogate Bidding, Online Message, Notification Summary, and two-stage RFQ
Explain how Supplier Qualification requirements can be captured during negotiations

Reporting and Business Intelligence for Procurement
Explain Reporting and Business Intelligence for Procurement
Configure OTBI , RTF Templates for POs, PRs, Dashboard metrics, and graphs in Purchasing work areas and Sourcing

Supplier Qualification Management (SQM)
Configure SQM and create Questions, Qualification Areas, and Models
Set up SQM Processes and manage Transactions, including Initiatives, Responses, Evaluation of Assessments, and Qualifications

Procurement Contract
Configure a Contract Terms Library
Create Contract Terms, Procurement Contract, Approvals, and Contract Fulfillment

Project-Driven Supply Chain (PDSC)
Configure Project-Driven Supply Chain

Get certified with the Oracle Procurement Cloud Learning Subscription
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QUESTION 1
Which three tasks are included in the Supplier functional area task list? (Choose three.)

A. Manage Procurement Agents
B. Specify Supplier Numbering
C. Manage Tax Organization Type Lookup
D. Manage Item Organizations
E. Manage Supplier Value Sets

Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 2
While creating a Purchase Order, you observe that the system is defaulting Net 30 as the payment term instead of the intended payment term Net 15.
Identify two ways to achieve the desired defaulting. (Choose two.)

A. Update Net 15 in procurement options and Net 30 for the supplier site.
B. Set Net 30 for the supplier site and leave the payment term blank in procurement options.
C. Update Net 15 in procurement options and leave the payment term blank for this supplier at all levels.
D. Set Net 15 for the supplier site.

Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 3
Which setup allows news and information of interest to be published to suppliers through the Oracle Supplier Portal Cloud? (Choose the best answer.)

A. setting up Specify Supplier News Content in the Functional Setup Manager
B. configuring the “News Broadcast” field using the ’Manage Supplier’ task
C. enabling RSS feed from a customers corporate web portal
D. enabling feed from social media sites such as Facebook, Twitter, and so on using ‘Manage Common Options for Purchasing’

Correct Answer: A

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