Google Associate Android Developer Google Developers Certification – Associate Android Developer (Kotlin and Java Exam)

Earning this certification will be a definitive step on your path to a career as an Android developer.

The Associate Android Developer Exam demonstrates the type of skill that an entry-level Android Developer should have as they begin their career. By passing this performance-based exam and earning the Associate Android Developer Certification, you prove that you’re competent and skilled in tasks that a developer typically performs. The exam is now also offered to be taken in Kotlin, as well as Java!

Android proficiency

The exam is designed to test the skills of an entry-level Android developer. Therefore, to take this exam, you should have this level of proficiency, either through education, self-study, your current job, or a job you have had in the past. Assess your proficiency by reviewing “Exam Content.” If you’d like to take the exam, but feel you need to prepare a bit more, level up your Android knowledge with some great Android training resources.

Language
The exam consists of a coding project and an exit interview. Both of these exam components are available only in English at this time.

Android Studio
You must use the latest version of Android Studio to complete the Associate Android Developer Certification Exam.
Age requirement

If you are under 13, you are not eligible to take the exam or to become certified. If you are between 13-17 years of age, you may test and receive certification with parental consent. If you are participating in a location that requires by law a lower minimum age for entry into such programs, then the minimum age limit for that person will be the stated minimum required age. Individuals 18 years or older are eligible for certification without any age-related restrictions.

ID verification

You must be able to present government-issued photo identification from a non-embargoed country. (See “U.S.-embargoed countries,” below.) For Canada, United States, France, United Kingdom, Ireland, Netherlands, and Switzerland, you may use a driver’s license. For all other countries you must provide a current passport.

You will scan and upload a photo of your ID using your webcam, or you will upload a copy of your ID that you’ve previously scanned in JPG, PNG, or BMP format.

App functionality

Construct apps that use Android’s messaging, multitasking, connectivity and media services to design full-featured apps primarily for mobile devices.

User interface
Quickly create apps with clean, effective user interfaces that take advantage of Android’s rich UI frameworks.

Data management
Leverage Android’s effective frameworks and techniques to perform or schedule data retrieval/storage efficiently in a mobile environment.

Debugging
Understand the debugging tools in Android Studio and create more reliable and robust apps.

Testing
Be able to test the execution of a running program with the intent of finding errors and abnormal or unexpected behavior.
 



QUESTION 1
What is a correct part of an Implicit Intent for sharing data implementation?


A. val sendIntent = Intent(this, UploadService::class.java).apply {
putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT, textMessage)


B.
val sendIntent = Intent().apply {
type = Intent.ACTION_SEND;


C. val sendIntent = Intent(this, UploadService::class.java).apply {
data = Uri.parse(fileUrl)


D. val sendIntent = Intent().apply {
action = Intent.ACTION_SEND


Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Create the text message with a string


val sendIntent = Intent().apply {
action = Intent.ACTION_SEND
putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT, textMessage)
type = “text/plain”
}


QUESTION 2
By default, the notification’s text content is truncated to fit one line. If you want your notification to be longer,
for example, to create a larger text area, you can do it in this way:
 

A. var builder = NotificationCompat.Builder(this, CHANNEL_ID)
.setContentText(“Much longer text that cannot fit one line…”)
.setStyle(NotificationCompat.BigTextStyle()
.bigText(“Much longer text that cannot fit one line…”))



B. var builder = NotificationCompat.Builder(this, CHANNEL_ID)
.setContentText(“Much longer text that cannot fit one line…”)
.setLongText(“Much longer text that cannot fit one line…”))


C. var builder = NotificationCompat.Builder(this, CHANNEL_ID)
.setContentText(“Much longer text that cannot fit one line…”)
.setTheme(android.R.style.Theme_LongText);


Correct Answer: A

What is a correct part of an Implicit Intent for sharing data implementation?

A. Intent sendIntent = new Intent(this, UploadService.class)
sendIntent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT, textMessage);

B. Intent sendIntent = new Intent();
sendIntent.setType(Intent.ACTION_SEND);

C. Intent sendIntent = new Intent(this, UploadService.class)
sendIntent.setData(Uri.parse(fileUrl));

D. Intent sendIntent = new Intent();
sendIntent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_SEND);


Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
“workManager” is an instance of WorkManager. Select correct demonstration of WorkRequest cancellation:
 

A. workManager.enqueue(new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(FooWorker.class).build());

B. WorkRequest request = new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(FooWorker.class).build();
workManager.enqueue(request);
LiveData<WorkInfo> status = workManager.getWorkInfoByIdLiveData(request.getId
());
status.observe(…);

C. WorkRequest request = new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(FooWorker.class).build();
workManager.enqueue(request);
workManager.cancelWorkById(request.getId());

D. WorkRequest request1 = new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(FooWorker.class).build();
WorkRequest request2 = new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(BarWorker.class).build
();
WorkRequest request3 = new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(BazWorker.class).build
();
workManager.beginWith(request1, request2).then(request3).enqueue();

E. WorkRequest request = new OneTimeWorkRequest.Builder(FooWorker.class).build();
workManager.enqueue(request);
workManager.cancelWork(request);
 

Correct Answer: C

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CDCP-001 Certified Data Centre Professional (CDCP) Exam

Exam Code: CDCP-001
GAQM provides an international, vendor-neutral credential (CDCP) with a global standard for measuring competency in the core elements of a data center.

The Certified Data Centre Professional (CDCP)™ exam certification indicates a foundational knowledge of critical physical infrastructure in the Data Center. The Certified Data Centre Professional’s have to demonstrate a base level proficiency in the elements of: cooling, fire safety and protection, racks, cabling, management and physical security. The candidate’s who are appearing for the CDCP exam must have sufficient knowledge in data center design and cabling strategies. The CDCP certification can significantly increase productivity and proficiency because certified professionals have the knowledge to successfully overcome obstacles faced in data center design, build and operations.

E-Course Duration: 10 to 15 Hours

e-Competence Framework (e-CF)

The mapping of this certificate against the e-Competence Framework. To know more on e-Competence Framework (e-CF) visit, ECF

The exam comprises of 40 Multiple Choice Questions out of which the candidate needs to score 65% (26 out of 40 correct) to pass the exam.

Exams are online and proctored based, using a webcam and a reliable internet connection exams can be taken anywhere and anytime.

The total duration of the exam is 1 hour (60 Minutes).

No external sources of information may be accessed during the exam held via ProctorU. Further details of the materials permitted are provided:

Identification Proof
If a Candidate does not pass the exam in the second (2nd) attempt, the candidate must wait for a period of at least fourteen (14) calendar days from the date of their attempt to retake the exam for third (3rd) time or any subsequent time.
The exam can be taken any number of times.

The Certified Data Centre Professional (CDCP)™ Certificate is valid for life.
CDCP™ is a trademark of GAQM.

Note: The Certified Data Centre Professional (CDCP)™ Certification requires a mandatory E-Course completion requirement.

Course Outline
Module 1 – Fundamentals of Availability

Introduction
Measuring Business Value
Five 9’s of Availability
Limitations of 99.999%
Factors affecting Availability
A/C Power Conditions
Cooling Issues
Equipment Failures
Natural and Artificial Disasters
Human Errors
Cost of Downtime
Calculating Cost of Downtime

Module 2 – Examining Fire protection methods in the Data Center

Introduction
National Fire Protection Association
Prevention
System Objectives of Data Center Fire Protection System
Fire Triangle
Classes of Fire
Stages of Combustion
Fire Detection Devices
Smoke Detectors
ISTD
Fire Extinguishers
Methods of Fire Supression
Water Sprinkler System
Water Mist Suppression System

Module 3 – Fundamentals of Cabling strategies for Data Centers

Introduction
Cabling
Overview of Cables
Cabling Installation
Cable Layout Architectures
Cable Management
Managing Cables
Cable Maintenance Practices

Module 4 – Fundamentals of Cooling I

Introduction
Evolution
Data Center Cooling
Physics of Cooling
Heat Transfer Methods
Airflow in IT Spaces
Heat Generation
Gas Law
Evaporation
Compression
Condensation
Expansion
Evaporator


Module 5 – Fundamentals of cooling II : Humidilty in the Data Center

Introduction
Cooling Related Devices
Humidity and Static Electricity
Nature of Humidity
Humidity Control in Data Center
Relative Humidity Control
Dew Point Control
Humidification System
Converted Office Space
OSP’s
Short Cycling

Target Audience
System integrators involved in data centre IT operations activities, serving their own data centre or as owned by their customers
Commercial customer who have to maintain their own data centre
Personnel working in commercial companies who are responsible for data centre IT operations
IT, facilities or Data Centre Operations professional

QUESTION 1
Which one of the following is an Objective of Data Center Fire Protection?

A. Information
B. Representation
C. Depression
D. Suppression

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which Class of Fires involves energized electrical equipment?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class K

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which source is used in fiber cable to transmit data?

A. Signals
B. Electric
C. Light
D. Pulse

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which one of the following is an AC Power Quality Anomaly?

A. Signal Distortion
B. Waveform Distortion
C. Backup Condition
D. Attenuation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which Class of Fire involves combustible metals or combustible metal alloys such as magnesium, sodium andpotassium?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Correct Answer: D

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C2140-823 Rational Quality Manager V3 Exam

QUESTION 1
What are three acceptable parameters for the IBM Rational Quality Manager out-of-the-box report:
Execution Status using TER count? (Choose three.)

A. test plan
B. test milestone
C. defect logged
D. test case
E. build

Answer: A,B,D
 

QUESTION 2
IBM Rational Quality Manager out-of-box reports are grouped under which three themes? (Choose three.)

A. defects
B. test case
C. cost
D. section manager
E. lab manager

Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 3
What are the possible states of a test plan in its state transition model?

A. draft, ready for review, reviewed, closed
B. draft, under review, approved, retired
C. created, under review, reviewed , retired
D. created, ready for review, approved, closed

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
RRDI supports which application server?

A. Tomcat
B. WAS (32-bit)
C. WAS (64-bit)
D. WebLogic

Answer: B

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PMI-PBA PMI Professional in Business Analysis (PMI-PBA) Exam

PMI-PBA PMI Professional in Business Analysis (PMI-PBA) Exam

To earn the PMI-PBA certification, you must meet the experience and education requirements, and pass the PMI-PBA exam, a 200-question, multiple-choice exam.

Regardless of your experience and education, you should still prepare vigorously for the exam. Successful candidates will typically use multiple study aids including courses, self-study and study groups.
Tips to Prepare for the Exam

Review the PMI-PBA Handbook

.
Use the PMI-PBA Examination Content Outline to guide your study.
Review the current PMI-PBA reference list.
Enroll in a formal study course offered by PMI chapters or Registered Education Providers (R.E.P.s). You can also review self-study books published by R.E.P.s and other reputable training organizations.

About the PMI-PBA Certification
Business analysis is a topic of growing importance to projects and programs. The marketplace reflects this importance, as practitioners increasingly embrace business analysis as a technique for uncovering business needs, managing requirements, and creating effective solutions to business problems. The PMI-PBA certification recognizes an individual’s expertise in business analysis, and using these tools and techniques to improve the overall success of projects.
In addition, the PMI-PBA certification carries a high level of professional credibility. It requires a combination of business analysis training, experience working on projects, and examination on business analysis principles, practices, tools, and techniques. This global certification also supports individuals in meeting the needs of organizations that rely on business analysis practitioners to play key roles on their teams.

Business Analysis Role Delineation
PMI conducted a Role Delineation Study (RDS) in the development of the certification in alignment with industry best practices. This study determined the level of importance of each of the tasks, tools and techniques, and knowledge and skills required to use business analysis principles and practices in project management. It is the basis for the creation of the examination. The examination for the PMI-PBA certification is a vital part of the activities that lead to earning this certification. Thus, it is imperative that the examination accurately reflect the business analysis practices, tools and techniques being used by practitioners of business analysis.

The PMI-PBA Role Delineation states that candidates for the PMI-PBA certification:
• Perform their duties under general supervision and are responsible for working with stakeholders to define an organization’s business requirements in order to shape the output of projects and ensure they deliver the expected business benefit. .
• Spearhead the discovery, analysis and overall management of the requirements for a project.
• Demonstrate sufficient knowledge and experience to appropriately apply business analysis tools and techniques to enable project success.

QUESTION 1
A business analyst has been asked to investigate a problem. This investigation will provide input towards
developing a business case. The business analyst wants to first understand the company’s current business processes.
Which technique should the business analyst use?

A. MoSCoW
B. RACI matrix
C. Observation
D. User stories

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The customer and the business analyst are collaborating in the development of a solution scope. It is important for the customer to:

A. spend the time required to provide, clarify, and elaborate requirements.
B. communicate changes to requirements only when they are completely defined.
C. perform an alternatives analysis for requirements implementation.
D. challenge assessments of the cost and feasibility of requirements.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A business analyst is leading a project to implement automated order entry software at a local pizza restaurant.
The business analyst has very little information about the project: the ordering process takes too
long and often ends in incorrect orders.
What step should the business analyst take next?

A. Identify testing resources to support the implementation.
B. Request information on the current ordering process and compare it with other companies.
C. Select the software to implement and start working with the technical resources.
D. Schedule a requirements gathering sessions with the manager of the ordering department.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
After a project was delivered, the business analyst learns of a project objective with no associated requirement. What would have helped determine this issue before delivery?

A. Context diagram
B. Use cases
C. Tracing requirements
D. Process flow

Correct Answer: C

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HP2-Q04 Selling HP Integrity Server Solutions (HP2-Q04)

QUESTION 1
What are typical application deployment savings that customers could expect the Alinean Return on Investment and Total Cost of Ownership templates to report?

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. 99%

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
How does FlexFabric dramatically simplify hierarchical, complex and inflexible networking?

A. by moving network intelligence away from the server edge and closer to the core
B. by moving network intelligence away from the core and closer to the server edge
C. by moving network resources away from the core and closer to the server edge
D. by moving network resources away from the server edge and closer to the core

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How does a Converged Infrastructure directly link business and IT?

A. It matches the supply of IT resources with the demand for business applications in an optimal way.
B. It allows IT to manage resources efficiently, allocating physical and virtual resources on a highly planned basis.
C. It ensures that downtime is reduced, making business more predictable.
D. It allows system deployments to be more rapid, thereby providing significant savings for the business.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What are typical cost reductions that the Alinean Return on Investment and Total Cost of Ownership templates can deliver to customers?

A. a 38% cost reduction
B. a 62% cost reduction
C. a 50% cost reduction
D. an 80% cost reduction

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What should not be addressed until the latter stages of BCS sales discussions?

A. Return on Investment
B. Payback
C. Product Functionality
D. Overall efficiency improvements

Answer: D

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P_ADM_SEC_70 SAP Certified Technology Professional – Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP Logon Tickets.
B. The end users’ Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.

Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?

A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory server. To
simplify the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now
there are plans to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA.
 Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory server. Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory server is to open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP specific PI adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA and the LDAP provider.

Answer: B,C

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1z0-1079-20 Oracle SCM Transportation and Global Trade Management Cloud 2020 Implementation Essentials Exam

Oracle Global Trade and Transportation Management Cloud

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Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle SCM Transportation and Global Trade Management Cloud 2020 Implementation Specialist
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 64%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 20D.
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Review exam topics

Note: Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.

Oracle Transportation Management (OTM) Core Functionality
Explain and configure the Domain (grants, settings, copy)
Explain Master Data objects (Locations, Service Providers, Rates, Equipment and Items)
Explain Order Management objects and process
Explain Virtual Private Database (VPD) concepts
Explain OTM Reporting options
Explain Fleet Management objects and process

OTM User Interface Configuration
Explain the primary components of the User Interface (UI)
Configure Users, User Roles, and Preferences
Configure Manage User Access
Configure Saved Queries and Business Monitors

Freight Payment
Explain the Freight Payment related objects and process
Configure Matching, Approval, and Allocation Rules
Configure a Service Provider and a User for freight payment
Create Invoices from Shipments (Manual and Automated)
Adjust Shipment Costs and Invoice Amounts
Configure the Match Pay and Auto Pay process for a Carrier
Execute the Freight Payment Match Pay and Auto Pay process

Data Management
Explain Data Management capabilities
Explain the OTM Table Structures and Data Management tools (Data Dictionary, Data Model)
Execute a CSV Export and Import File and validate the results
Configure a Migration Project

Agents and Workflow
Explain WorkFlow Agents and Milestones
Configure Automation Agents
Execute Automation Agents

Order Management and Shipment Planning
Explain the Shipment Planning process
Configure Locations, Regions, Calendars, and Contacts
Configure Items, Commodities, and Transport Handling Units
Configure Rates (Rate Offering, Rate Records, Rate Service)
Configure Equipments (Equipment Group, Type, Profiles)
Configure Service Providers
Configure Planning Parameters and execute a Bulk Plan
Explain and Execute a Tender Process and Shipment Events
(New in 20C) Configure Shipment Group
(New in 20C) Configure Single Service Provider Rule

Global Trade Management (GTM)
Configure User Roles and Setup in GTM
Create Trade Item, Party and Resistration in GTM
Configiure Restricted Party Screening in GTM
Configiure and set up download of Product Classification Codes in GTM
Configure Compliance Rules for Sanctioned Territory Screening in GTM
Configure Compliance Rules in GTM
Configure License Agreement on Trade Transactions in GTM
Explain Customs Declaration Process in GTM
Build Reports and Dashboards with Global Trade Intelligence
(New in 20C) Explain Public Item Workbench
(New in 20C) Configure Restricted Party Screening Excluded Words

(New in 20C) Logistics Network Modeling
(New in 20C) Explain Template Import for Lane, Rate Offering & Rate Record
(New in 20C) Configure Sourcing/Proposed Rates in Modeling Scenarios

QUESTION 1
Which two options must be defined for shipment planning? (Choose two.)

A. Equipment Group Profile
B. Equipment Group
C. Equipment Type
D. Equipment Class
E. Equipment

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
Which three options are supported in Oracle Global Trade Management (GTM) when creating a Declaration? (Choose three.)

A. One Trade Transaction to many Declarations
B. One Order Release to one Declaration
C. One Trade Transaction to one Declaration
D. Many Trade Transactions to one Declaration
E. One Order Release to many Declarations

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Which rate component defines how transportation time will be calculated for the Rate?

A. Rate Service
B. Rate Distance
C. Rate Record
D. Rate Lane
E. Rate Offering

Correct Answer: B

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1z0-1073-20 Oracle Inventory Cloud 2020 Implementation Essentials Exam

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Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Inventory Cloud 2020 Certified Implementation Specialist

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.36,887
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 20D
Policy: Cloud Recertification


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Note: Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.

Enterprise Structures, Legal Authorities, and Jurisdiction
Explain the fundamental structures for an enterprise
Configure an Enterprise Structure using the Configuration Workbench
Explain Jurisdictions and Legal Authorities

Legal Entities
Explain legal entities and their role within the system
Design an Enterprise Configuration

Reporting Structures
Explain management reporting structures
Configure a Shared Service Structure within an Enterprise Structure
Model a Business Unit within an Enterprise Structure
Explain how security relates to reporting structures
Explain General Ledger set up
Model a Financial Reporting Structure

Cost Centers, Departments, Facilities, and Reference Data
Explain Cost Centers and Departments
Model an Item Organization setup
Describe Cost Organizations
Explain Reference Data Sets
Explain the sharing methods available for reference data

Inventory Transactions
Create a Subinventory Transfer
Create a Miscellaneous Transaction
Create an Interorganization Transaction
Create a Movement Request
Explain Transfer Types
Perform a PO Receipt
Explain the relationship between Discrete Manufacturing and Inventory Transactions
Perform a Pick Slip confirmation

Advanced Inventory Transactions
Explain how Material Status Control affects transactions
Create Material Statuses
Implement lot and/or serial control
Perform lot and/or serial controlled transaction
Explain Item Availability types
Create Inventory Reservations

Consigned Inventory from a Supplier
Explain the Consignment Process
Create Consumption Advice
Explain Ownership Transfers from Consignment perspective
Perform a return for Consigned material

Back to Back Processing
Apply the Back to Back process flow
Explain Reservations with Back to Back processing
Manage exceptions in the Back to Back process flow

Plan Inventory Replenishment
Run a Min-Max Plan
Explain how Min-Max Reorder Quantities are calculated and rounded
Set up min-max related item and item subinventory‒level attributes
Explain the different types of supply requests generated from min-max planning
Explain PAR Location Management

Inventory Counts
Explain the different types of Inventory Counting Methods
Create a Manual Cycle Count
Explain how cycle counts are generated
Perform a Physical Inventory
Explain how physical inventory adjustments affect the inventory balances

Supply Chain Orchestration Overview
Explain the capabilities of supply chain orchestration
Configure the invocation of external Supply Chain Execution systems
Describe the Supply Lines Work Area and Supply Line Statuses
Configure advanced fulfillment configurations for Back to Back Order Processing
Configure the advanced fulfillment configurations for Contract Manufacturing Processing

Supply Lines and Exceptions
Analyze and manage the material request flow within Supply Chain Orchestration
Analyze and manage the make flow within Supply Chain Orchestration
Analyze and manage the buy flow within Supply Chain Orchestration
Manage supply request exceptions

Data Integration Approaches
Import on-hand balances via the ADF Desktop Integration
Import Transfer Orders via the ADF Desktop Integration

Costing and Inventory Foundations
Explain Common Inventory Configurations
Describe Managerial Accounting Basics
Explain Cost Accounting

Project Specific Inventory
Receive Project-Specific Inventory
Pick Project-Specific Inventory
Transfer Project-Specific Inventory

Integrate with 3PL and Warehouse Management Systems
Receipt and Shipment Process
Inventory Transactions and Inventory Balances

QUESTION 1
Your organization is planning for a periodic counting of individual items throughout the year. As part of this
activity, the user has loaded items to the cycle count but some of the items are not being considered when
count schedules and count sequences are generated.
Which reason explains why the items are not being considered?

A. The Include in Schedule option is not selected to include the item for auto-scheduling.
B. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the item.
C. The approval controls are not set up.
D. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the inventory organization.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company is an automobile spares manufacturing organization, which follows a discrete process.
It has its own manufacturing and distribution centers located globally.
It has these business units:
US – USA business unit
CAN – Canadian business unit
UK – UK business unit
MX – Mexican business unit
IND – India business unit
SPA – Spain business unit
FRA – France business unit
NL – Netherlands business unit
GER – Germany business unit
These are the inventory organizations that exist in each business unit:
Inventory Org – business unit
——————————————–
GM (Master Org) – US
US1 (Child Org) – US
US2 (Child Org) – US
CA1 (Child Org) – CAN
MX1 (Child Org) – MX
IN1 (Child Org) – IND
SP1 (Child Org) – SPA
FR1 (Child Org) – FRA
NL1 (Child Org) – NL
DE1 (Child Org) – GER

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Items defined in the GM organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.
B. You can define an item in the IN1 inventory organization and assign it to the DE1 inventory organization.
C. Item organizations are also supported to serve as inventory organizations.
D. Operational Attributes can be controlled only at the Master Level.
E. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same business unit to assign items.
F. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across business units.

Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 3
Which three statements about the main areas of Managerial Accounting are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Landed Cost Management gives organizations financial visibility into their extended supply chain costs.
B. Supply Chain Orchestration automatically selects the correct process based on user-defined subleadger accounting rules when a supply creation is initiated.
C. Receipt Accounting is the application that performs the accrual accounting for all types of receipts.
D. Cost method can be defined granularity down to individual items.

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
You have set up min-max planning at the subinventory level with the following to source item AS12312 for
Organization: M1:
Source Type: Organization
Organization: M1

What type of supply request will be generated?

A. Purchase Requisition
B. Internal Requisition
C. None; this is an invalid setup
D. Intraorganization transfer order
E. Movement request

Correct Answer: D

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C2040-910 IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration Update Exam

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?

A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is a portal farm?

A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT true regarding WebSpere Portal v7.0 and VMware support?

A. VMware can only be used when WebSphere Portal v7.0 is not clustered.
B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?

A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.

Answer: D

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1z0-1042-20 Oracle Cloud Platform Application Integration 2020 Specialist Exam

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Platform Application Integration 2020 Certified Specialist

Format:
Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.36,887
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 66%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Application Development 2020
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
From learning path: Oracle Cloud Platform Application Integration 2020 Certified Specialist In the subscription: Oracle Application Development Cloud Services Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Note:
Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.

Getting Started with Oracle Cloud Application Integration
Describe the key features & components of Application Integration
Explain Application Integration concepts
Describe Application Integration Architecture
Explain WSDL, XML/SOAP, WS, and REST/JSON functionality

Working with application integration (Oracle Integration Cloud – OIC)
Understand OIC components, features, and capabilities (manage security certificates)
Create and configure connections (Adapter, Trigger, Invoke)
Create Integrations/Orchestrations
Map Data
Create Lookups and Packages
Explain On-Prem connectivity agents (architecture, capabilities and scheduling)
Describe orchestration view options and capabilities
Explore Oracle Integration Cloud best practices
Understand file handling options, features and capabilities
Leverage orchestration action, scopes and fault handling

Working with Service-Oriented Architecture Cloud Service (SOACS)
Describe Concepts of Service orchestration, Adapters, Routing, and Security Policy
Perform Administration and Deployment
Describe the concepts of SOA adapters and Cloud Adapters for SOA Cloud
Perform actions on user interfaces of Oracle SOA Cloud and manage the life cycle of SOA Cloud instances
Build and deploy composite applications to Oracle SOA Cloud
Understand Oracle Managed File Transfer on OCI

Working with API Platform Cloud Service
Manage Users (user management concepts and personas, create users and groups, assign roles to users and groups)
Manage Gateways (install and configure gateway nodes, issue gateway grants, configure OAuth 2.0 Providers)
Manage APIs (implement an API, deploy to a gateway, add documentation, publish to the Developer Portal, issue API grants, apply policies)
Manage Services and Service Accounts
Use the Developer Portal (discover and register to APIs)

Working with Processes in Oracle Integration Cloud
Explain how to develop business processes
Create Human Tasks and Web Forms
Manage Application Data
Create Decisions
Create Business Rules
Integrate with Applications and Services

After The Exam
Within 30 minutes of completing your Oracle Certification exam, you will receive an email from Oracle notifying you that your exam results are available in CertView. If you have previously authenticated your CertView account, simply login and select the option to “See My New Exam Result Now”. If you have not authenticated your CertView account yet at this point, you will need to proceed with your account authentication.

Authentication requires an Oracle Single Sign On username and password and the following information from your Pearson VUE profile: email address and Oracle Testing ID. You will be taken to CertView to log in once your account has been authenticated.

QUESTION 1
You need to create an OIC integration that will be processing many records individually that are contained within a large file. You have been advised to use an implementation approach that includes using the
Download File operation of an FTP adapter in conjunction with the Stage File action Read File in Segments operation to mitigate issues with memory consumption.
When using this approach, which is a valid consideration regarding the use of the Read File in Segments operation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Segment sizes will default to 50 records but can be configured to any other segment size.
B. You will need to explicitly configure a Scope action for this operation if you want to add additional actions during the processing of each segment.
C. The Read File in Segments operation allows for you to process the segments sequentially or in parallel.
D. You must provide the actual filename because file references cannot be processed by the Read File in Segments operation.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What two tasks can a user with the Application Developer role perform? (Choose two.)

A. Create an Application.
B. Subscribe to a Plan
C. Deploy to a Gateway.
D. Create an API.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are assigned to review the specifications of the SOA composite applications that have been deployed to
your SOA Cloud Service instance. Part of this analysis requires you to catalog the Service Component
Architecture (SCA) components that are implemented within each composite application.
Which is a valid SCA component in an Oracle SOA composite application? (Choose the best answer.)

A. BAM Project
B. OSB Split-Join
C. B2B Agreement
D. MFT Flow
E. Business Rules

Correct Answer: AE

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