Tech

NSE4_FGT-7.0 Fortinet NSE 4 – FortiOS 7.0 Exam

December 31, 2021 Lindsay

Exam series: NSE4_FGT-7.0
Number of questions: 60
Exam time: 105 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 7.0
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 4 Certification
The Network Security Professiona* designation identifies your ability to configure, install, and manage the day-to-day configuration, monitoring, and operation of FortiGate to support specific corporate network security policies. Visit the
Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 7.0
The Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 4 Network Security Professional program, and recognizesthe successful candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiGate.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiGate configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operational scenarios, configuration extracts, and troubleshooting captures.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 7.0 exam is intended for network and security professionals responsible for the configuration and administration of firewal* solutions in an enterprise network security infrastructure.

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 7.0
Exam series NSE4_FGT-7.0
Time allowed 105 minutes
Exam Description
Exam questions 60 multiple-choice questions
Scoring Pass or fail, a score report is available from your Pearson VUE account
Language English and Japanese
Product version FortiOS 7.0

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
* FortiGate deployment
* Perform initial configuration
* Implement the Fortinet Security Fabric
* Configure log settings and diagnose problems using the logs
* Describe and configure VDOMs to split a FortiGate into multiple virtual devices
* Identify and configure different operation modes for an FGCP HA cluster
* Diagnose resource and connectivity problems
* Firewall and authentication
* Identify and configure how firewall policy NAT and central NAT works
* Identify and configure different methods of firewall authentication
* Explain FSSO deployment and configuration
* Content inspection
* Describe and inspect encrypted traffic using certificates
* Identify FortiGate inspection modes and configure web and DNS filtering
* Configure application control to monitor and control network applications
* Explain and configure antivirus scanning modes to neutralize malware threats
* Configure IPS, DoS, and WAF to protect the network from hacking and DDoS attacks
* Routing and Layer 2 switching
* Configure and route packets using static and policy-based routes
* Configure SD-WAN to load balance traffic between multiple WAN links effectively
* Configure FortiGate interfaces or VDOMs to operate as Layer 2 devices
* VPN
* Configure and implement different SSL-VPN modes to provide secure access to the private network
* Implement a meshed or partially redundant IPsec VPN

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 4 FortiGate Security 7.0
* NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure 7.0

Other Resources
* FortiOS 7.0—Administration Guide
* FortiOS 7.0—New Features Guide

Experience
* Minimum of six months of hands-on experience with FortiGate

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about FortiGate FSSO agentless polling mode are true? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate uses the AD server as the collector agent.
B. FortiGate uses the SMB protocol to read the event viewer logs from the DCs.
C. FortiGate does not support workstation check.
D. FortiGate directs the collector agent to use a remote LDAP server.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION 2
FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories. To create a web rating override
for example.com home page, the override must be configured using a specific syntax.
Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating override for the home page? (Choose two.)

A. www.exaple.com
B. www.example.com/index.html
C. example.com
D. www.example.com:443

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 3
Which three options are the remote log storage options you can configure on FortiGate? (Choose three.)

A. FortiSandbox
B. FortiCloud
C. FortiSIEM
D. FortiCache
E. ForiAnalyzer

Answer: B,C,E

Examkingdom Fortinet NSE4_FGT-7.0 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Fortinet NSE4_FGT-7.0 PDF

Best Fortinet NSE4_FGT-7.0 Certification, Fortinet NSE4_FGT-7.0 Training at certkingdom.com

Tech

Amazon AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam SAA-C02

December 27, 2021 Lindsay

AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate
Learn more about this certification and AWS resources that can help you prepare

This credential helps organizations identify and develop talent with critical skills for implementing cloud initiatives. Earning AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate validates the ability to design and implement distributed systems on AWS.

Who should take this exam?
AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate is intended for anyone with one or more years of hands-on experience designing available, cost-efficient, fault-tolerant, and scalable distributed systems on AWS. Before you take this exam, we recommend you have:

One year of hands-on experience with AWS technology, including using compute, networking, storage, and database AWS services as well as AWS deployment and management services
Experience deploying, managing, and operating workloads on AWS as well as implementing security controls and compliance requirements
Familiarity with using both the AWS Management Console and the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)
Understanding of the AWS Well-Architected Framework, AWS networking, security services, and the AWS global infrastructure
Ability to identify which AWS services meet a given technical requirement and to define technical requirements for an AWS-based application

What does it take to earn this certification?
To earn this certification, you’ll need to take and pass the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate exam (SAA-C02). The exam features a combination of two question formats: multiple choice and multiple response. Additional information, such as the exam content outline and passing score, is in the exam guide.

Review sample questions that demonstrate the format of the questions used on this exam and include rationales for the correct answers.

Introduction
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C02) exam is intended for individuals who perform in a solutions architect role. The exam validates a candidate’s ability to design secure and robust solutions by using AWS technologies.
The exam also validates a candidate’s ability to complete the following tasks:
 Design a solution by using appropriate AWS services and by following architectural principles based on requirements
 Provide implementation guidance based on best practices to the organization throughout the workload lifecycle

Target candidate description
The target candidate should have at least 1 year of hands-on experience designing secure, high-performing, cost-effective, highly available, and scalable systems by using AWS services.

Recommended AWS knowledge

The target candidate should have the following knowledge:
 Hands-on experience using compute, networking, storage, management, and database AWS services
 The ability to identify and define technical requirements for a solution that involves AWS technology
 The ability to identify which AWS services meet a given technical requirement
 An understanding of best practices for building well-architected solutions on AWS
 An understanding of the AWS global infrastructure
 An understanding of AWS security services and features in relation to traditional services

What is considered out of scope for the target candidate?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of related job tasks that the target candidate is not expected to be able to perform. These items are out of scope for the exam:
 Design a complex, hybrid network architecture
 Design identity federation within multiple accounts
 Design an architecture that meets compliance requirements
 Incorporate specialized services in a design
 Develop deployment strategies
 Create a migration strategy for complex multi-tier applications

For a detailed list of specific tools and technologies that might be covered on the exam, as well as a list of in-scope AWS services, refer to the Appendix.

Exam content Response types
There are two types of questions on the exam:
 Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
 Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options

Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose. Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.

Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 50 questions that will affect your score.

Unscored content
The exam includes 15 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.

Exam results
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.
Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 720. Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.

Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information provides general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.

Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback.

Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the objectives is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context. The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.

Domain % of Exam
Domain 1: Design Resilient Architectures 30%
Domain 2: Design High-Performing Architectures 28%
Domain 3: Design Secure Applications and Architectures 24%
Domain 4: Design Cost-Optimized Architectures 18%
TOTAL 100%

Domain 1: Design Resilient Architectures
1.1 Design a multi-tier architecture solution
 Determine a solution design based on access patterns.
 Determine a scaling strategy for components used in a design.
 Select an appropriate database based on requirements.
 Select an appropriate compute and storage service based on requirements.

1.2 Design highly available and/or fault-tolerant architectures
 Determine the amount of resources needed to provide a fault-tolerant architecture across Availability Zones.
 Select a highly available configuration to mitigate single points of failure.
 Apply AWS services to improve the reliability of legacy applications when application changes are not possible.
 Select an appropriate disaster recovery strategy to meet business requirements.
 Identify key performance indicators to ensure the high availability of the solution.

1.3 Design decoupling mechanisms using AWS services
 Determine which AWS services can be leveraged to achieve loose coupling of components.
 Determine when to leverage serverless technologies to enable decoupling.

1.4 Choose appropriate resilient storage
 Define a strategy to ensure the durability of data.
 Identify how data service consistency will affect the operation of the application.
 Select data services that will meet the access requirements of the application.
 Identify storage services that can be used with hybrid or non-cloud-native applications.

Domain 2: Design High-Performing Architectures
2.1 Identify elastic and scalable compute solutions for a workload
 Select the appropriate instance(s) based on compute, storage, and networking requirements.
 Choose the appropriate architecture and services that scale to meet performance requirements.
 Identify metrics to monitor the performance of the solution.

2.2 Select high-performing and scalable storage solutions for a workload
 Select a storage service and configuration that meets performance demands.
 Determine storage services that can scale to accommodate future needs.

2.3 Select high-performing networking solutions for a workload
 Select appropriate AWS connectivity options to meet performance demands.
 Select appropriate features to optimize connectivity to AWS public services.
 Determine an edge caching strategy to provide performance benefits.
 Select appropriate data transfer service for migration and/or ingestion.

2.4 Choose high-performing database solutions for a workload
 Select an appropriate database scaling strategy.
 Determine when database caching is required for performance improvement.
 Choose a suitable database service to meet performance needs.

Domain 3: Design Secure Applications and Architectures
3.1 Design secure access to AWS resources
 Determine when to choose between users, groups, and roles.
 Interpret the net effect of a given access policy.
 Select appropriate techniques to secure a root account.
 Determine ways to secure credentials using features of AWS IAM.
 Determine the secure method for an application to access AWS APIs.
 Select appropriate services to create traceability for access to AWS resources.

3.2 Design secure application tiers
 Given traffic control requirements, determine when and how to use security groups and network ACLs.
 Determine a network segmentation strategy using public and private subnets.
 Select the appropriate routing mechanism to securely access AWS service endpoints or internet-based resources from Amazon VPC.
 Select appropriate AWS services to protect applications from external threats.

3.3 Select appropriate data security options
 Determine the policies that need to be applied to objects based on access patterns.
 Select appropriate encryption options for data at rest and in transit for AWS services.
 Select appropriate key management options based on requirements.

Domain 4: Design Cost-Optimized Architectures
4.1 Identify cost-effective storage solutions
 Determine the most cost-effective data storage options based on requirements.
 Apply automated processes to ensure that data over time is stored on storage tiers that minimize costs.

4.2 Identify cost-effective compute and database services
 Determine the most cost-effective Amazon EC2 billing options for each aspect of the workload.
 Determine the most cost-effective database options based on requirements.
 Select appropriate scaling strategies from a cost perspective.
 Select and size compute resources that are optimally suited for the workload.
 Determine options to minimize total cost of ownership (TCO) through managed services and serverless architectures.

4.3 Design cost-optimized network architectures
 Identify when content delivery can be used to reduce costs.
 Determine strategies to reduce data transfer costs within AWS.
 Determine the most cost-effective connectivity options between AWS and on-premises environments.

Appendix
Which key tools, technologies, and concepts might be covered on the exam?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of the tools and technologies that could appear on the exam. This list is subject to change and is provided to help you understand the general scope of services, features, or technologies on the exam. The general tools and technologies in this list appear in no particular order. AWS services are grouped according to their primary functions. While some of these technologies will likely be covered more than others on the exam, the order and placement of them in this list is no indication of relative weight or importance:
 Compute
 Cost management
 Database
 Disaster recovery
 High availability
 Management and governance
 Microservices and component decoupling
 Migration and data transfer
 Networking, connectivity, and content delivery
 Security
 Serverless design principles
 Storage

AWS services and features Analytics:
 Amazon Athena
 Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES)
 Amazon EMR
 AWS Glue
 Amazon Kinesis
 Amazon QuickSight

AWS Billing and Cost Management:
 AWS Budgets
 Cost Explorer

Application Integration:
 Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
 Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

Compute:
 Amazon EC2
 AWS Elastic Beanstalk
 Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
 Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
 Elastic Load Balancing
 AWS Fargate
 AWS Lambda

Database:
 Amazon Aurora
 Amazon DynamoDB
 Amazon ElastiCache
 Amazon RDS
 Amazon Redshift

Management and Governance:
 AWS Auto Scaling
 AWS Backup
 AWS CloudFormation
 AWS CloudTrail
 Amazon CloudWatch
 AWS Config
 Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events)
 AWS Organizations
 AWS Resource Access Manager
 AWS Systems Manager
 AWS Trusted Advisor

Migration and Transfer:
 AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
 AWS DataSync
 AWS Migration Hub
 AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS)
 AWS Snowball
 AWS Transfer Family

Networking and Content Delivery:
 Amazon API Gateway
 Amazon CloudFront
 AWS Direct Connect
 AWS Global Accelerator
 Amazon Route 53
 AWS Transit Gateway
 Amazon VPC (and associated features)

Security, Identity, and Compliance:
 AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
 AWS Directory Service
 Amazon GuardDuty
 AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
 Amazon Inspector
 AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
 Amazon Macie
 AWS Secrets Manager
 AWS Shield
 AWS Single Sign-On
 AWS WAF

Storage:
 Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
 Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
 Amazon FSx
 Amazon S3
 Amazon S3 Glacier
 AWS Storage Gateway

QUESTION 1
A solutions architect is designing a solution where users will be directed to a backup static error page if the
primary website is unavailable. The primary website’s DNS records are hosted in Amazon Route 53 where
their domain is pointing to an Application Load Balancer (ALB).
Which configuration should the solutions architect use to meet the company’s needs while minimizing changes
and infrastructure overhead?

A. Point a Route 53 alias record to an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the ALB as one of its origins.
Then, create custom error pages for the distribution.
B. Set up a Route 53 active-passive failover configuration. Direct traffic to a static error page hosted within an
Amazon S3 bucket when Route 53 health checks determine that the ALB endpoint is unhealthy.
C. Update the Route 53 record to use a latency-based routing policy. Add the backup static error page hosted
within an Amazon S3 bucket to the record so the traffic is sent to the most responsive endpoints.
D. Set up a Route 53 active-active configuration with the ALB and an Amazon EC2 instance hosting a static
error page as endpoints. Route 53 will only send requests to the instance if the health checks fail for the ALB.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A solutions architect is designing a high performance computing (HPC) workload on Amazon EC2. The EC2
instances need to communicate to each other frequently and require network performance with low latency and high throughput.
Which EC2 configuration meets these requirements?

A. Launch the EC2 instances in a cluster placement group in one Availability Zone.
B. Launch the EC2 instances in a spread placement group in one Availability Zone.
C. Launch the EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group in two Regions and peer the VPCs.
D. Launch the EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group spanning multiple Availability Zones.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company wants to host a scalable web application on AWS. The application will be accessed by users from
different geographic regions of the world. Application users will be able to download and upload unique data
up to gigabytes in size. The development team wants a cost-effective solution to minimize upload and
download latency and maximize performance.
What should a solutions architect do to accomplish this?

A. Use Amazon S3 with Transfer Acceleration to host the application.
B. Use Amazon S3 with CacheControl headers to host the application.
C. Use Amazon EC2 with Auto Scaling and Amazon CloudFront to host the application.
D. Use Amazon EC2 with Auto Scaling and Amazon ElastiCache to host the application.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A company is migrating from an on-premises infrastructure to the AWS Cloud. One of the company’s
applications stores files on a Windows file server farm that uses Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) to
keep data in sync. A solutions architect needs to replace the file server farm.
Which service should the solutions architect use?

A. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
B. Amazon FSx
C. Amazon S3
D. AWS Storage Gateway

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company has a legacy application that processes data in two parts. The second part of the process takes
longer than the first, so the company has decided to rewrite the application as two microservices running on
Amazon ECS that can scale independently.
How should a solutions architect integrate the microservices?

A. Implement code in microservice 1 to send data to an Amazon S3 bucket. Use S3 event notifications to
invoke microservice 2.
B. Implement code in microservice 1 to publish data to an Amazon SNS topic. Implement code in microservice
2 to subscribe to this topic.
C. Implement code in microservice 1 to send data to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Implement code in
microservice 2 to read from Kinesis Data Firehose.
D. Implement code in microservice 1 to send data to an Amazon SQS queue. Implement code in microservice
2 to process messages from the queue.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company captures clickstream data from multiple websites and analyzes it using batch processing. The data
is loaded nightly into Amazon Redshift and is consumed by business analysts. The company wants to move
towards near-real-time data processing for timely insights. The solution should process the streaming data with
minimal effort and operational overhead.
Which combination of AWS services are MOST cost-effective for this solution? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon EC2
B. AWS Lambda
C. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
D. Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
E. Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics

Answer: B,D

QUESTION 7
A company’s application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The
instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. On the first day of
every month at midnight, the application becomes much slower when the month-end financial calculation batch
executes. This causes the CPU utilization of the EC2 instances to immediately peak to 100%, which disrupts
the application.
What should a solutions architect recommend to ensure the application is able to handle the workload and
avoid downtime?

A. Configure an Amazon CloudFront distribution in front of the ALB.
B. Configure an EC2 Auto Scaling simple scaling policy based on CPU utilization.
C. Configure an EC2 Auto Scaling scheduled scaling policy based on the monthly schedule.
D. Configure Amazon ElastiCache to remove some of the workload from the EC2 instances.

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company runs a multi-tier web application that hosts news content. The application runs on Amazon EC2
instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an EC2 Auto Scaling group across
multiple Availability Zones and use an Amazon Aurora database. A solutions architect needs to make the
application more resilient to periodic increases in request rates.
Which architecture should the solutions architect implement? (Choose two.)

A. Add AWS Shield.
B. Add Aurora Replica.
C. Add AWS Direct Connect.
D. Add AWS Global Accelerator.
E. Add an Amazon CloudFront distribution in front of the Application Load Balancer.

Answer: D,E

QUESTION 9
An application running on AWS uses an Amazon Aurora Multi-AZ deployment for its database. When
evaluating performance metrics, a solutions architect discovered that the database reads are causing high I/O
and adding latency to the write requests against the database.
What should the solutions architect do to separate the read requests from the write requests?

A. Enable read-through caching on the Amazon Aurora database.
B. Update the application to read from the Multi-AZ standby instance.
C. Create a read replica and modify the application to use the appropriate endpoint.
D. Create a second Amazon Aurora database and link it to the primary database as a read replica.

Answer: C

Examkingdom AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam SAA-C02 Exam pdf, Certkingdom AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam SAA-C02 PDF

Best AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam SAA-C02 Certification, AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam SAA-C02 Training at certkingdom.com

Cisco

300-610 Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-610 DCID) Exam

December 25, 2021 Lindsay

Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Associated certifications: CCNP Data Center , Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center Design

This exam tests your knowledge of data center infrastructure design, including:
Network
Compute
Storage network
Automation

Official Cisco training
Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure v1.0 (300-610)

Exam Description:
Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure v1.0 (DCID 300-610) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Data Center Certification. This exam certifies a candidate’s knowledge of data center infrastructure design including network, compute, storage network, and automation. The course, Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

35% 1.0 Network Design
1.1 Evaluate options for Layer 2 connectivity
1.1.a Endpoint mobility
1.1.b Redundancy/high availability
1.1.c Convergence
1.1.d Services insertion
1.2 Evaluate options for Layer 3 connectivity
1.2.a IP mobility
1.2.b Redundancy / high availability (graceful restart, NSF)
1.2.c Convergence
1.2.d Services insertion (load balancing, security)
1.3 Evaluate data center technologies such as vPC/vPC+
1.4 Evaluate options for interconnecting data centers such as VXLAN EVPN and OTV
1.5 Evaluate options for device and routing virtualization
1.5.a VDC
1.5.b VRF (standard, VXLAN EVPN tenant)
1.6 Evaluate in-band and out-of-band options for management
1.7 Evaluate redundancy options such as active/active and disaster recovery site

25% 2.0 Compute Design
2.1 Evaluate options for Ethernet connectivity
2.1.a Redundancy / high availability
2.1.b Bandwidth (oversubscription)
2.1.c Fabric interconnect operation mode (switch mode, end host mode)
2.2 Evaluate options for storage connectivity
2.2.a Bandwidth (port-channels, oversubscription)
2.2.b Fabric interconnect operation mode (switch mode, end host mode)
2.2.c Direct-attached storage (appliance, FC storage, and FCoE ports)
2.3 Evaluate options for network device virtualization in a data center (Cisco VIC adapters)
2.3.a Number of interfaces vs. IOM uplinks
2.3.b vCon placement policies
2.3.c Ethernet adaptor policies
2.3.d Fibre Channel adapter policies
2.4 Evaluate options for hyperconverged infrastructure
2.4.a Cluster mode
2.4.b HX for virtual server
2.4.c Desktop virtualization

20% 3.0 Storage Network Design
3.1 Plan for iSCSI deployment in a data center (Multipathing and addressing schemes)
3.2 Evaluate QoS requirements in a data center
3.2.a Fibre Channel
3.2.b FCoE
3.2.c FCIP
3.2.d iSCSI
3.3 Determine FCoE/ Fibre Channel interface
3.3.a Dedicated and shared mode
3.3.b Port types
3.3.c ISL
3.3.d Oversubscription
3.4 Evaluate SAN topology options

20% 4.0 Automation Design
4.1 Evaluate options for network orchestration and automation
4.1.a DCNM
4.1.b Intersight
4.1.c NX-API
4.1.d Model-driven programmability
4.1.e Ansible
4.1.f Puppet
4.1.g Python
4.2 Evaluate options for compute orchestration and automation
4.2.a Service profile templates
4.2.b vNIC templates
4.2.c vHBA templates
4.2.d Global policies vs. local policies

QUESTION 1
What is an advantage of using OTV as compared to VPLS for data center redundancy?

A. prevents loops on point-to-point links
B. provides head-end replication
C. uses a proactive MAC advertisement
D. provides full-mesh connectivity

Answer: A

Section: Network Design

QUESTION 2
Which multicast rendezvous point redundancy mode is valid for Bidirectional PIM?

A. Embedded RP
B. Phantom RP
C. MSDP
D. PIM anycast RP

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An engineer deploys LISP VM mobility.
Which feature is configured on the interfaces that have VM mobility enabled?

A. IP redirects
B. flow control
C. proxy ARP
D. HSRP

Answer: C

Examkingdom Cisco 300-610 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Cisco 300-610 PDF

Best Cisco 300-610 Certification, Cisco 300-610 Training at certkingdom.com

Huawei

H13-341 Huawei Certified internetwork Expert – Transmission Exam

December 23, 2021 Lindsay

Target Audience
senior engineers in the transmission field and ICT talent who want to learn in-depth transmission network knowledge.

Prerequisites
It is recommended that you learn HCIA-Transmission in advance.

Exam Code Certification Exam
H31-341 HCIP-Transmission

Capabilities to be certified
After passing the HCIP-Transmission V2.5 certification, you will master the principles, scheduling schemes, commissioning methods of transport network devices, service configuration, protection implementation mechanisms, and troubleshooting methods of transport network devices and transport network faults. In addition, you can perform O&M and troubleshooting based on this, and is qualified as a high-level O&M engineer for transport networks.

Knowledge to Learn
Principles and scheduling schemes of transport networks, commissioning methods of transport network devices, service configuration, protection implementation mechanisms, and troubleshooting methods of transport network devices and transport network faults.

Exam Outline : HCIP-Transmission

Exam Content
The HCIP-Transmission V2.5 exam covers advanced knowledge of tranmission network field, including WDM Principles, Transmission Network Products, NG WDM Equipment Networking and Applications, Optical- and Electrical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment, NG WDM Equipment Commissioning, MS-OTN Features, OTN Protocol, MS-OTN Protection Principles, NG WDM Equipment Routine Maintenance, NG WDM Alarm Signal Flow Analysis, NG WDM System Troubleshooting.

Knowledge Content
1.WDM Principles 10%
2.Transmission Network Products 5%
3.NG WDM Equipment Networking and Applications 5%
4.Optical- and Electrical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment 10%
5.NG WDM Equipment Commissioning 15%
6.MS-OTN Features 10%
7.OTN Protocol 10%
8.MS-OTN Protection Principles 10%
9.NG WDM Equipment Routine Maintenance 5%
10.NG WDM Alarm Signal Flow Analysis 10%
11.NG WDM System Troubleshooting 10%

HCIP-Transmission V2.5 Exam Outline
Huawei Certification HCIP-Transmission V2.5 Certification Exam
Exam Code H31-341
Exam Name HCIP-Transmission
Exam language ENU/CHS
Question Type Single-answer Question, Multiple-answer Question, True or false, Short Response Item, Drag and drop item
Exam fees 300USD
Exam Duration 90min
Passing score/Total score 600/1000

Exam Content
The HCIP-Transmission V2.5 exam covers advanced knowledge of tranmission network field, including WDM Principles, Transmission Network Products, NG WDM Equipment Networking and Applications, Optical- and Electrical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment, NG WDM Equipment Commissioning, MS-OTN Features, OTN Protocol, MS-OTN Protection Principles, NG WDM Equipment Routine Maintenance, NG WDM Alarm Signal Flow Analysis, NG WDM System Troubleshooting.
Knowledge Point Percentage

WDM Principles 10%
Transmission Network Products 5%
NG WDM Equipment Networking and Applications 5%
Optical- and Electrical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment 10%
NG WDM Equipment Commissioning 15%
MS-OTN Features 10%
OTN Protocol 10%
MS-OTN Protection Principles 10%
NG WDM Equipment Routine Maintenance 5%
NG WDM Alarm Signal Flow Analysis 10%
NG WDM System Troubleshooting 10%

WDM Principles
. System Overview
. WDM Transmission Media
. Key Technologies of WDM

Transmission Network Products
. Product Overview
. Cabinets and Subracks
. Boards

NG WDM Equipment Networking and Applications
. Network Layers and System Architecture
. Site Types
. Basic Networking Elements

Optical- and Electrical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment
. Optical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment
. Electrical-Layer Grooming Solutions of NG WDM Equipment

NG WDM Equipment Commissioning
. NG WDM Equipment Commissioning Basics
. NG WDM Equipment Commissioning Process and Procedure

MS-OTN Features
. IP Basics
. MPLS & PWE3
. Packet Services
. Maintenance Features

OTN Protocol
. OTN Overview
. OTN Interface Structures and Multiplexing/Mapping Principles
. OTN Frame Structure
. Frame Structure and Meaning of OTN Electrical-Layer Overheads
. Evolution to Liquid OTN

MS-OTN Protection Principles
. Device-Level Protection
. Network-Level Protection (OTN)
. Network-Level Protection (Packet)

NG WDM Equipment Routine Maintenance
. Device Routine Maintenance
. NMS Routine Maintenance

NG WDM Alarm Signal Flow Analysis
. Overview
. Electrical-layer Alarm Analysis
. Optical-layer Alarm Analysis

NG WDM System Troubleshooting
. Device Routine Maintenance Troubleshooting Preparations
. Fault Locating Ideas and Methods
. Troubleshooting by Fault Type
. Case Analysis

QUESTION 1
What are the wavelengths of the OSC channel used by the ST2 board?

A. 1510nm
B. 1491nm
C. 1511nm
D. 1471 nm

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following functions is added to EX40 compared with X40?

A. Monitors the optical power of a single channel.
B. Supports optical-layer cross-connections.
C. Fewer slots are occupied.
D. More multiplexed and demultiplexed wavelengths

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following monitoring boards do not support 1588v2 signal processing and transparent transmission?

A. AST2
B. SC2
C. ST2
D. SC1

Answer: A

Examkingdom Huawei H13-341 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Huawei H13-341 PDF

Best H13-341 Certification, Huawei H13-341 Training at certkingdom.com

VMware

1V0-31.21 Associate VMware Cloud Management Automation Exam

December 21, 2021 Lindsay

Exam Details
The Associate VMware Cloud Management and Automation Exam (1V0-31.21), which leads to VMware Certified Technical Associate – Cloud Management and Automation 2021 is a 58-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Exam time is 105 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The Minimally Qualified Candidate(MQC) has 3-6 months hands-on experience managing and monitoring private/public clouds leveraging VMware cloud management components. The MQC possesses awareness of storage, networking and security services, and working knowledge of vSphere and guest operating systems. The MQC has basic understanding of software architecture (YAML, JSON, REST, SOAP) and VMware Cloud services (benefits/features). The Minimally Qualified Candidate also has understanding of cloud management extensibility, industry standard DevOps processes, and private, public and hybrid cloud concepts. The MQC also has awareness of Kubernetes concepts.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Task

If a section is missing from the list below, please note it is because the exam has no testable objectives for that section. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1: Identify the components of a VMware cloud management solution.
Objective 1.2: Identify the functionality of the components of a vRealize Automation and vRealize Automation Cloud architecture.
Objective 1.3: Identify the functionality of the components of a vRealize Operations and vRealize Operations Cloud architecture.
Objective 1.4: Identify the lifecycle management of the vRealize Automation, vRealize Operations, vRealize Log Insight, vRealize Network Insight through vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager (vRSLCM)
Objective 1.5: Identify the components of the VMware Cloud Services (vRealize Automation Cloud, vRealize Operations Cloud, vRealize Log Insight Cloud, CloudHealth Platform, Cloud Health Secure State)
Objective 1.6: Differentiate between VMware Cloud Management when deployed/consumed via SaaS or on-premises.

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1: Identify the role of VMware vRealize Automation Services in a Cloud Management solution
Objective 2.2: Identify the role of Cloud Assembly
Objective 2.3: Identify the role of Service Broker
Objective 2.4: Identify the role of Code Stream
Objective 2.5: Identify the role of vRealize Orchestrator
Objective 2.6: Identify the role of SaltStack Config
Objective 2.7: Identify the role of the Migration Assistant
Objective 2.8: Identify the role of vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager in the Cloud Management solution
Objective 2.9: Identify the role of Workspace ONE Access in the Cloud Management solution
Objective 2.10: Identify the role of vRealize Log Insight in the Cloud Management solution
Objective 2.11: Identify the role of vRealize Operations Manager in the Cloud Management solution
Objective 2.12: Identify the role of CloudHealth in the Cloud Management solution
Objective 2.13: Identify the role CloudHealth Secure State
Objective 2.14: Identify the role of vRealize Network Insight in the Cloud Management solution

Section 3 – Planning and Designing – There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup – There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades – There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1: Identify the Tools and Processes available for troubleshooting cloud management components.
Objective 6.2: Understand the Getting Started dashboard page with vRealize Operations.
Objective 6.3: Identify use case for troubleshooting Workbench in vRealize Operations.
Objective 6.4: Monitor vRealize Operations dashboards.
Objective 6.5: Monitor Log Insight dashboards.
Objective 6.6: Monitor cloud management components using the SDDC Health Monitoring Solution

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1: Perform basic operational tasks within graphical user interface
Objective 7.2: Add data sources
Objective 7.3: Create a simple environment using vRSLCM
Objective 7.4: Check the health of the cloud management solution
Objective 7.5: Create simple search queries

QUESTION 1
Which tool in the Cloud Management solution can be used to create dashboards based on the logs generated by vRealize Automation?

A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Network Insight
C. vRealize Operations Manager
D. vRealize Log Insight

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which VMware Cloud Service can be used to centralize Linux system messages for virtual workloads deployed in both AWS and Azure clouds?

A. vRealize Automation Cloud
B. vRealize Operations Cloud
C. vRealize Log Insight Cloud
D. vRealize Network Insight Cloud

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An operator has been tasked with using vRealize Operations to determine whether sufficient capacity exists
within a production vSAN Cluster to add another 100 workloads.
Which two actions should be taken to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. Create a new Add VMs Scenario using the Workload Planning: Hyperconverged and VMC on AWS option.
B. Create a new Add VMs Scenario using the Workload Planning: Traditional option.
C. Select Plan from the Quick Start Page.
D. Select Assess Capacity from the Quick Start Page.
E. Select Rightsize from the Quick Start Page.

Answer: B,D

Examkingdom VMware 1V0-31.21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom VMware 1V0-31.21 PDF

Best VMware 1V0-31.21 Certification, VMware 1V0-31.21 Training at certkingdom.com

VMware

5V0-22.21 VMware vSAN 6.7 Specialist Exam

December 18, 2021 Lindsay

EXAM NUMBER : 5V0-22.21
PRODUCT : VMware vSAN
EXAM LANGUAGE : English
Associate Certifications : VMware Specialist – vSAN 2021

Exam Info
Duration : 130 minutes
Number of Questions : 76
Passing Score : 300 (scaled) Learn More
Format : Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored

The VMware Specialist – vSAN 2021 badge validates an earner’s understanding of vSphere and vSAN concepts and requirements. It also demonstrates proper vSAN design principles and best practices knowledge as well as working knowledge of storage, security and networking concepts and storage data services. The badge holder is able to install and configure vSAN. They are also capable of managing and monitoring a vSAN and performing basic troubleshooting and problem resolution.

Exam Details
The VMware vSAN Specialist Exam (5V0-22.21) which leads to VMware Specialist – vSAN 2021 badge, is a 76-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Exam time is 130 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Badge Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) understands vSphere and vSAN concepts and requirements and demonstrates proper vSAN design principles and best practices. The MQC is able to install and configure vSAN and possesses working knowledge of storage, security and networking concepts and storage data services. The MQC also has knowledge about proper monitoring and management of a vSAN cluster and basic troubleshooting. The MQC holds a VCP 2019, 2020 or 2021 certification. The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Task

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly.

Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1- Identify vSAN requirements
Objective 1.2- Identify how vSAN stores and protects data
Objective 1.3- Identify vSAN space efficiency features
Objective 1.4- Given a scenario, identify the architectural requirements of a standard vSAN cluster, vSAN 2-node cluster, and a vSAN stretched cluster
Objective 1.5- Identify vSAN data services requirements

Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1- Given a scenario, identify when and how to use vSphere Replication in combination with vSAN.
Objective 2.2- Identify how to monitor vSAN with vRealize Operations
Objective 2.3- Identify which VMware solutions integrate with vSAN
Objective 2.4- Identify Data Persistence platform (DPp) deployment options

Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Objective 3.1- Given a scenario, identify vSAN design considerations
Objective 3.2- Given a scenario, identify how to design a vSAN cluster
Objective 3.3- Given a scenario, identify how to use vSAN design and sizing tools
Objective 3.4- Given a scenario, identify interoperability with other vSphere features
Objective 3.5- Given a scenario, identify how VMware solutions integrate with vSAN
Objective 3.6- Given a scenario, identify when to use HCI Mesh

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1- Identify how to create and manage disk groups
Objective 4.2- Identify how to configure a vSAN cluster
Objective 4.3- Given a scenario, identify how to configure vSAN storage policies
Objective 4.4- Given a scenario, identify how to configure vSAN cluster services
Objective 4.5- Identify how to configure vSAN stretched cluster and 2-node configurations
Objective 4.6- Identify how to configure Cloud Native storage (CNS) with appropriate policies
Objective 4.7- Identify how to configure vSAN HCI Mesh.
Objective 4.8- Identify the interoperability of HCI mesh with vSAN.
Objective 4.9- Identify how to validate a vSAN deployment

Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Objective 5.1- Given a scenario, identify how to apply patches using vSphere Lifecycle Manager (LCM)
Objective 5.2- Given a scenario, identify how to upgrade an HCI environment using vSphere Lifecycle Manager (vLCM)
Objective 5.3- Given a scenario, identify how to add and remove hosts from a vSAN cluster
Objective 5.4- Given a scenario, identify how to create, expand, reconfigure, and remove disk groups
Objective 5.5- Given a scenario, identify how to create and remove vSAN Direct Configuration
Objective 5.6- Given a scenario, identify how to manage firmware and driver versions using Skyline Health, vSphere Lifecycle Manager (LCM), and Compatibility Guide
Objective 5.7- Identify how to set vSphere Lifecycle Manager (LCM) desired image
Objective 5.8- Given a scenario, identify when to use component striping

Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1- Given a scenario, identify the impact of the vSAN failure.
Objective 6.2- Given a vSAN scenario, interpret Skyline Health warnings.
Objective 6.3- Identify how to determine vSAN health using the UI or ESXCLI
Objective 6.4- Identify how to gather vSAN performance information in the UI or using vsantop
Objective 6.5- Identify how to manage vSAN hardware lifecycle
Objective 6.6- Identify how to monitor resync impact
Objective 6.7- Identify how to remove unassociated vSAN objects to reclaim capacity
Objective 6.8- Identify the significance of delta components.
Objective 6.9- Identify how to resolve capacity issues using storage policies
Objective 6.10- Identify how to resolve vSAN object compliance issues

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Task
Objective 7.1- Identify how to create, update, and modify vSAN storage policies and apply to objects
Objective 7.2 Identify vSAN data placement changes
Objective 7.3- Identify how to interpret vSAN storage capacity
Objective 7.4- Given a scenario, evaluate vSAN performance metrics
Objective 7.5- Identify effects of maintenance mode options
Objective 7.6- Given a scenario, identify how to add capacity to a vSAN cluster
Objective 7.7- Given a scenario, identify how to patch a vSAN cluster
Objective 7.8- Identify the operational characteristics/differences between standard vSAN cluster, vSAN 2-node architecture and vSAN stretched cluster
Objective 7.9- Identify the characteristics of the different types of encryption
Objective 7.1- Identify how to utilize TRIM and UNMAP from vSAN and guest OS perspective
Objective 7.11- Given a scenario, evaluate vSAN performance metrics
Objective 7.12- Given a scenario, identify the effects of maintenance mode options
Objective 7.13- Identify how to monitor vSAN storage policy compliance
Objective 7.14- Given a scenario, interpret the results of Skyline Health Check.
Objective 7.15- Identify the impact of vSAN storage policy changes
Objective 7.16- Identify how to use Skyline health check to maintain a healthy status of a vSAN cluster.
Objective 7.17- Given a scenario, identify how to start up and shut down a vSAN cluster

QUESTION 1
A vSAN administrator, who has a cluster that has both compute-only and vSAN ReadyNodes, recently
received a request to deploy a new application with higher storage performance requirements than what are currently available.
What are two ways the administrator can reconfigure the vSAN cluster to obtain this additional performance?
(Choose two.)

A. Add additional hosts, with capacity devices only, and then stream the cache from the other hosts.
B. Add cache and capacity devices to the compute-only hosts.
C. Add additional cache and capacity devices to the existing data nodes.
D. Add additional compute-only hosts from the vSAN cluster.
E. Add to the existing disk groups two cache devices and the eight capacity devices.

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 2
An administrator is tasked with configuring vSAN Cloud Native Storage.
Which two requirements must be met for a successful configuration? (Choose two.)

A. vSAN iSCSI service enabled
B. Minimum of vSphere 6.7 Update 3 or later
C. Tanzu Enterprise License required
D. Minimum of vSphere 7.0 Update 2 or later
E. Compatible version of Kubernetes

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 3
When attempting to add a directly attached disk device to a host disk group,
the intended disk does not show among the available devices in disk management.
Which action should be taken?

A. Delete all device partitions
B. Create a 1GB metadata partition
C. Format the existing partition
D. Create a VMFS partition

Answer: A

Examkingdom VMware 5V0-22.21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom VMware 5V0-22.21 PDF

Best VMware 5V0-22.21 Certification, VMware 5V0-22.21 Training at certkingdom.com

Tech

TDS-C01 Tableau Desktop Specialist Exam

December 15, 2021 Lindsay

Exam Details
This exam is for those who have foundational skills and understanding of Tableau Desktop and at least three months of applying this understanding in the product. Be sure to review the full Tableau Desktop Specialist Exam Prep Guide before registering.

Prerequisites
There are no required prerequisites for this exam. Everyone learns differently and every day use of Tableau varies. Recommendations for learning resources and experience with the product are guidelines, not requirements.

Exam Format
Time Limit: 60 minutes
Question Format: Multiple choice, multiple response
Number of Questions: 45 (40 scored, 5 unscored)
Passing Score: The passing scaled score for this exam is 750.
Language(s) Offered: English, Japanese, and Simplified Chinese.
Exam Delivery Method: Testing center and online delivery are both available. Learn more about the check-in process and testing experience for each method here.

For more information, download the full Tableau Desktop Specialist Exam Prep Guide.

Awarded Credentials
Upon successful completion of this exam, you will be awarded the title of Tableau Desktop Specialist.

This title does not expire.

Target Audience
This exam is for those who have foundational skills and understanding of Tableau Desktop and at least three months of applying this understanding in the product.
There are no required prerequisites for this exam. Everyone learns differently and everyday use of Tableau varies. Recommendations for learning resources and experience with the product are guidelines, not requirements.

Exam Guide Disclosure
This document provides information on the structure of this exam, along with the knowledge and skills being measured. It suggests resources to help the candidate prepare for success. This document is not intended to build product knowledge nor to be used as a comprehensive list of exam content.

Learning Resources
The best preparation is experience and time with the product. To be successful, we strongly encourage you to complete the Tableau Desktop Specialist Exam Readiness blended learning course or Desktop I:

Fundamentals classroom course.
We also recommend exploring these additional resources:
• Free How-To Training Videos
• Tableau Product Support
• Tableau Product Help
• Visual Analysis Best Practices Guidebook

Exam Format
• Time Limit: 60 minutes (includes 3 minutes for reviewing the NDA).
• Exam Check-in: Check-in begins 30 minutes before the scheduled exam time.
• Question Format: Multiple choice, Multiple response
• Number of Questions: 45 (40 scored, 5 unscored)
• Scoring: Candidate’s score will be presented after the exam in the ‘View Score Reports’ tab of their Pearson VUE account.
• Passing Score: The passing scaled score for the Desktop Specialist exam is 750.
• Language(s) Offered: English; translated exams to follow.
• Exam Delivery Provider: Pearson VUE
• Exam Delivery Method: Testing center and online delivery are both available. Learn more about the check-in process and testing experience for each method here.
System Preparation for an Online-Proctored Exam

For a successful exam experience, ensure your computer, network, and the physical environment are properly configured. This includes performing a system test before the exam. Review the Technical
Requirements for complete details. For questions, email certification@tableau.com or visit tableau.com/certification.

Scaled Scoring
Scaled scores are a mathematical conversion of the number of items that a candidate answers correctly so that there is a consistent scale used across all forms of the exam. A relevant example is the process of converting pounds to kilograms. The weight of the object has not changed, only the units being reported.

Tableau certification exam results are reported as a score from 100 to 1000. The score shows how the candidate performed on the examination as a whole and the pass or fail designation. Scaled scoring models are used to equate scores across multiple exam forms that may have slightly different difficulty levels.

Score reports are sent when a candidate fails the exam. This report contains a table of categories of performance at each section level. This information is designed to provide general feedback concerning examination performance. The examination uses a compensatory scoring model, which means candidates do not need to “pass” the individual sections, only the overall examination. Each section of the examination has a specific weighting, some sections have more questions than others. The scoring table contains general information, highlighting strengths and weaknesses. Section level feedback should be interpreted with candidate caution and paired with other available forms of remediation before retaking the exam.

Unscored Content
This examination includes unscored items. These items are placed on the exam to gather statistical information to verify their validity for future use. These items are not identified on the exam and do not affect the scoring of the exam.

Additional Exam Details
Access to Materials, Applications, or Internet Exam items are written at a recall or understand/apply level. The exam is administered without access to the Tableau Platform, the internet, or any other outside application.

Comments
Candidates are encouraged to comment on items in the exam. Feedback from all comments is considered when item performance is reviewed prior to the release of new versions of exam content.

Timeliness
Completing a task effectively and efficiently has become a standard that organizations expect from employees. This exam is timed as a critical competency of successful candidates.

Content Outline
As a reference, this exam guide includes test domains, coverage percentages and objectives only. The table below lists the main content domains and their weightings.

Domain Title % of Exam Content
Domain 1: Connecting to & Preparing Data 25%
Domain 2: Exploring & Analyzing Data 35%
Domain 3: Sharing Insights 25%
Domain 4: Understanding Tableau Concepts 15%
TOTAL 100%

Domain Objectives
PLEASE NOTE: This is not a comprehensive listing of the content on this examination.

Domain 1: Connecting to & Preparing Data
1.1 Create live connections and extracts
1.1.1 Create a live connection to a data source
1.1.2 Explain the differences between using live connections versus extracts
1.1.3 Create an extract
1.1.4 Save metadata properties in a .TDS
1.1.5 Create a data source that uses multiple connections
1.2 Create and manage the data model
1.2.1 Add relationships to a data source
1.2.2 Add joins and unions
1.2.3 Explain when to use a join versus a relationship
1.3 Manage data properties
1.3.1 Rename a data field
1.3.2 Assign an alias to a data value
1.3.3 Assign a geographic role to a data field
1.3.4 Change data type for a data field (number, date, string, Boolean, etc.)
1.3.5 Change default properties for a data field (number format, aggregation, color, date format, etc.)

Domain 3: Sharing Insights
3.1 Format view for presentation
3.1.1 Use color from the marks card
3.1.2 Configure fonts
3.1.3 Format marks as shapes
3.1.4 Configure viz animations
3.1.5 Change size of marks
3.1.6 Show and hide legends
3.2 Create and modify a dashboard
3.2.1 Add worksheets to a dashboard
3.2.2 Add interactive elements for consumers (e.g. show filters, data highlighter, tooltips)
3.2.3 Add dashboard actions (e.g. filter action, highlight action, parameter control, URL action)
3.2.4 Configure a dashboard layout and create device-specific dashboards
3.2.5 Create a story and a story point
3.3 View and share workbook data
3.3.1 Share a workbook (e.g. twbx as a PDF or an image, publish to Tableau Server)
3.3.2 View and export underlying data
3.3.3 Export to Microsoft PowerPoint

Domain 2: Exploring & Analyzing Data
2.1 Create basic charts
2.1.1 Create a bar chart
2.1.2 Create a line chart
2.1.3 Create a scatterplot
2.1.4 Create a map using geographic data
2.1.5 Create a combined axis chart
2.1.6 Create a dual axis chart
2.1.7 Create a stacked bar
2.1.8 Create a density map
2.1.9 Create a chart to show specific values (crosstab, highlight table)
2.2 Organize data and apply filters
2.2.1 Create groups by using marks, headers, and the data pane
2.2.2 Create sets by using marks and the data pane
2.2.3 Organize dimensions into a hierarchy
2.2.4 Add a filter to a view
2.2.5 Add a date filter
2.3 Apply analytics to a worksheet
2.3.1 Add a manual or a computed sort
2.3.2 Add a reference line
2.3.3 Use a quick table calculation
2.3.4 Use bins and histograms
2.3.5 Create a calculated field (e.g. string, date, simple arithmetic)
2.3.6 Explain when to use a parameter
2.3.7 Display totals on a worksheet

Domain 4: Understanding Tableau Concepts
4.1 Understand dimensions and measures
4.1.1 Explain what kind of information dimensions usually contain
4.1.2 Explain what kind of information measures usually contain
4.1.3 Explain the difference between dimensions and measures

Tableau Desktop Specialist 9
4.2 Understand discrete and continuous fields
4.2.1 Explain how discrete fields are displayed
4.2.2 Explain how continuous fields are displayed
4.2.3 Explain the difference between discrete date parts and continuous date values
4.3 Understand aggregations
4.3.1 Explain the default aggregation for measures
4.3.2 Describe how an aggregated measure changes when dimensions are added to a view

Practice Exam Questions
The questions below are provided to give candidates an awareness of the type of questions, structure, and
wording to expect on the exam and should not be used to assess knowledge or preparedness. They are not
a learning resource for the Desktop product, nor do they provide the experience needed to successfully pass the exam.
You are encouraged to work through your own solutions first before looking at the solutions provided.

QUESTION 1
What are two methods for renaming a field in a visualization? (Choose two.)

A. From the Data pane, use the field’s drop-down menu and select Rename.
B. From the Data pane, right-click the field and select Replace References.
C. From the Data pane, click and hold on the field until the name is editable.
D. From the Format menu, select Field Labels.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Which statement accurately describes aliases?

A. You can assign an alias to a field member before creating a visualization.
B. When you assign an alias, the name changes in the database.
C. You can create an alias for a discrete measure.
D. You can create an alias for a continuous dimension.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to invert the color intensity of a quantitative range.
Which option should you use?

A. Border
B. Reversed
C. Opacity
D. Stepped Color

Answer: B

Examkingdom Tableau TDS-C01 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Tableau TDS-C01 PDF

Best Tableau TDS-C01 Certification, Tableau TDS-C01 Training at certkingdom.com

Microsoft 365, Microsoft Azure

AZ-305 Designing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions (beta) Exam

December 14, 2021 Lindsay

Candidates for this exam should have advanced experience and knowledge of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data platforms, and governance. A professional in this role should manage how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. In addition, they should have experience in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps processes.

The Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert certification will be earned by completing the following requirements:

Earn the Microsoft Certified: Azure Administrator Associate certification and pass Exam AZ-305
or
Pass Exam AZ-303 (before it retires on March 31, 2022) and Exam AZ-305

NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here. Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance of beta exams.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert

Related exams: none
Important: See details

Skills measured

Design identity, governance, and monitoring solutions (25-30%)
Design data storage solutions (25-30%)
Design business continuity solutions (10-15%)
Design infrastructure solutions (25-30%)

NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here.

Audience Profile
Candidates for the Azure Solutions Architect Expert certification should have subject matter expertise in designing cloud and hybrid solutions that run on Microsoft Azure, including compute, network, storage, monitoring, and security.
Responsibilities for this role include advising stakeholders and translating business requirements into designs for secure, scalable, and reliable Azure solutions.

An Azure Solutions Architect partners with developers, administrators, and other roles responsible for implementing solutions on Azure.

A candidate for this certification should have advanced experience and knowledge of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data platforms, and governance. A professional in this role should manage how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. In addition, they should have experience in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps processes.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Design Identity, Governance, and Monitoring Solutions (25-30%)
Design a solution for logging and monitoring
 design a log routing solution
 recommend an appropriate level of logging
 recommend monitoring tools for a solution

Design authentication and authorization solutions
 recommend a solution for securing resources with role-based access control
 recommend an identity management solution
 recommend a solution for securing identities

Design governance
 recommend an organizational and hierarchical structure for Azure resources
 recommend a solution for enforcing and auditing compliance

Design identities and access for applications
 recommend solutions to allow applications to access Azure resources
 recommend a solution that securely stores passwords and secrets
 recommend a solution for integrating applications into Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
 recommend a user consent solution for applications

Design Data Storage Solutions (25-30%)
Design a data storage solution for relational data
 recommend database service tier sizing
 recommend a solution for database scalability
 recommend a solution for encrypting data at rest, data in transmission, and data in use

Design data integration
 recommend a solution for data integration
 recommend a solution for data analysis

Recommend a data storage solution
 recommend a solution for storing relational data
 recommend a solution for storing semi-structured data
 recommend a solution for storing non-relational data

Design a data storage solution for non-relational data
 recommend access control solutions to data storage
 recommend a data storage solution to balance features, performance, and cost
 design a data solution for protection and durability

Design Business Continuity Solutions (10-15%)
Design a solution for backup and disaster recovery
 recommend a recovery solution for Azure, hybrid, and on-premises workloads that meets recovery objectives (Recovery Time Objective [RTO], Recovery Level Objective [RLO],

Recovery Point Objective [RPO])
 understand the recovery solutions for containers
 recommend a backup and recovery solution for compute
 recommend a backup and recovery solution for databases
 recommend a backup and recovery solution for unstructured data

Design for high availability
 identify the availability requirements of Azure resources
 recommend a high availability solution for compute
 recommend a high availability solution for non-relational data storage
 recommend a high availability solution for relational data storage

Design Infrastructure Solutions (25-30%)
Design a compute solution
 recommend a virtual machine-based compute solution
 recommend an appropriately sized compute solution based on workload requirements
 recommend a container-based compute solution
 recommend a serverless-based compute solution

Design an application architecture
 recommend a caching solution for applications
 recommend a messaging architecture
 recommend an event-driven architecture
 recommend an automated deployment solution for your applications
 recommend an application configuration management solution
 recommend a solution for API integration

Design migrations
 evaluate a migration solution that leverages the Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure
 assess and interpret on-premises servers, data, and applications for migration
 recommend a solution for migrating applications and virtual machines
 recommend a solution for migrating databases
 recommend a solution for migrating unstructured data

Design network solutions
 recommend a network architecture solution based on workload requirements
 recommend a connectivity solution that connects Azure resources to the internet
 recommend a connectivity solution that connects Azure resources to on-premises networks
 optimize network performance for applications
 recommend a solution to optimize network security
 recommend a load balancing and routing solution

QUESTION 1
After you migrate App1 to Azure, you need to enforce the data modification requirements to meet the security and compliance requirements.
What should you do?

A. Create an access policy for the blob service.
B. Implement Azure resource locks.
C. Create Azure RBAC assignments.
D. Modify the access level of the blob service.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirements.
What should you recommend?

A. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
B. Configure Azure Site Recovery.
C. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.
D. Configure geo-replication of the database.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains a custom application named Application1. Application1 was
developed by an external company named Fabrikam, Ltd. Developers at Fabrikam were assigned role-based
access control (RBAC) permissions to the Application1 components. All users are licensed for the Microsoft 365 E5 plan.
You need to recommend a solution to verify whether the Fabrikam developers still require permissions to
Application1. The solution must meet the following requirements:
To the manager of the developers, send a monthly email message that lists the access permissions to Application1.
If the manager does not verify an access permission, automatically revoke that permission.
Minimize development effort.
What should you recommend?

A. In Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), create an access review of Application1.
B. Create an Azure Automation runbook that runs the Get-AzRoleAssignment cmdlet.
C. In Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Privileged Identity Management, create a custom role assignment for the Application1 resources.
D. Create an Azure Automation runbook that runs the Get-AzureADUserAppRoleAssignment cmdlet.

Answer: A

Examkingdom Microsoft AZ-305 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Microsoft AZ-305 PDF

Best Microsoft AZ-305 Certification, Microsoft AZ-305 Training at certkingdom.com

Tech

NSE5_FAZ-6.4 Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4 Exam

December 13, 2021 Lindsay

Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4
Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.4
Number of questions: 30
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiAnalyzer 6.4
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 5 Certification
The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security devices. We recommend this course for network and security analysts who require the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4
The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 5 Network Security Analyst program, and recognizes the successful candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiAnalyzer.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiAnalyzer configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operational scenarios, system configuration, device registration, and troubleshooting.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4 exam is intended for network and security analysts who are responsible for the configuration and administration of FortiAnalyzer solutions for centralized logging and reporting.

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4
Exam series NSE5_FAZ-6.4
Time allowed 60 minutes
Exam questions 30 multiple-choice questions
Scoring Pass or fail, a score report is available from your Pearson VUE account
Language English and Japanese
Product version FortiOS 6.4.1
FortiAnalyzer 6.4.1

Exam Topics
Successfu* candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

* System configuration
* Perform initia* configuration
* Configure administrative access
* Configure high availability (HA)
* Configure administrative domains (ADOMs)
* Troubleshoot RAID
* Device registration and communication
* Register devices in ADOMs
* Troubleshoot device communication issues
* Manage registered devices
* Logs and reports
* Protect log data
* Troubleshoot and manage logs
* Configure event handlers
* Customize and generate reports
* Troubleshoot reports

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 5 FortiAnalyzer 6.4

Other Resources
* FortiAnalyzer Administration Guide 6.4.1
* FortiAnalyzer New Features Guide 6.4.0
* FortiAnalyzer Best Practices 6.4.0
* FortiAnalyzer CLI Reference 6.4.1

Experience
* Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiAnalyzer

Exam Sample Questions
QUESTION 1
Which clause is considered mandatory in SELECT statements used by the FortiAnalyzer to generate reports?

A. FROM
B. ORDER BY
C. LIMIT
D. WHERE

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
If a hard disk on FortiAnalyzer that supports hardware RAID fails, what can be done on FortiAnalyzer?

A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and replace the disk.
B. Run execute format disk to format and restart the FortiAnalyzer device.
C. No need to do anything because the disk will self-recover.
D. Hot swap the disk

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two methods are the most common methods to control and restrict administrative access on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. Virtual domains
B. Administrative access profiles
C. Trusted hosts
D. Security Fabric

Answer: B,C

Examkingdom Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.4 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.4 PDF

Best Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.4 Certification, Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.4 Training at certkingdom.com

comptia a+ certification

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 vs. PT0-002: What’s the Difference?

December 11, 2021 Lindsay

IT certifications show employers that candidates have the knowledge and skills they need to do the job, and they help IT pros advance in their careers. As cybersecurity has become a critical function, cybersecurity certifications are among the most popular IT certifications globally.

The CompTIA PenTest+ certification is a vendor-neutral, internationally targeted validation of intermediate-level penetration testing (or pen testing) knowledge and skills. It focuses on the latest pen testing techniques, attack surfaces, vulnerability management, post-delivery and compliance tasks.

The skills covered by CompTIA PenTest+ help companies comply with regulations, such as PCI-DSS and NIST 800-53 Risk Management Framework (RMF), which require pen tests, vulnerability assessments and reports. CompTIA PenTest+ is approved under the Department of Defense (DoD) Directive 8140/8570.01-M and under ANSI/ISO standard 17024.

IT Jobs Related to CompTIA PenTest+
The next version of CompTIA PenTest+ (PT0-002) is slated to launch in October 2021. CompTIA updates its certifications every three years to keep up with evolving technology, so your skills are relevant and you stay up to date on the latest technologies.

When CompTIA updates exams, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) from the industry participate in workshops to write and review the content, ensuring that the exam domains, objectives and questions validate the skills needed on the job today.

Cybersecurity experts from the following companies contributed to the update of CompTIA PenTest+:
RxSense
John Hopkins University Applied Physics Laboratory
U.S. Army
Target Corp.
General Dynamics IT (GDIT)
Ricoh

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 vs PT0-002
CompTIA PenTest+ addresses the latest trends, techniques and attack surfaces – covering the core and intermediate skills in penetration testing and vulnerability management, ensuring high performance on the job. Let’s break down some of the highlights.

CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Domains
The exam domains covered in CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 and PT0-002 are not vastly different, as they are still relevant to the job roles, but you will see some slight changes.

We changed the name of exam domain 2.0 from Information Gathering and Vulnerability Identification to Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning.
We also swapped the order of two domains – what was formerly 5.0 Reporting and Communication is now 4.0, (with the same name), and what was formerly 4.0 Penetration Testing Tools is now 5.0 Tools and Code Analysis.

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-002 Exam Domains
1. Planning and Scoping (14%)
2. Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning (22%)
3. Attacks and Exploits (30%)
4. Reporting and Communication (18%)
5. Tools and Code Analysis (16%)

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 Equivalency Exam Domain

How It Applies to the Job

1.0 Planning and Scoping
Includes updated techniques emphasizing governance, risk and compliance concepts, scoping and organizational/customer requirements and demonstrating an ethical hacking mindset
Pen testers can be held criminally liable when operating without ethics or proper approvals. Pen testing is required for compliance to regulations such as PCI-DSS and the NIST 800-53 RMF.

2.0 Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning
Includes updated skills on performing vulnerability scanning and passive/active reconnaissance, vulnerability management as well as analyzing the results of the reconnaissance exercise
Automation is required for modern vulnerability management to counteract automated attacks. Organizations must efficiently mitigate vulnerabilities, avoiding unnecessary dangers to operations.

3.0 Attacks and Exploits
Includes updated approaches to expanded attack surfaces; researching social engineering techniques; performing network, wireless, cloud and application-based attacks; and post-exploitation techniques

Updated skills are needed to secure multiple attack surfaces; 87% of CompTIA-certified IT pros already work in expansive hybrid environments (both on-premises and in the cloud), and 93% work in multi-cloud environments.

4.0 Reporting and Communication
Expanded to focus on the importance of reporting and communication in an increased regulatory environment during the pen testing process through analysis and appropriate remediation recommendations
Communication is critical for the penetration testing lifecycle because collaboration is essential for identifying and managing vulnerabilities. Reporting is especially important for complying with regulations.

5.0 Tools and Code Analysis
Includes updated concepts of identifying scripts in software deployments, analyzing a script or code sample and explaining use cases of pen test tools (Note: Scripting and coding is not required)
Exposure to different scripts and code samples provides an expanded toolbox to help pen testers progress through their career. Pen testers work with scripting more as they advance in their careers.

How to Train for CompTIA PenTest+
It may seem like CompTIA PenTest+ covers a lot of ground, but don’t worry, we’ve got your back. CompTIA offers training solutions, including study guides, online self-study tools and instructor-led courses that are designed to cover what you need to know for your CompTIA exam. No other content library covers all the exam objectives for all certifications.

CompTIA training solutions help you prepare for your CompTIA certification exam with confidence. Whether you are just starting to prepare and need comprehensive training with CompTIA CertMaster Learn, want to apply your knowledge hands-on with CompTIA Labs or need a final review with CompTIA CertMaster Practice, CompTIA’s online training tools have you covered.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands will allow a penetration tester to permit a shell script to be executed by the file owner?

A. chmod u+x script.sh
B. chmod u+e script.sh
C. chmod o+e script.sh
D. chmod o+x script.sh

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester gains access to a system and establishes persistence, and then run the following commands:
Which of the following actions is the tester MOST likely performing?

A. Redirecting Bash history to /dev/null
B. Making a copy of the user’s Bash history to further enumeration
C. Covering tracks by clearing the Bash history
D. Making decoy files on the system to confuse incident responders

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A compliance-based penetration test is primarily concerned with:

A. obtaining PII from the protected network.
B. bypassing protection on edge devices.
C. determining the efficacy of a specific set of security standards.
D. obtaining specific information from the protected network.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester is explaining the MITRE ATT&CK framework to a company’s chief legal counsel.
Which of the following would the tester MOST likely describe as a benefit of the framework?

A. Understanding the tactics of a security intrusion can help disrupt them.
B. Scripts that are part of the framework can be imported directly into SIEM tools.
C. The methodology can be used to estimate the cost of an incident better.
D. The framework is static and ensures stability of a security program over time.

Answer: A

Examkingdom CompTIA PT0-002 Exam pdf, Certkingdom CompTIA PT0-002 PDF

Best CompTIA PT0-002 Certification, CompTIA PT0-002 Training at certkingdom.com

About – Free Online MCITP Training

Monthly Archives: December 2021

NSE4_FGT-7.0 Fortinet NSE 4 – FortiOS 7.0 Exam

Amazon AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam SAA-C02

300-610 Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-610 DCID) Exam

H13-341 Huawei Certified internetwork Expert – Transmission Exam

1V0-31.21 Associate VMware Cloud Management Automation Exam

5V0-22.21 VMware vSAN 6.7 Specialist Exam

TDS-C01 Tableau Desktop Specialist Exam

AZ-305 Designing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions (beta) Exam

NSE5_FAZ-6.4 Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4 Exam

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 vs. PT0-002: What’s the Difference?

Best Online MCITP Training and Learning blog