1z0-1084-21 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Developer 2021 Associate Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: Validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1084-21
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Developer 2021 Associate exam is intended for developers and those in Dev Ops who have 12 months or more experience of developing and maintaining OCI applications. They should have a solid understanding of cloud native fundamentals and in-depth knowledge of at least one programming language. They should demonstrate knowledge of developing, securing, testing and operating applications in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and ability to use the OCI service APIs, CLI, and SDKs to write applications. Hands on knowledge of OCI architecture, use cases, best practices are recommended.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription
In the subscription:
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Cloud Native Fundamentals
Explain Distributed Computing
Explain Microservices vs. Containers vs. Functions
Discuss the Meaning of Serverless Computing
Describe Service Communication Patterns

Developing Cloud Native Applications
Develop Serverless Application with Oracle Functions
Develop Microservices and Applications for OKE
Use Data in Cloud Native
Use OCI APIs, SDKs and CLIupgrade

Securing Cloud Native Applications
Overcome Security challenges with Cloud Native
Use the Defense-in-depth approach
Configure and Use Secret Management
Use IAM for authn/authz

Testing Cloud Native Applications
Explain the Challenges of testing in Cloud Native world
Manage multiple environments (dev, test/stage, prod)

Operating Cloud Native Applications
Manage Infrastructure
Build, Deploy and Release Applications
Perform Tasks around Monitoring, Observability, and Alerting

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QUESTION 1
Given a service deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE), which
annotation should you add in the sample manifest file below to specify a 400 Mbps load balancer?
apiVersion: v1
kind: Service
metadata:
name: my-nginx-svc
labels:
app: nginx
annotations:
<Fill in>
spec:
type: LoadBalancer
ports:
– port: 80
selector:
app: nginx

A. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-value: 400Mbps
B. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-size: 400Mbps
C. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-kind: 400Mbps
D. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-shape: 400Mbps

Answer: D
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
You are implementing logging in your services that will be running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container
Engine for Kubernetes.
Which statement describes the appropriate logging approach?

A. All services log to standard output only.
B. All services log to an external logging system.
C. All services log to a shared log file.
D. Each service logs to its own log file.

Answer: A
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 3
You are building a container image and pushing it to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR). You
need to make sure that these images never get deleted from the repository.
Which action should you take?

A. Set global policy of image retention to ?Retain All Images?.
B. In your compartment, write a policy to limit access to the specific repository.
C. Create a group and assign a policy to perform lifecycle operations on images.
D. Edit the tenancy global retention policy.

Answer: A
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 4
You are processing millions of files in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. Each time a
new file is created, you want to send an email to the customer and create an order in a database. The solution
should perform and minimize cost.
Which action should you use to trigger this email?

A. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every second and emails the
customer when a file is found.
B. Use OCI Events service and OCI Notification service to send an email each time a file is created.
C. Schedule a cron job that monitors the OCI Object Storage bucket and emails the customer when a new file
is created.
D. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every minute and emails the
customer when a file is found.

Answer: B
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 5
A service you are deploying to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) uses
a docker image from a private repository in OCI Registry (OCIR).
Which configuration is necessary to provide access to this repository from OKE?

A. Create a dynamic group for nodes in the cluster, and a policy that allows the dynamic group to read
repositories in the same compartment.
B. Create a docker-registry secret for OCIR with API key credentials on the cluster, and specify the
imagePullSecret property in the application deployment manifest.
C. Add a generic secret on the cluster containing your identity credentials. Then specify a
registryCredentials property in the deployment manifest.
D. Create a docker-registry secret for OCIR with identity Auth Token on the cluster, and specify the
imagePullSecret property in the application deployment manifest.

Answer: D

DA0-001 CompTIA Data+ Exam

Exam Details
Exam Codes DA0-001
Launch Date
February 28, 2022
Exam Description The CompTIA Data+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to transform business requirements in support of data-driven decisions through mining and manipulating data, applying basic statistical methods, and analyzing complex datasets while adhering to governance and quality standards throughout the entire data life cycle.
Number of Questions 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 675 (on scale of 100–900)

Recommended Experience CompTIA recommends 18–24 months of experience in a report/business analyst job role, exposure to databases and analytical tools, a basic understanding of statistics, and data visualization experience

Languages English
Retirement : Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE

CompTIA Data+ is an early-career data analytics certification for professionals tasked with developing and promoting data-driven business decision-making.

Differentiate yourself with Data+
Better Analyze and Interpret Data
Mine data more effectively. Analyze with rigor. Avoid confounding results.

Communicate Insights
Highlight what’s important. Produce reports that persuade, not confuse. Help the team make better data-driven decisions.

Demonstrate Competency
Make yourself a more valuable team member. Proof of data literacy means you’re more employable and more upwardly mobile.
What you’ll learn with Data+

CompTIA Data+ is now available!
CompTIA Data+ gives you the confidence to bring data analysis to life.

As the importance for data analytics grows, more job roles are required to set context and better communicate vital business intelligence. Collecting, analyzing, and reporting on data can drive priorities and lead business decision-making. CompTIA Data+ validates certified professionals have the skills required to facilitate data-driven business decisions, including:

Mining data
Manipulating data
Visualizing and reporting data
Applying basic statistical methods
Analyzing complex datasets while adhering to governance and quality standards throughout the entire data life cycle


What Skills Will You Learn?

HARDWARE
Data Concepts and Environments

Boost your knowledge in identifying basic concepts of data schemas and dimensions while understanding the difference between common data structures and file formats

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
Data Mining

Grow your skills to explain data acquisition concepts, reasons for cleansing and profiling datasets, executing data manipulation, and understanding techniques for data manipulation

SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Data Analysis

Gain the ability to apply the appropriate descriptive statistical methods and summarize types of analysis and critical analysis techniques

NETWORKING
Visualization

Learn how to translate business requirements to form the appropriate visualization in the form of a report or dashboard with the proper design components

NETWORKING
Data Governance, Quality, & Controls

Increase your ability to summarize important data governance concepts and apply data quality control concepts

Jobs that use CompTIA Data+
Data Analyst

Clinical Analyst
Reporting Analyst

Marketing Analyst
Business Data Analyst

Operations Analyst
Business Intelligence Analyst

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology and Data & Analytics is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving solutions and remain a sought-after analyst expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Data+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs to renew your CompTIA Data+ certification. Collect at least 20 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA Data+ certification will automatically renew.

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed by CompTIA for the CompTIA certification candidate. Self-paced study guides are:

Reviewed extensively to ensure 100% coverage of the CompTIA exam objectives
Clearly written and structured
Flexible, so you can learn at any pace

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options. Two common ones are:

Basic Bundle – study on your own with the confidence of a free exam retake
Exam Prep Bundle – acquire knowledge and practice your new skills, with the confidence of a free exam retake

 

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the clustering technique needs the merging approach?

A. Hierarchical
B. Partitioned
C. Both A and C
D. Naive Bayes

Answer: A
Explanation
C is the correct answer. The hierarchical type of clustering is one of the most commonly used methods to analyze social network data. In this type of clustering method, multiple nodes are compared with each other on the basis of their similarities and several larger groups’ are formed by merging the nodes or groups of nodes that have similar characteristics.


QUESTION 2
Your friend is an analyst for a sporting venue. She wants to distill post-event free-response survey data to inform leadership what respondents have on their minds. What type of visualization should she choose?

A. Dashboard
B. Pie chart
C. Word cloud
D. Bar chart

Answer: C
Explanation
C is the correct answer. Using a word cloud to signify the relative importance and commonality of words is the best approach.


QUESTION 3
Your friend is exploring how an athlete’s weight impacts their time in a 400-meter run. What should she use to determine whether weight has an impact on the time it takes to run 400 meters?

A. Z-test
B. t-test
C. Simple linear regression
D. Chi-square test

Answer: C
Explanation
C is the correct answer. Simple linear regression explores the relationship between two variables, in this case the weight of an athlete and their time in a 400-meter run. Both the Z-test and t-test infer attributes of the population using sample data. A Chi-square test explores the relationship between categorical variables.


QUESTION 4
Your friend is a financial analyst who wants to use Microsoft Excel to perform what-if analysis on data extracted from his corporate accounting system. To make the data extract easy to import, which of the following file formats should he specify?

A. JSON
B. YAML
C. XML
D. CSV

Answer: D
Explanation
A is the correct answer. A comma-separated values file can be imported natively into a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet. While Excel is capable of reading the other listed file formats, the data would not be processed into neatly organized rows and columns.


QUESTION 5
Your colleague wants to understand which product costs the least. What aggregate function can she use in her SQL query to get this answer?

A. AVG
B. MIN
C. MAX
D. COUNT

Answer: B
Explanation
C is the correct answer. COUNT will return the number of rows. MAX will return the largest value, while AVG will return the average of a numeric column. The MIN function returns the smallest value.


QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the hierarchical clustering?

A. The choice of an appropriate metric can influence the shape of the cluster
B. In general, the splits and merges both are determined in a greedy manner
C. The hierarchical type of clustering is also known as the HCA
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Explanation
D is the correct answer. All following statements given in the above question are incorrect, so the correct answer is D. Hierarchical clustering, also known as hierarchical cluster analysis, is an algorithm that groups similar objects into groups called clusters.


QUESTION 7
Your friend want to understand how well his team measures up against corporate sales goals. What type of analysis will give him the perspective he needs?

A. Performance
B. Exploratory data
C. Link
D. Trend
A. Arbitration
B. Acquisition
C. Merger
D. Compliance

Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Performance analysis assesses measurements against defined goals. Trend analysis compares data over time, exploratory data analysis uses descriptive statistics to summarize data and provide context for ongoing analysis, and link analysis explores connection patterns between data points.


QUESTION 8
Which of the following is not a situation that leads to pursuing master data management?

A. Arbitration
B. Acquisition
C. Merger
D. Compliance

Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Acquisitions, mergers, and compliance activities are all situations that can cause an organization to pursue MDM. Arbitration is a process what settles organizational disputes and is not likely to lead to MDM activities.


QUESTION 9
Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data?

A. Unsupervised learning
B. Supervised learning
C. Hybrid learning
D. Reinforcement learning

Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data.


QUESTION 10
What is a hypothesis?

A. A theory that underpins the study
B. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by chance
C. A research question the results will answer
D. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study

Answer: D
Explanation
A is the correct answer. A hypothesis is a proposition that a researcher wishes to evaluate using data from a study. A hypothesis is a conclusion reached after considering evidence. This is the first step in any investigation, where the research questions are translated into a prediction. Variables, population, and the relationship between the variables are all included. A research hypothesis is a hypothesis that is tested to see if two or more variables have a relationship.

NS0-175 Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Exam

Cisco and NetApp FlexPod certification
You are proficient in designing and installing FlexPod® solutions for a variety of business workloads. FlexPod solutions speed the deployment of infrastructure and business-critical applications while reducing cost, complexity, and risk.

NetApp offers two Cisco® and NetApp® FlexPod certifications: FlexPod Design Specialist and FlexPod Implementation and Administration Specialist.

FlexPod logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass either of the following:

Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design (NS0-175) certification exam.
Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Implementation and Administration (NS0-176) certification exam.

Prepare for your exam
Candidates for FlexPod® certification should have at least six to 12 months of field experience working with the tools and standards for assessing FlexPod computing solution performance characteristics and requirements. They should also understand the hardware components associated with the Cisco® and NetApp® FlexPod solution and the process for selecting proper hardware for a given set of requirements.

NS0-175 Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Specialist

Recommended Training and Resources:
FlexPod Fundamentals
Technical Positioning of FlexPod Solutions
NS0-175 practice test
View exam topics
Register for your exam

Take your exam
NS0-175 exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 90 minutes to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

The NS0-175 exam covers the following topics:

Flexpod Design
Describe FlexPod components based upon customer workloads
Describe how to size a solution based on customer requirements in accordance with FlexPod best practices
Describe the support options for FlexPod

Networking
Describe Cisco networking components used within FlexPod designs
Demonstrate knowledge of FlexPod networking configurations

Security
Describe access control methods for FlexPod solutions
Describe the considerations in building a secure multitenancy design

Tools
Describe resources for determining supported FlexPod components
Demonstrate knowledge of using tools for managing FlexPod
Demonstrate knowledge of troubleshooting methodologies for FlexPod solutions

QUESTION 1
You are sizing a FlexPod Datacenter solution for multitenancy use.
What are two important platform scaling considerations in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. maximum NetApp ONTAP cluster limits
B. maximum NetApp ONTAP storage VM limits
C. maximum Cisco vPC interfaces between Fabric Interconnects
D. maximum Cisco L1, L2 interfaces between Fabric Interconnects

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You are developing a FlexPod solution with a MetroCluster IP as the storage solution.
In this scenario, which two components are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp AFF C190
B. Cisco Nexus 3524-X/XL
C. Cisco Nexus 3232C
D. NetApp AFF A400

Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 3
You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod environment. Other than being
SaaS-delivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management, environment automation, and the ability to
monitor third-party storage that is salted for retirement.
In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?

A. NetApp Cloud Insights
B. NetApp OnCommand Insight
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. Cisco Intersight

Correct Answer: A

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C_ACTIVATE13 SAP Certified Associate – SAP Activate Project Manager Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English, Japanese, Russian, Chinese

Description
The “SAP Certified Associate – SAP Activate Project Manager” certification exam verifies that the candidate has the knowledge required in the area of SAP project management. This certificate builds on basic consultant skills and experience that is then refined by practical experience during several projects. This exam validates whether SAP focused project managers have advanced business skills and the ability to apply methodologies and tools. Aside from advanced communication and presentation skills, this certificate also verifies that the project manager has skills to manage internal and external stakeholders, basic knowledge of change management processes, and communicating these processes to others. This exam validates that project manager can successfully manage the end-to-end transition of the project from Sales to Realization, can develop roadmaps for project execution, and understand testing and quality management. In particular for SAP related projects, the exam verifies that the Project Manager can apply the SAP Activate Methodology.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Agile Project Delivery > 12%
Describe how the project team prepares release and sprint plans, and the structure and key activities in each sprint. Discuss key techniques used in agile projects

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
ACT200 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)

SAP Activate Overview > 12%
Define factors influencing SAP Activate, its purpose and place among other frameworks

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

SAP Activate Elements > 12%
Provide an overview of content, tools and methodology elements of SAP Activate Solution Implementation Framework. Include Fit to Standard

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Workstreams Overview > 12%
Describe concepts, artefact flows, accelerators, tools and roles for each Workstream within SAP Activate Methodology

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Agile Project Planning 8% – 12%

Describe the agile project roles and responsibilities and the preparation of the project including the planning, estimation, user story mapping and construction of backlog

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
ACT200 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)

Transition Path “New Implementation SAP S/4HANA Cloud” 8% – 12%
Describe concepts, landscape overview, and specifics in Workstreams related to implementing SAP S/4HANA Cloud.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Transition Path “System Conversion” < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to “System Conversion” Transition Path.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Transition Path “Selective Data Transition” < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to “Selective Data Transition” Transition Path.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Transition Path “New Implementation SAP S/4HANA On Premise” < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to implementing SAP S/4HANA On Premise.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.

SAP Global Certification FAQ – Overview
SAP Global Certification FAQ – Exam Process
SAP Global Certification FAQ – Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1

In which phase do you run the User Acceptance Test?

A. Deploy
B. Realize
C. Final Preparation
D. Build and Test

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which collaboration features can SAP Jam users access in the SAP Methodologies Jam group? (Choose two.)

A. Ask questions
B. Update Key Deliverable wikis
C. Tweet questions
D. Comment on Key Deliverables

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
What is the primary purpose of the SAP Activate Methodology?

A. To provide the sequence of actions in the project
B. To enable access to the SAP Ecosystem
C. To provide end-to-end Application Lifecycle Management
D. To manage solution documentation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are defining the Testing Strategy for your project. What would you include in a Scope of Integration test?

A. The connectivity between database and application servers
B. The functionality of End-to-End business processes
C. The functionality of Modular Process
D. The network communication

Correct Answer: B

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C1000-130 IBM Certified Administrator – Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Exam

Certification Overview

An IBM Certified Administrator on IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 is an experienced system administrator who has extensive knowledge and experience with IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 in multi-cloud environments. This administrator can perform the intermediate to advanced tasks related to daily management and operation, security, performance, configuration of enhancements (including fix packs and patches), customization and/or problem determination.

Requirements
Exam C1000-130: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Administration
Exam Objectives
Number of questions: 62
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Live

Group: IBM Cloud – Integration and Development
Certification status: Live
PartnerWorld code: C0005101
Replaces PW code: C0005100
Required exam: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Administration
Exam status: Live

Section 1: Planning and Installation
Understand system requirements
Understand cloud-based installation specifics
Install the IBM Cloud Pak for Integration cluster
Install and configure Identity and Access Management (ZEN)
Perform post-installation activities
Uninstall IBM Cloud Pak for Integration

Section 2: Configuration
Deploy and configure an instance of API Connect
Deploy and configure an instance of App Connect
Deploy and configure an instance of DataPower
Deploy and configure an instance of MQ
Deploy and configure a product instance of Aspera
Deploy and configure add-on capabilities

Section 3: Platform Administration
Understand general administration
Understand OpenShift built-in platform administration capabilities
Administer Cloud Pak foundational services
Perform Cloud Pak platform upgrades
Build a CI/CD for Cloud Pak for Integration using OpenShift Pipelines and OpenShift GitOps

Section 4: Product capabilities, licensing and governess
Describe the product capabilities of Cloud Pak for Integration
Understand the licensing mechanisms
Configure license service and license service reporter

Section 3: Product Administration and Troubleshooting
Upgrade CP4I Capabilities, Foundational & Common Services, and OpenShift
Understand product-specific scaling
Use platform tracing feature to diagnose application problems
Understand logging to troubleshoot platform issues
Troubleshoot Cloud Pak for Integration operators
Troubleshoot Cloud Pak for Integration using platform command line capabilities

Exam Resources
All IBM certification tests presume a certain amount of “on-the-job” experience which is not present in any classroom or Web presentation. The recommended courses and links will help you gain the skill and product knowledge represented in the test objectives. They do not teach the answers to the test questions and are not intended to do so. This information may not cover all subject areas in the certification test or may contain more recent information than is present in the certification test. Taking these or any classes will not guarantee that you will achieve certification.
 

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Exam MS-203 Microsoft 365 Messaging Exam

Important
The content of this exam was updated on November 30, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here.
Candidates for this exam are messaging administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, compliance, threat protection, and mail flow in hybrid and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging administrators are responsible for managing message hygiene, permissions, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, transport, mailboxes, and client access.

Messaging administrators collaborate with other workload administrators and the Microsoft 365 enterprise administrator to implement a secure hybrid or cloud-only messaging topology that meets the business needs of an enterprise.

The messaging administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Messaging Administrator Associate
Related exams: none
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
Schedule exam
Exam MS-203: Microsoft 365 Messaging
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: manage organizational settings and resources; plan and manage the mail transport architecture; plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration; and secure the messaging environment.


Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on November 30, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.

Manage organizational settings and resources (30-35%)
Plan and manage the mail transport architecture (20-25%)
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (15-20%)
Secure the messaging environment (25-30%)

Exam MS-203: Microsoft 365 Messaging – Skills

Measured
This exam was updated on November 30, 2021. Following the current exam guide, we
have included a version of the exam guide with Track Changes set to “On,” showing the
changes that were made to the exam on that date.

NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, compliance, threat protection, and mail flow in hybrid and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing message hygiene, permissions, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, transport, mailboxes, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with other workload administrators and the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid or cloud-only messaging topology that meets the business needs of an enterprise.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Manage Organizational Settings and Resources (30-35%)

Plan and manage organizational settings
 manage a Global Address List (GAL), including hierarchical address books (HAB)
 manage an Offline Address Book (OAB)
 manage address book policies
 manage email address policies
 plan and configure organization relationships and individual sharing
 manage add-ins from Microsoft 365 Admin Center

Plan and manage client access

 plan namespaces
 configure virtual directories and URLs in a hybrid environment
 configure global Outlook on the Web policies
 configure Autodiscover
 troubleshoot client access connectivity problems

Manage recipient resources

 manage archive mailboxes
 manage resource mailboxes
 manage groups including distribution lists, dynamic distribution lists, mail-enabled security groups, and  Microsoft 365 groups
 manage user mailboxes
 manage mailbox permissions, including delegation
 manage shared mailboxes, including converting to a shared mailbox
 manage license for shared resources
 create and manage contacts, including Mail contacts and Mail users
 manage email addresses for Microsoft Teams

Plan and Manage the Mail Transport Architecture (20-25%)

Plan and configure connectors
 plan connectors to route or secure mail flow
 create and configure connectors to route mail
 create and configure connectors to secure mail flow between organizations
 create and configure conditional mail routing
 configure enhanced filtering for connectors

Manage mail flow

 manage mail flow rules
 manage accepted and remote domains
 manage hybrid mail flow

Troubleshoot mail flow
 trace a message
 analyze a message trace
 analyze message headers
 analyze Non-Deliverable Reports (NDRs)
 troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
 troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Support and Recovery Assistant
 troubleshoot by using transport logs and queues in a hybrid environment

Plan and Implement a Hybrid Configuration and Migration (15-20%)

Plan and implement a hybrid environment
 plan a hybrid deployment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard (HCW)manage the Edge server role in a hybrid environment
 configure Organization Configuration Transfer (OCT)
 configure the environment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard
 deploy the Exchange Hybrid Agent
 manage the Exchange certificates lifecycle in a hybrid environment

Plan and implement migration
 evaluate migration methods, including cutover, minimal hybrid (express migration), cutover, cross tenant, staged, PST Imports, IMAP, Google Workspace (formerly G-Suite), batch migration by using the Exchange admin center
 configure migration endpoints in Microsoft 365
 manage mailbox migration batches
 troubleshoot mailbox migration
 plan a public folder migration to Microsoft 365

Secure the Messaging Environment (25-30%)

Manage role-based permissions in Exchange

 plan RBAC roles
 manage role groups
 assign user accounts to admin roles
 manage user roles

Manage message hygiene
 plan for message hygiene
 configure and manage Anti-spam settings
 configure and manage Anti-malware policies
 monitor and review quarantined items
 plan and configure Spam Confidence Levels (SCL)
 configure and manage Safe attachments
 configure and manage Safe links
 configure and manage Anti-phishing
 manage email user submissions
 add and manage DNS records for domains
 validate settings by using Configuration Analyzer

Manage compliance

 configure retention labels and retention policies
 configure data loss prevention (DLP) policies
 configure sensitivity labels and policies
 configure and analyze audit logs
 manage journal rules
 manage content search
 manage core eDiscovery cases (not including Advanced eDiscovery)

The exam guide below shows the changes that were implemented on November 30, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, compliance, threat protection, and mail flow in hybrid and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing message hygiene, permissions, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, transport, mailboxes, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with other workload administrators and the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid or cloud-only messaging topology that meets the business needs of an enterprise.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.

Skills Measured

NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on
Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Manage Organizational Settings and Resources (30-35%)

Plan and manage organizational settings
 manage a Global Address List (GAL), including hierarchical address books (HAB)
 manage an Offline Address Book (OAB)
 manage address book policies
 manage email address policies
 plan and configure organization relationships and individual sharing
 manage add-ins from Microsoft 365 Admin Center

Plan and manage client access

 plan namespaces
 configure virtual directories and URLs in a hybrid environment
 configure global Outlook on the Web policies
 configure Autodiscover
 troubleshoot client access connectivity problems

Manage recipient resources

 manage archive mailboxes
 manage resource mailboxes
 manage groups including distribution lists, dynamic distribution lists, mail-enabled security groups, and Microsoft 365 groups
 manage user mailboxes
 manage mailbox permissions, including delegation
 manage shared mailboxes, including converting to a shared mailbox
 manage license for shared resources
 create and manage contacts, including Mail contacts and Mail users
 manage email addresses for Microsoft Teams

Plan and Manage the Mail Transport Architecture (20-25%)
Plan and configure connectors

 plan connectors to route or secure mail flow
 create and configure connectors to route mail
 create and configure connectors, including to secure mail flow between organizations
 create and configure conditional mail routing
 configure enhanced filtering for connectors

Manage mail flow

 manage transport mail flow rules
 manage accepted and remote domains
 manage hybrid mail flow

Troubleshoot mail flow

 trace a message
 analyze a message trace
 analyze message headers
 analyze Non-Deliverable Reports (NDRs)
 troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
 troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Support and Recovery Assistant
 troubleshoot by using transport logs and queues in a hybrid environment

Plan and Implement a Hybrid Configuration and Migration (15-20%)
Plan and implement a hybrid environment

 plan a hybrid deployment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard (HCW)manage the
Edge server role in a hybrid environment
 configure Organization Configuration Transfer (OCT)
 configure the environment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard
 deploy the Exchange Hybrid Agent
 manage the Exchange certificates lifecycle in a hybrid environment

Plan and implement migration

 evaluate migration methods, including cutover, minimal hybrid (express migration), cutover, cross tenant, staged, PST Imports, IMAP, Google Workspace (formerly G-Suite), batch migration by using the Exchange admin center
 configure migration endpoints in Microsoft 365
 manage mailbox migration batches
 troubleshoot mailbox migration
 plan a public folder migration to Microsoft 365

Secure the Messaging Environment (25-30%)
Manage role-based permissions in Exchange
 plan RBAC roles
 manage role groups
 assign user accounts to admin roles
 manage user roles

Manage message hygiene

 plan for message hygiene
 configure and manage Anti-spam settings
 configure and manage Anti-malware policies
 monitor and review quarantined items
 plan and configure Spam Confidence Levels (SCL)
 configure and manage Safe attachments
 configure and manage Safe links
 configure and manage Anti-phishing
 manage email user submissions
 add and manage DNS records for domains
 validate settings by using Configuration Analyzer

Manage compliance

 configure retention labels and retention policies
 configure data loss prevention (DLP) policies
 configure sensitivity labels and policies
 configure and analyze audit logs
 manage journal rules
 manage content search
 manage core eDiscovery cases (not including Advanced eDiscovery)


QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200 mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a syntax that uses the first letter of each user’s last name, followed by the user’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You convert all the mailboxes to shared mailboxes, and then you run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -EmailAddressPolicyEnabled $false parameter.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Email address policies define the rules that create email addresses for recipients in your Exchange organization.
The basic components of an email address policy are:
Email address templates: Define the email address format for the recipients (for example
<firstname>@contoso.com or <lastname>.<firstname>@contoso.com).
Recipient filter: Specifies the recipients whose email addresses are configured by the policy.
Priority: Specifies the order to apply the email address policies (important if a recipient is identified by more
than one policy).
The EmailAddressPolicyEnabled parameter specifies whether to apply email address policies to this recipient.

Valid values are:
$true: Email address policies are applied to this recipient. This is the default value.
$false: Email address policies aren’t applied to this recipient.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/emailaddresspolicies?
view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200 mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a syntax that uses the first
letter of each user’s last name, followed by the user’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You create an email address policy that uses the %1s%g@fabrikam.com email address format.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/emailaddresspolicies?
view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200 mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a syntax that uses the first
letter of each user’s last name, followed by the user’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You convert all the mailboxes to shared mailboxes, and then you run the
Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -EmailAddressPolicyEnabled $true parameter.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Email address policies define the rules that create email addresses for recipients in your Exchange organization.
The basic components of an email address policy are:
Email address templates: Define the email address format for the recipients (for example
<firstname>@contoso.com or <lastname>.<firstname>@contoso.com).
Recipient filter: Specifies the recipients whose email addresses are configured by the policy.
Priority: Specifies the order to apply the email address policies (important if a recipient is identified by more than one policy).
The EmailAddressPolicyEnabled parameter specifies whether to apply email address policies to this recipient.
Valid values are:
$true: Email address policies are applied to this recipient. This is the default value.
$false: Email address policies aren’t applied to this recipient.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/emailaddresspolicies?
view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several users report today that they cannot access email from their mobile device. They successfully
accessed their email from the same device yesterday.
You need to identify which mobile device access rule applies to the devices.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Get-ActiveSyncDeviceClass
B. Get-ActiveSyncOrganizationSettings
C. Get-MobileDevice
D. Get-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Get-MobileDevice cmdlet returns identification, configuration, and status information for each mobile device.
Note: The Get-MobileDeviceStatistics cmdlet can also be used.

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant.
All users are assigned only an Office 365 Enterprise E3 license.
You need to ensure that the users can use only Microsoft Outlook to connect to their Microsoft 365 mailbox
when they connect from an Android device.
What should you create?

A. a conditional access policy in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
B. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
C. an app protection policy Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D. a connection filter policy in Exchange Online Protection (EOP)

Answer: D

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OG0-093 TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2 Exam

To achieve the professional designation of The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2 from the Open Group, candidates must clear the OG0-093 Exam with the minimum cut-off score. For those who wish to pass the Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined certification exam with good percentage, please take a look at the following reference document detailing what should be included in Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 1 and Part 2 Combined Exam preparation.

The Open Group OG0-093 Exam Summary, Body of Knowledge (BOK), Sample Question Bank and Practice Exam provide the basis for the real The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined – Level 1 and Level 2 exam. We have designed these resources to help you get ready to take The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2 (OG0-093) exam. If you have made the decision to become a certified professional, we suggest you take authorized training and prepare with our online premium Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Practice Exam to achieve the best result.

Open Group OG0-093 Exam Summary:
Exam Name The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2
Exam Code OG0-093
Exam Fee USD $550
Exam Duration 150 Minutes
Number of Questions 48
Passing Score 55-60
Format Multiple Choice Questions
Books / Trainings TOGAF 9 Foundation Study Guide, 4th Edition
TOGAF 9 Certified Study Guide, 4th Edition
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 1 Exam Sample Questions and Answers
Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 2 Exam Sample Questions and Answers
Practice Exam The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined – Level 1 and Level 2 Practice Test

Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Syllabus Topics:

Part: 1
The Value of this Certification

Individuals certified at this level will have demonstrated their understanding of – The basic concepts of Enterprise Architecture and the TOGAF standard
– The core concepts of the TOGAF 9 standard
– The key terminology of the TOGAF 9 standard
– The ADM cycle and the objectives of each phase, and how to adapt and scope the ADM
– The concept of the Enterprise Continuum; its purpose and constituent parts
– How each of the ADM phases contributes to the success of Enterprise Architecture
– The ADM guidelines and techniques
– How Architecture Governance contributes to the Architecture Development Cycle
– The concepts of views and viewpoints and their role in communicating with stakeholders
– The concept of building blocks
– The key deliverables of the ADM cycle
– The TOGAF reference models
– The TOGAF certification program

Part: 2 The Value of this Certification
Individuals certified at this level will have demonstrated their understanding of – How to apply the ADM phases in development of an Enterprise Architecture
– How to apply Architecture Governance in development of an Enterprise Architecture
– How to apply the TOGAF Architecture Content Framework
– How to apply the concept of Building Blocks
– How to apply the Stakeholder Management Technique
– How to apply the TOGAF Content Metamodel
– How to apply the TOGAF standard recommended techniques when developing an Enterprise Architecture
– The TOGAF Technical Reference Model and how to customize it to meet an organization’s needs
– The Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
– The content of the key deliverables of the ADM cycle
– How an Enterprise Architecture can be partitioned to meet the specific needs of an organization
– The purpose of the Architecture Repository
– How to apply iteration and different levels of architecture with the ADM
– How to adapt the ADM for security
– The role of architecture maturity models in developing an Enterprise Architecture
– The purpose of the Architecture Skills Framework and how to apply it within an organization

Both Open Group and veterans who’ve earned multiple certifications maintain that the best preparation for a Open Group OG0-093 professional certification exam is practical experience, hands-on training and practice exam. This is the most effective way to gain in-depth understanding of Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 1 and Part 2 Combined concepts. When you understand techniques, it helps you retain Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined knowledge and recall that when needed.


QUESTION 1
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures
addressing Boundaryless Information Flow?

A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model

Answer: C
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?

A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries
B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture
C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based
D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications

Answer: C
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 3
Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository
B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in TOGAF, and the
changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts of
TOGAF
D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF specification
E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an enterprise
function

Answer: E
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 4
Which phase of the ADM ensures that implementation projects conform to the defined architecture?

A. Requirements Management
B. Phase D
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Answer: D

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Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Exam

Certification Enroll now
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Summary

Certification as a Sitecore Developer brings a host of advantages to individuals and teams. The key benefits of the Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam include:

Formal certification
Access to Sitecore support if you belong to an organization with support contractor access
Validating your understanding and application of Sitecore Developer competencies
Establishing your credibility and expertise with your peers
Giving you more career visibility within professional job marketplace

The key benefits of the Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam for organizations building Sitecore solutions include:
Helping you hire Sitecore expertise
Differentiating you in a marketplace of Sitecore solution providers
In-depth knowledge about all aspects of the platform, thus enabling it to its full potential

Description

What’s included?

Your exam enrollment provides the following:
A three-month voucher to register for an exam proctoring appointment through Webassessor
Enrollment in the Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Study Guide on Learning@Sitecore

Prerequisites:
If you have not participated in any Sitecore Developer learning, we highly recommend that you have working knowledge of Sitecore Developer practices or have a history of implementing Sitecore solutions. In order to pass the Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam, you’ll find that knowledge and experience of the Sitecore platform isn’t enough. You will also need to make sure you are proficient in the exam competencies. To successfully pass the exam, we encourage you to prepare by enrolling in any relevant specific course offerings, as well as carefully review the Exam Study Guide.

Exam competencies:

Sitecore Platform Tools – 13%
Sitecore Platform – 16%
Sitecore Items – 30%
Sitecore MVC – 17%
Search and Indexing – 16%
Debugging – 4%
Unit Testing – 4%


Exam questions:
The Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam is made up of scenario-based questions that ask you to describe how you might respond to a hypothetical situation as a Developer who is working with Sitecore. The questions try to pin down your thought processes rather than have you recite learned responses from memory.

Closed or open book:
The Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam is closed book. You can take the exam anywhere in the world from your home or office—24 hours a day, 7 days a week—via Sitecore’s Learning Management System. This exam is confidential and proprietary. It is made available to you, the test taker, solely for the purpose of assessing your proficiency level in the skill areas referenced in the title of this exam. You will not be allowed to refer to notes, study guides, training materials, web searches, Sitecore installations or other software, etc., during the exam.

Information about proctoring through Webassessor
All Sitecore Certification exams are required to be proctored exams given by Webassessor.
You are able to register for an online or in-person proctoring of the exam through Webassessor.
Note that about 55% of KTN testing centers, closed temporarily due to COVID-19, have begun to re-open with reduced capacity or testing schedules in order to comply with local health guidelines.
A list of currently open centers can be found on the test-center-locator page.

You can find a daily, updated list of closed test centers on the Kryterion website

Exam retakes
If you fail to pass the Certification exam, retakes can be purchased for 300 USD through the Learning@Sitecore Catalog or directly from Webassessor.

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1z0-1084-21 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Developer 2021 Associate Exam

Earn associated certifications : Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Developer 2021 Certified Associate
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: Validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1084-21
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Developer 2021 Associate exam is intended for developers and those in Dev Ops who have 12 months or more experience of developing and maintaining OCI applications. They should have a solid understanding of cloud native fundamentals and in-depth knowledge of at least one programming language. They should demonstrate knowledge of developing, securing, testing and operating applications in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and ability to use the OCI service APIs, CLI, and SDKs to write applications. Hands on knowledge of OCI architecture, use cases, best practices are recommended.

Review exam topics

Cloud Native Fundamentals
Explain Distributed Computing
Explain Microservices vs. Containers vs. Functions
Discuss the Meaning of Serverless Computing
Describe Service Communication Patterns

Developing Cloud Native Applications
Develop Serverless Application with Oracle Functions
Develop Microservices and Applications for OKE
Use Data in Cloud Native
Use OCI APIs, SDKs and CLIupgrade

Securing Cloud Native Applications
Overcome Security challenges with Cloud Native
Use the Defense-in-depth approach
Configure and Use Secret Management
Use IAM for authn/authz

Testing Cloud Native Applications
Explain the Challenges of testing in Cloud Native world
Manage multiple environments (dev, test/stage, prod)

Operating Cloud Native Applications
Manage Infrastructure
Build, Deploy and Release Applications
Perform Tasks around Monitoring, Observability, and Alerting

QUESTION 1
Given a service deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE), which
annotation should you add in the sample manifest file below to specify a 400 Mbps load balancer?
apiVersion: v1
kind: Service
metadata:
name: my-nginx-svc
labels:
app: nginx
annotations:
<Fill in>
spec:
type: LoadBalancer
ports:
– port: 80
selector:
app: nginx

A. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-value: 400Mbps
B. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-size: 400Mbps
C. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-kind: 400Mbps
D. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-shape: 400Mbps

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are implementing logging in your services that will be running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes.
Which statement describes the appropriate logging approach?

A. All services log to standard output only.
B. All services log to an external logging system.
C. All services log to a shared log file.
D. Each service logs to its own log file.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are building a container image and pushing it to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR).
You need to make sure that these images never get deleted from the repository.
Which action should you take?

A. Set global policy of image retention to “Retain All Images”.
B. In your compartment, write a policy to limit access to the specific repository.
C. Create a group and assign a policy to perform lifecycle operations on images.
D. Edit the tenancy global retention policy.

Correct Answer: A

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Exam PL-300: Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst Exam

The Power BI data analyst delivers actionable insights by leveraging available data and applying domain expertise. The Power BI data analyst collaborates with key stakeholders across verticals to identify business requirements, cleans and transforms the data, and then designs and builds data models by using Power BI. The Power BI data analyst provides meaningful business value through easy-to-comprehend data visualizations, enables others to perform self-service analytics, and deploys and configures solutions for consumption. Candidates for this exam should be proficient using Power Query and writing expressions by using DAX.

Exam PL-300: Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: prepare the data; model the data; visualize and analyze the data; and deploy and maintain assets.

Skills measured
Prepare the data (15-20%)
Model the data (30-35%)
Visualize and analyze the data (25-30%)
Deploy and maintain assets (20-25%)

NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Prepare the Data (15-20%)
Get data from different data sources
 identify and connect to a data source
 change data source settings
 select a shared dataset or create a local dataset
 select a storage mode
 use Microsoft Dataverse
 change the value in a parameter
 connect to a data flow

Clean, transform, and load the data
 profile the data
 resolve inconsistencies, unexpected or null values, and data quality issues
 identify and create appropriate keys for joins
 evaluate and transform column data types
 shape and transform tables
 combine queries
 apply user-friendly naming conventions to columns and queries
 configure data loading
 resolve data import errors

Model the Data (30—35%)
Design a data model

 define the tables
 configure table and column properties
 design and implement role-playing dimensions
 define a relationship’s cardinality and cross-filter direction
 design a data model that uses a star schema
 create a common date table

Develop a data model

 create calculated tables
 create hierarchies
 create calculated columns
 implement row-level security roles
 use the Q&A feature

Create model calculations by using DAX
 create basic measures by using DAX
 use CALCULATE to manipulate filters
 implement Time Intelligence using DAX
 replace implicit measures with explicit measures
 use basic statistical functions
 create semi-additive measures
 use quick measures

Optimize model performance
 remove unnecessary rows and columns
 identify poorly performing measures, relationships, and visuals
 reduce cardinality levels to improve performance

Visualize and Analyze the Data (25—30%)
Create reports

 add visualization items to reports
 choose an appropriate visualization type
 format and configure visualizations
 use a custom visual
 apply and customize a theme
 configure conditional formatting
 apply slicing and filtering
 configure the report page
 use the Analyze in Excel feature
 choose when to use a paginated report

Create dashboards
 manage tiles on a dashboard
 configure mobile view
 use the Q&A feature
 add a Quick Insights result to a dashboard
 apply a dashboard theme
 pin a live report page to a dashboard

Enhance reports for usability and storytelling

 configure bookmarks
 create custom tooltips
 edit and configure interactions between visuals
 configure navigation for a report
 apply sorting
 configure Sync Slicers
 group and layer visuals by using the selection pane
 drilldown into data using interactive visuals
 export report data
 design reports for mobile devices

Identify patterns and trends

 use the Analyze feature in Power BI
 identify outliers
 choose between continuous and categorical axes
 use groupings, binnings, and clustering
 use AI visuals
 use the Forecast feature
 create reference lines by using the Analytics pane

Deploy and Maintain Assets (20—25%)
Manage files and datasets

 identify when a gateway is required
 configure a dataset scheduled refresh
 configure row-level security group membership
 provide access to datasets
 manage global options for files

Manage workspaces
 create and configure a workspace
 assign workspace roles
 configure and update a workspace app
 publish, import, or update assets in a workspace
 apply sensitivity labels to workspace content
 configure subscriptions and data alerts
 promote or certify Power BI content

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