2V0-62.21 Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Exam

July 31, 2021 Lindsay

Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X

EXAM OVERVIEW
The Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X exam validates an individual can install, configure, manage, maintain and perform basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE and related solutions, as well as properly identify and differentiate any needed supporting products and components.

Exam Info
Duration 130 minutes
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 300 Learn more
Format Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area

Additional Resources
VCP Community
VMware Customer Connect Learning
VMware Press
VMware Certification Market Place

Exam Details:
(Last Updated: 5/21/2021) The Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X exam (2V0-62.21) which leads to VMware Certified Professional – Digital Workspace 2020 certification is a 60-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 130 minutes, which includes five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers. Actual exam time is 125 minutes. Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website. Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.Minimally Qualified Candidate The Minimally Qualified Candidate has a working knowledge of the VMware Workspace ONE platform. The MQC installs, configures, manages, maintains, and performs basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE and related solutions using publicly available documents. The MQC is knowledgeable of software, infrastructure design, and implementation. The MQC is familiar with standard operating systems across devices, productivity applications, and technologies related to Workspace ONE configuration. The MQC has a minimum of 6 months of general IT experience and typically 6 months of VMware experience installing and configuring the Workspace ONE platform. The MQC must have all the knowledge contained in the VCP-Digital Workspace exam blueprint. Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.

Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in this Exam

Section 1 –Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Differentiate and illustrate the differences between physical architecture and logical architecture
Objective 1.2 – Differentiate between cloud computing and on-prem unified endpoint management
Objective 1.3 – Differentiate between endpoint operating systems as well as various manufacturer differences
Objective 1.4 – Describe and define identity and access management concepts
Objective 1.5 – Differentiate between traditional management and modern management
Objective 1.6 – Explain authentication methods (2 factor authentication, Kerberos, Identity Chain, SAML, SAML Transformation, Mobile SSO, etc.)
Objective 1.7 – Describe security concepts in relation to endpoint management (DMZ, Zero Trust, authentication, authorization, etc.) Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions

Section 2 –VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Describe UEM + Access components and sub-components (AirWatch Cloud Connector, Workspace ONE Access Connector, Workspace ONE Assist, UAG, ENS, AWCM, LTE Connector, VMverify, Intelligent Hub, Drop-ship (Factory) Provisioning, etc.)
Objective 2.1.1 – Describe AirWatch Cloud Connector features and functions
Objective 2.1.2 – Describe Workspace ONE Access Connector features and functions
Objective 2.1.3 – Describe Workspace ONE Assist features and functions
Objective 2.1.4 – Describe UAG features and functions
Objective 2.1.5 – Describe ENS features and functions
Objective 2.1.6 – Describe AWCM features and functions
Objective 2.1.7 – Describe LTE Connector features and functions
Objective 2.1.8 – Describe VMverify features and functions
Objective 2.1.9 – Describe Intelligent Hub features and functions
Objective 2.1.10 – Describe Drop-ship (Factory) Provisioning) features and functions
Objective 2.2 – Differentiate and match use case for VMware products
Objective 2.3 – Explain VMware best practices when using VMware products
Objective 2.4 – Identify and describe Workspace ONE relevant Disaster Recovery, HA, Scalability (UEM, Access, AirWatch Cloud Connector, Workspace ONE Access Connector, UAG, etc.)
Objective 2.5 – Explain Workspace ONE Intelligence, dashboard, custom reports, sensors, etc.
Objective 2.6 – Explain Unified Access Gateway Workspace ONE Edge Services
Objective 2.7 – Explain use cases for Workspace ONE SDK
Objective 2.8 – Explain the use case for Windows 10 Modern Management transformation and migration (Workspace ONE Airlift)
Objective 2.9 – Describe desktop management use cases other than Windows

Section 3 – There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 4 – Installation, Configuration, and Setup
Objective 4.1 – Identify infrastructure requirements (minimums, maximums, and recommended sizing requirements, OS version support, database versions, email infrastructure, directory services, etc.)
Objective 4.2 – Install and configure Workspace ONE components
Objective 4.2.1 – Install and configure UEM components
Objective 4.2.1.1 – Configure Android Enterprise
Objective 4.2.1.2 – Configure Apple device enrollment and purchased content management
Objective 4.2.1.3 – Configure Certificate Authority Integration
Objective 4.2.1.4 – Configure Mobile Email Management (PowerShell integration, SEG, G-Suite, Office 365, Microsoft eXchange)
Objective 4.2.1.5 – Install and configure ACC
Objective 4.2.2 – Install and configure Access components (connectors, UAG)
Objective 4.2.3 – Configure UAG Edge Services (Tunnel, SEG and Content Gateway)
Objective 4.2.4 – Configure Directory Services (users and groups)
Objective 4.2.4.1 – Configure and test Active Directory connection
Objective 4.2.4.2 – Import Active Directory users and groups
Objective 4.3 – Configure branding for administrative consoles
Objective 4.4 – Configure Hub services
Objective 4.4.1 – Configure branding
Objective 4.4.2 – Configure catalog
Objective 4.4.3 – Configure people search
Objective 4.4.4 – Configure notifications
Objective 4.4.5 – Configure custom tab (homepage)
Objective 4.4.6 – Configure support tab
Objective 4.4.7 – Configure templates
Objective 4.4.8 – Configure new hire welcome

Section 5 – There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 – Understand the various logs and their purpose
Objective 6.2 – Detect networking misconfigurations (DNS, NTP, etc.)
Objective 6.3 – Identify endpoint enrollment and management non-connectivity
Objective 6.4 – Identify end-user authentication failures
Objective 6.5 – Use console to resolve device misconfigurations

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 – Configure and manage device profiles for mobile and desktop endpoint OS
Objective 7.2 – Configure and manage certificate authority and certificate templates
Objective 7.3 – Manage Assignment Groups and Organization Groups
Objective 7.4 – Add and manage Accounts (users, admins, groups)
Objective 7.5 – Add, assign, and manage Resources
Objective 7.6 – Add, assign, and manage Content
Objective 7.7 – Configure and manage Email policies
Objective 7.8 – Configure and manage Compliance policies for mobile and desktop endpoints
Objective 7.9 – Perform device management on device endpoints
Objective 7.10 – Add and Manage SaaS, Web Applications on Workspace ONE Access
Objective 7.11 – Configure and manage connectors
Objective 7.12 – Manage UEM reporting
Objective 7.13 – Manage user and admin access on Workspace ONE Access Console
Objective 7.14 – Add and manage conditional access, access policy in Workspace ONE Access Console
Objective 7.15 – Manage authentication methods in Workspace ONE Access
Objective 7.16 – Configure privacy and security controls
Objective 7.17 – Create custom reports (Workspace ONE Intelligence)
Objective 7.18 – Configure and manage API settings
Objective 7.19 – Configure and manage automation, dashboard, and widget

Recommended Courses VMware Workspace ONE: Deploy and Manage [V21.x] – ILT VMware Workspace ONE: Deploy and Manage [V21.x] – On Demand VMware Workspace ONE: Skills for UEM [V21.x] – ILT VMware Workspace ONE: Skills for UEM [V21.x] – On Demand VMware Workspace ONE: Integrating Access with UEM [V21.x] – ILT VMware Workspace ONE: Integrating Access with UEM [V21.x] – On Demand

In addition to the recommended courses, item writers use the following references for information when writing exam questions. It is recommended that you study the reference content as you prepare to take the exam, in addition to any recommended training.
*Workspace ONE content in this exam based on v21.X. Review all v21.X and [U1] release notes and material for features and function.

QUESTION 1
As a Workspace ONE administrator, you have been tasked with creating a custom visualization for
management that shows device statistics, trust network threats, and application adoption metrics in a single view.
Which feature of Workspace ONE can be used?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Dashboards
B. Workspace ONE Access Application View
C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Automations
D. Workspace ONE UEM Device List View

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?

A. Syslog Integration
B. Relay Server Integration
C. Certificate Authority Integration
D. File Storage Integration

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two steps would an administrator complete to enable auto-discovery for their Workspace ONE UEM environment? (Choose two.)

A. Enter the email domain when installing the AirWatch Cloud Connector.
B. Verify the domain by accepting the link in the email that registered auto-discovery.
C. Register email domain within Workspace ONE UEM.
D. Enter the email domain when establishing directory services.
E. Email auto-discovery@workspaceone.com with the domain the administrator wants to register.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
What two features of Hub Services can be enabled without enabling Workspace ONE Access and having the authentication mode set to Workspace ONE UEM? (Choose two.)

A. enable SSO for applications
B. enable People Search
C. notifications for iOS and Android
D. Hub Virtual Assistant Chatbot
E. Hub Catalog layout

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Where is Hub Services component co-located?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence
B. Workspace ONE Access
C. Workspace ONE Airlift
D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two Workspace ONE UEM core components are required for all on-premises environments? (Choosetwo.)

A. Device Services
B. AirWatch Cloud Connector
C. Unified Access Gateway
D. Secure Email Gateway
E. Console Services

Correct Answer: AB

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Microsoft, Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate, Uncategorized

Get PL-100 Certification Exam Microsoft Power Platform App Maker Certified in 7 days

July 30, 2021 Lindsay

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

If you’re a business professional with deep expertise in your solution domain and you want to use your passion for building Microsoft Power Platform solutions to simplify, automate, and transform tasks and processes for your team, this certification is designed for you. You must have the skills to accomplish key technical business analyst tasks, such as data modeling, basic UX design, requirements analysis, and process analysis.

You fit the profile for the app maker role if you’re self-directed and solution-focused, and you work with the maker tools of Microsoft Power Platform to solve business problems. You might have experience with Visual Basic for Applications, Excel PivotTables, Teams, and other tools. Although you might not have formal IT training, you’re comfortable working with IT administrators and Microsoft Power Platform developers using technology to solve business problems. You’re responsible for:

Designing and creating apps and automating workflows.
Analyzing and visualizing data in context of an app or automated workflow.
Implementing and managing apps and automated workflows.
To learn more, read our post: Are you a Power Platform App Maker? Now’s the time to get certified. If you need more experience before you try for this certification, you could:
Volunteer on a project to get real-life experience with data modeling, basic UX design, requirements analysis, or process analysis.
Take learning paths on Microsoft Learn.
Sign up for an instructor-led training course.
Job role: Business Analyst, Business Owner, Business User, Data Analyst, Developer, DevOps Engineer, App Maker, Technology Manager
Required exams: PL-100
Important: See details

Audience Profile
The candidate envisions and creates solutions to simplify and automate tasks and processes for themselves and their team. They understand the data that they are working with, the issues that they need to resolve, and the required processes and app experiences. The candidate may not have formal IT training but are comfortable using technology to solve business problems. The candidate is self-directed, and solution focused. They may connect to and use features of apps including Microsoft Teams, Microsoft 365 apps and services, and third-party solutions. The candidate has a desire to understand the capabilities and limitations of available tools and understands how to apply them. The candidate is an advocate for Power Platform solutions.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

business requirements
 identify data sources
 describe real-world objects as app entities
 describe the user experience
 create a high-level data model

Identify required Microsoft Power
Platform components
 determine required app types
 identify existing resources and licenses
 identify gaps
 map problem domain to Microsoft

Power Platform tools
 identify required flows
 evaluate accelerators and third-party solutions

Design data models
Design business solutions (35- 40%)
Create a high-level design

 identify required data sources for a business solution
 describe real-world objects as tables
 describe the expected user experience for targeted devices and describe the differences between Microsoft Power

Platform app types
 create a high-level data model including source, volume, and intended uses Identify Microsoft Power Platform components
 determine the required Power Apps app type
 determine when to use Dataverse for Teams
 determine required entities and objects
 identify relationships
 identify attribute types
 determine requirements for offline access

Design User Interface
 identify opportunities for component reuse
 apply user interface (UI) standards
 design for accessibility
 design for localization

Design output
 define data output requirements
 define requirements for visualizations
 identify sources for analytical data including Azure Data Lake

Design security, privacy and compliance
 identify sensitive data
 identify applicable government regulations

Understand app environments
 understand how to get started building apps
 describe the different types of app environments
 understand solutions
 understand where source data for a solution is located
 map a problem domain to Microsoft

Power Platform tools
 identify options for implementing business logic
 describe connectors
 describe unmanaged solutions
 describe uses cases for desktop flows
 describe use cases for chatbots

Design data models
 determine required tables
 identify relationships between tables
 identify columns and data types

Design the user interface (UI) for a business solution
 identify opportunities for component reuse
 apply UI standards
 identify the model-driven forms and

Dataverse views that are needed
Design reporting
 define data output requirements
 define visualizations for Power BI dashboards
 define visualization requirements for model-driven dashboards

Create solutions (50-55%)
Create a Microsoft Power Platform solution in a development environment
 create a solution as a workspace for an app
 create a Solution Publisher for a solution
 modify the solution publisher for a solution

Create model-driven apps
Create solutions (45-50%)
Manage Microsoft Power Platform development environments
 create a solution
 add existing apps and flows to a solution
 run Solution Checker and interpret results

Create model-driven apps
 create model-driven apps within a solution
 create a site map
 create and configure Common Data

Service entity forms
 create and configure Common Data

Service entity views
 create model-driven dashboards
 create model-driven charts for views
 add existing Power BI reports to model-driven dashboards

Create canvas apps
 create canvas apps within a solution
 connect to data sources in canvas
apps
 build canvas apps screens
 configure solutions for offline access
 use formulas and expressions
 use collections and variables
 describe the implications of design choices on app performance

Create and Use Controls
 add canvas app assets and components to screens
 build canvas app components

Create and configure data stores
 create a Common Data Service database
 configure a connection for a data store
 create Common Data Service entities based on a data model
 link entities by using Common Data Service entity relationships
 load or create data records for testing and development Create business logic
 create Common Data Service business rules
 create Common Data Service business process flows
 compose model-driven apps
 create a site map
 create and configure Dataverse table forms
 create and configure Dataverse table views
 embed model-driven apps in Microsoft Teams channels
 embed a canvas app on a form in a model-driven app
 manage versions of canvas apps
 publish and share canvas apps
 share model-driven apps Create canvas apps
 create canvas apps
 connect to data sources in canvas apps
 build canvas apps screens
 compose Power Fx formulas
 implement collections and variables
 interpret App Checker results
 add canvas app assets and components to screens

Configure Microsoft Dataverse
 create tables and table columns based on a data model
 link tables by using lookups or relationships
 load or create data records for testing and development
 publish customizations
 create Dataverse business rules
 configure security roles

Create Power Automate flows
 create business process flows
 create cloud flows
 configure triggers
 create Common Data Service classic workflows
 create business logic using Power Automate flows
 create Canvas app formulas and events

Create Power Automate flows
 create flows as a solution
 create trigger actions
 build scheduled, automated, and instant flows
 create flow actions
 run Flow Checker
 test a flow
 create expressions and loops
 build scheduled, automated, and instant flows
 configure flow steps
 test a flow
 implement common expressions and loops
 create adaptive cards for Microsoft Teams
 create and monitor approvals from

Power Automate, Microsoft Teams, and SharePoint
 share flows

Create Power Virtual Agents chatbots in Microsoft Teams
 create a chatbot
 test a chatbot
 publish a chatbot

Analyze data (5-10%)
Create Power BI reports
 create Power BI report by using Power BI Desktop
 create Power BI report by using Power BI service

Implement other reports
 consume SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) reports
 merge data from a solution into a template

Build AI Builder models
 create AI Builder model types
 consume AI Builder models
 train models by using historical data

Analyze and visualize data (15- 20%)
Create Power BI reports
 create Power BI report by using Power BI Desktop
 create Power BI report by using Power BI service
 embed canvas apps in Power Bi reports and dashboards
 share Power BI reports and dashboards Implement other reports
 merge data from a data source into a

Microsoft Word or Excel template
 create model-driven dashboards
 embed Power BI content in Power Apps

Describe AI Builder models
 identify model types including prebuilt and custom models
 describe the process for preparing data and training models
 use a model from within Power
Automate or Power Apps

Implement and manage solutions (15-20%)
Configure solution security
 configure Common Data Service security roles
 configure Common Data Service field security Test an application and flows
 describe the solution testing process
 implement available Microsoft Power Platform testing tools
 validate accessibility

Secure the solution
 manage data security
 manage app security
 define a distribution method for flows
 configure security for Power BI

Deploy the solution
 export solutions
 support deployment of solutions to production environments Manage versions of the solution
 create new versions of an app
 restore a previous version of an app
 publish a new version of an app

QUESTION 1
You are creating a multi-page canvas app that loads tabular data from an external data source.
Once loaded, the data must be available to all screens within the canvas app.
You need to reduce the number of times that the app must retrieve data from the data source.
Which two data stores can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. parameter
B. global variable
C. collection
D. environment variable

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
C: A special kind of data source is the Collection, which is local to the app and not backed by a connection to a service in the cloud, so the information can not be shared across devices for the same user or between users.
Collections can be loaded and saved locally.
D: Don’t use environment variables if you only have one environment. Use collection variables. Having a single environment connected to the collection creates more overhead.

QUESTION 2
You are creating a model-driven app that allows users to create and edit a list of existing accounts.
You need to display a list of all active accounts.
Which user interface components should you use?

A. view
B. gallery
C. data table
D. form

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
With Power Apps apps, use views to define how a list of rows for a specific table is displayed in the application.

QUESTION 3
You need to connect to the data source for the Job Setup app.
What should you do?

A. Configure a scheduled synchronization with the Common Data Service database
B. Configure SQL Server database permissions
C. Create a stored procedure that retrieves time records for a specific employee
D. Configure an on-premises data gateway

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Scenario: The Job Setup entity must store its data in the existing on-premises SQL Server instance.
The on-premises data gateway acts as a bridge to provide quick and secure data transfer between onpremises data (data that isn’t in the cloud) and several Microsoft cloud services. These cloud services include Power BI, Power Apps, Power Automate, Azure Analysis Services, and Azure Logic Apps. By using a gateway, organizations can keep databases and other data sources on their on-premises networks, yet securely use that on-premises data in cloud services.

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are creating a canvas app.
You need to automatically detect bicycles in pictures taken with the camera.
Proposed solution:
Create an Object Detection custom model in AI Builder.
Train the model with pictures of bicycles and then publish the trained model.
Add the Object Detector control to your canvas app.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To train an object detection model to recognize your objects, you have to gather images that contain those objects.
The first thing you’ll do when you create an AI Builder object detection model is to define its domain.
Upload images
Then Train and publish your object detection model
The object detector component takes a photo or loads an image file to do an object detection scan. On a mobile device, the user chooses between taking a photo or selecting one already available in the device user
interface. When an image is selected, the component automatically scans it to identify objects.

QUESTION 5
You create a dashboard in Power BI. You share the dashboard with the sales team.
Sales team members report that they can see information for the entire company.
You need to ensure that the team is able to see only data for their team.
Where must you configure this restriction?

A. Dashboard
B. Report
C. Dataset
D. Settings

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Restrict access to the dataset.
Note: Another way of setting access is through manage permission in the dashboard, report, or dataset. If you share a dashboard, by default the report and the dataset will also be shared as read-only for users.

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Microsoft Azure

Microsoft Azure AZ-500 Exam Best Preparation Tool

July 29, 2021 Lindsay

Aspired to become a Microsoft Certified Azure Security Engineer? Here’s the definitive guide for your AZ-500 exam preparation, follow this and start your preparation for the Azure AZ-500 certification exam.

Microsoft is one of the strongest names in the world of cloud computing. The cloud service platform of Microsoft, Azure, is one of the market leaders in cloud computing along with AWS and Google Cloud. Therefore, the demand for Azure certifications is always high. One of the most recently launched Azure exams is Microsoft Azure AZ 500 that is ideal for the role of Microsoft Azure Security Engineer.

Many sources on the internet help candidates in the AZ-500 exam preparation. However, the following discussion would aim at illustrating every detail of the exam to support your preparation. The discussion can serve as a guiding path for you to start preparation immediately for the Azure Security certification. So, let us get started!

Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Microsoft Azure Security Technologies (AZ-500) Certification exam. This study guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for items on the AZ-500 Microsoft Azure Security Technologies exam. The Sample Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual Microsoft MCA Azure Security Engineer certification exam.

The Microsoft Azure Security Technologies certification is mainly targeted to those candidates who want to build their career in Microsoft Azure domain. The Microsoft Certified – Azure Security Engineer Associate exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of Microsoft MCA Azure Security Engineer.

Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on August 2, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what will be changing.
Manage identity and access (30-35%)
Implement platform protection (15-20%)
Manage security operations (25-30%)
Secure data and applications (20-25%)

Manage identity and access (30-35%)
Manage Azure Active Directory identities
 configure security for service principals
 manage Azure AD directory groups
 manage Azure AD users
 manage administrative units
 configure password writeback
 configure authentication methods including password hash and Pass Through

Authentication (PTA), OAuth, and passwordless
 transfer Azure subscriptions between Azure AD tenants

Configure secure access by using Azure AD
 monitor privileged access for Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
 configure Access Reviews
 configure PIM
 implement Conditional Access policies including Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
 configure Azure AD identity protection

Manage application access
 create App Registration
 configure App Registration permission scopes
 manage App Registration permission consent
 manage API access to Azure subscriptions and resources

Manage access control
 configure subscription and resource permissions
 configure resource group permissions
 configure custom RBAC roles
 identify the appropriate role
    o apply principle of least privilege
 interpret permissions
    o check access

Implement platform protection (15-20%)

Implement advanced network security
 secure the connectivity of virtual networks (VPN authentication, Express Route encryption)
 configure Network Security Groups (NSGs) and Application Security Groups (ASGs)
 create and configure Azure Firewall
 implement Azure Firewall Manager
 configure Azure Front Door service as an Application Gateway
 configure a Web Application Firewall (WAF) on Azure Application Gateway
 configure Azure Bastion
 configure a firewall on a storage account, Azure SQL, Key Vault, or App Service
 implement Service Endpoints
 implement DDoS protection

Configure advanced security for compute
 configure endpoint protection
 configure and monitor system updates for VMs
 configure authentication for Azure Container Registry
 configure security for different types of containers
    o implement vulnerability management
    o configure isolation for AKS
    o configure security for container registry
 implement Azure Disk Encryption
 configure authentication and security for Azure App Service
    o configure SSL/TLS certs
    o configure authentication for Azure Kubernetes Service
    o configure automatic updates

Manage security operations (25-30%)
Monitor security by using Azure Monitor
 create and customize alerts
 monitor security logs by using Azure Monitor
 configure diagnostic logging and log retention

Monitor security by using Azure Security Center
 evaluate vulnerability scans from Azure Security Center
 configure Just in Time VM access by using Azure Security Center
 configure centralized policy management by using Azure Security Center
 configure compliance policies and evaluate for compliance by using Azure Security Center
 configure workflow automation by using Azure Security Center

Monitor security by using Azure Sentinel
 create and customize alerts
 configure data sources to Azure Sentinel
 evaluate results from Azure Sentinel
 configure a playbook by using Azure Sentinel

Configure security policies
 configure security settings by using Azure Policy
 configure security settings by using Azure Blueprint

Secure data and applications (20-25%)

Configure security for storage
 configure access control for storage accounts
 configure key management for storage accounts
 configure Azure AD authentication for Azure Storage
 configure Azure AD Domain Services authentication for Azure Files
 create and manage Shared Access Signatures (SAS)
    o create a shared access policy for a blob or blob container
 configure Storage Service Encryption
 configure Azure Defender for Storage

Configure security for databases
 enable database authentication
 enable database auditing
 configure Azure Defender for SQL
    o configure Azure SQL Database Advanced Threat Protection
 implement database encryption
o implement Azure SQL Database Always Encrypted

Configure and manage Key Vault
 manage access to Key Vault
 manage permissions to secrets, certificates, and keys
    o configure RBAC usage in Azure Key Vault
 manage certificates
 manage secrets
 configure key rotation
 backup and restore of Key Vault items
 configure Azure Defender for Key Vault

The exam guide below shows the changes that will be implemented on August 2, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam should have subject matter expertise implementing security controls and threat protection, managing identity and access, and protecting data, applications, and networks.
Responsibilities for an Azure Security Engineer include maintaining the security posture, identifying and remediating vulnerabilities by using a variety of security tools, implementing threat protection, and responding to security incident escalations.
Azure Security Engineers often serve as part of a larger team dedicated to cloud-based management and security and may also secure hybrid environments as part of an end-to-end infrastructure.

A candidate for this exam should be familiar with scripting and automation, and should have a deep understanding of networking and virtualization. A candidate should also have a strong familiarity with cloud capabilities, Azure products and services, and other Microsoft products and services.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Manage identity and access (30-35%)

Manage Azure Active Directory identities
 configure security for service principals
 manage Azure AD directory groups
 manage Azure AD users
 manage administrative units
 configure password writeback
 configure authentication methods including password hash and Pass Through

Authentication (PTA), OAuth, and passwordless
 transfer Azure subscriptions between Azure AD tenants

Configure secure access by using Azure AD
 monitor privileged access for Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
 configure Access Reviews
 configure PIM
 implement Conditional Access policies including Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
 configure Azure AD identity protection

Manage application access
 create App Registration
 configure App Registration permission scopes
 manage App Registration permission consent
 manage API access to Azure subscriptions and resources

Manage access control
 configure subscription and resource permissions
 configure resource group permissions
 configure custom RBAC roles
 identify the appropriate role
o apply principle of least privilege
 interpret permissions
o check access

Implement platform protection (15-20%)
Implement advanced network security
 secure the connectivity of virtual networks (VPN authentication, Express Route encryption)
 configure Network Security Groups (NSGs) and Application Security Groups (ASGs)
 create and configure Azure Firewall
 implement Azure Firewall Manager
 configure Azure Front Door service as an Application Gateway
 configure a Web Application Firewall (WAF) on Azure Application Gateway
 configure Azure Bastion
 configure a firewall on a storage account, Azure SQL, Key Vault, or App Service
 implement Service Endpoints
 implement DDoS protection

Configure advanced security for compute
 configure endpoint protection
 configure and monitor system updates for VMs
 configure authentication for Azure Container Registry
 configure security for different types of containers
o implement vulnerability management
o configure isolation for AKS
o configure security for container registry
 implement Azure Disk Encryption
 configure authentication and security for Azure App Service
o configure SSL/TLS certs
o configure authentication for Azure Kubernetes Service
o configure automatic updates

Manage security operations (25-30%)
Monitor security by using Azure Monitor
 create and customize alerts
 monitor security logs by using Azure Monitor
 configure diagnostic logging and log retention

Monitor security by using Azure Security Center
 evaluate vulnerability scans from Azure Security Center
 configure Just in Time VM access by using Azure Security Center
 configure centralized policy management by using Azure Security Center
 configure compliance policies and evaluate for compliance by using Azure Security Center
 configure workflow automation by using Azure Security Center

Monitor security by using Azure Sentinel
 create and customize alerts
 configure data sources to Azure Sentinel
 evaluate results from Azure Sentinel
 configure a playbook by using Azure Sentinel

Configure security policies
 configure security settings by using Azure Policy
 configure security settings by using Azure Blueprint

Secure data and applications (20-25%)

Configure security for storage
 configure access control for storage accounts
 configure key management for storage accounts
 configure Azure AD authentication for Azure Storage
 configure Azure AD Domain Services authentication for Azure Files
 create and manage Shared Access Signatures (SAS)
o create a shared access policy for a blob or blob container
 configure Storage Service Encryption
 configure Azure Defender for Storage

Configure security for databases
 enable database authentication
 enable database auditing
 configure Azure Defender for SQL
o configure Azure SQL Database Advanced Threat Protection
 implement database encryption
o implement Azure SQL Database Always Encrypted

Configure and manage Key Vault
 manage access to Key Vault
 manage permissions to secrets, certificates, and keys
o configure RBAC usage in Azure Key Vault
 manage certificates
 manage secrets
 configure key rotation
 backup and restore of Key Vault items
 configure Azure Defender for Key Vault

QUESTION 1
You need to meet the identity and access requirements for Group1.
What should you do?

A. Add a membership rule to Group1.
B. Delete Group1. Create a new group named Group1 that has a group type of Microsoft 365. Add users and devices to the group.
C. Modify the membership rule of Group1.
D. Change the membership type of Group1 to Assigned. Create two groups that have dynamic memberships. Add the new groups to Group1.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: You can create a dynamic group for devices or for users, but you can’t create a rule that contains both users and devices.
D: For assigned group you can only add individual members.

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that User2 can implement PIM.
What should you do first?

A. Assign User2 the Global administrator role.
B. Configure authentication methods for contoso.com.
C. Configure the identity secure score for contoso.com.
D. Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for User2.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To start using PIM in your directory, you must first enable PIM.
1. Sign in to the Azure portal as a Global Administrator of your directory.
You must be a Global Administrator with an organizational account (for example, @yourdomain.com), not a Microsoft account (for example, @outlook.com), to enable PIM for a directory.
Scenario: Technical requirements include: Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) for contoso.com

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that you can meet the security operations requirements. What should you do first?

A. Turn on Auto Provisioning in Security Center.
B. Integrate Security Center and Microsoft Cloud App Security.
C. Upgrade the pricing tier of Security Center to Standard.
D. Modify the Security Center workspace configuration.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Standard tier extends the capabilities of the Free tier to workloads running in private and other public clouds, providing unified security management and threat protection across your hybrid cloud workloads.
The Standard tier also adds advanced threat detection capabilities, which uses built-in behavioral analytics and machine learning to identify attacks and zero-days exploits, access and application controls to reduce exposure to network attacks and malware, and more.
Scenario: Security Operations Requirements
Litware must be able to customize the operating system security configurations in Azure Security Center.

QUESTION 4
You need to configure WebApp1 to meet the data and application requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Upload a public certificate.
B. Turn on the HTTPS Only protocol setting.
C. Set the Minimum TLS Version protocol setting to 1.2.
D. Change the pricing tier of the App Service plan.
E. Turn on the Incoming client certificates protocol setting.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: To configure Certificates for use in Azure Websites Applications you need to upload a public Certificate.
C: Over time, multiple versions of TLS have been released to mitigate different vulnerabilities. TLS 1.2 is the most current version available for apps running on Azure App Service.

Incorrect Answers:
B: We need support the https: url as well.

QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
You need to ensure that when administrators deploy resources by using an Azure Resource Manager template, the deployment can access secrets in an Azure key vault named KV11597200.
To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal.
Correct Answer: See the explanation below.

Section: (none)

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You need to configure an option in the Advanced Access Policy of the key vault.
1. In the Azure portal, type Azure Key Vault in the search box, select Azure Key Vault from the search results then select the key vault named KV11597200. Alternatively, browse to Azure Key Vault in the left navigation pane.
2. In the properties of the key vault, click on Advanced Access Policies.
3. Tick the checkbox labelled Enable access to Azure Resource Manager for template deployment.
4. Click Save to save the changes.

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comptia a+ certification, CompTIA CASP Recertification, CompTIA IT Fundamentals, CompTIA Network+ Recertification, CompTIA Security+ Recertification Exam

PK0-004 CompTIA Project+ Exam

July 28, 2021 Lindsay

CompTIA Project+ gives business professionals – inside and outside of IT – the basic concepts to successfully manage small- to medium-sized projects.

Why is it different?

CompTIA Project+ is ideal for professionals who need to manage smaller, less complex projects as part of their other job duties but still have foundational project management skills. Project+ is more versatile than other certifications because it covers essential project management concepts beyond the scope of just one methodology or framework.

About the exam
The CompTIA Project+ examination is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-sized projects. The successful candidate will have the knowledge and skills required to:

Manage the project life cycle
Ensure appropriate communication
Manage resources and stakeholders
Maintain project documentation

Exam Details
Exam Codes PK0-004
Exam Description CompTIA Project+ is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-size projects, inside and outside of IT. The exam certifies the knowledge and skills required to manage the project life cycle, ensure appropriate, communication, manage resources, manage stakeholders, and maintain project documentation.
Number of Questions Maximum of 95 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response), and drag and drops
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 710 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience At least 12 months of cumulative project management experience or equivalent education
Launch Date March 15 2017
Retirement N/A
Languages English, Japanese
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers Online Testing

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PROJECT BASICS

Summarize the properties of project, phases, schedules, roles and responsibilities, and cost controls, as well as identifying the basic aspects of Agile methodology
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
PROJECT CONSTRAINTS

Predict the impact of various constraint variables and influences throughout the project and explain the importance of risk strategies and activities
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
COMMUNICATION & CHANGE MANAGEMENT

Understand appropriate communication methods of influence and use change control processes within the context of a project
NETWORKING
PROJECT TOOLS & DOCUMENTATION

Compare and contrast various project management tools and analyze project and partner-centric documentation

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

Clearly written and structured.
Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
Focused on your exam success.

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

QUESTION 1
A project manager is attempting to establish the proper sequencing and duration of project activities.
Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial?

A. Network diagram
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. WBS
D. Gantt chart

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Ongoing
B. Temporary
C. Start and finish
D. Achieving a goal
E. Consisting of milestones
F. Restricting the budget

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A company has determined it does not have the in-house capability to perform a project and wants to procure third-party services.
Which of the following documents will the company MOST likely release FIRST?

A. RFO
B. RFI
C. RFP
D. RFQ

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was
scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation?
(Choose two.)

A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.
B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.
C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.
D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.
E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
A project manager is creating the WBS.
In which of the following phases is the project?

A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Correct Answer: D

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HPE6-A79 Aruba Certified Mobility Expert Written Exam

July 26, 2021 Lindsay

Aruba Certified Mobility Expert Written Exam

Certification and Learning
This exam tests your technical expert skills with WLAN design, implementation, and configuration in complex multisite highly available network environments using the Aruba Controller, Access Point, and AirWave product lines. It also tests your ability to design, implement, monitor, troubleshoot, and maintain end-to-end WLAN campus and branch solutions, and resolve issues in an existing customer infrastructure.

You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

Register for this Exam
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process

Exam ID HPE6-A79
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 2 hours
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages English

Supporting resources

Aruba Advanced Mobility Troubleshooting and Solutions, Rev. 20.21
Ideal candidateTypical candidate is recognized as an expert-level resource, advisor, and mentor to networking professionals. Candidate has extensive hands on Aruba WLAN configuration, administration, and troubleshooting experience. Candidate have more than 4 years of experience implementing complex, highly available, multisite Aruba WLANs, and a minimum of one year experience using AirWave to manage and monitor Aruba WLAN deployments. Candidate also has a minimum of 3 years of switching and routing experience.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.

Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference materials, study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.

Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.

24% Analyze functional requirements to create a solution design and implementation plan.
Analyze a complex multisite highly available network to determine the physical infrastructure connectivity requirements.
Analyze an entire WLAN infrastructure to determine the licensing requirements.
Analyze an entire WLAN infrastructure to determine the architectural requirements.
Analyze a complex highly available multi-controller environment to determine redundancy requirements.
Analyze a complex highly available multi-controller environment to determine mobility requirements.
Analyze a scenario to determine remote access requirements.
Analyze a scenario to determine AirWave scalability requirements.
Analyze customer requirements to determine the need for QoS.
Analyze customer requirements to determine roles, firewall policies, and rule requirements.
Analyze customer requirements to determine the need for a multizone deployment.

21% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN solutions.
Configure and validate a WLAN to support voice and video optimization.
Configure a secure WLAN and integrate it with an existing infrastructure.
Validate client connectivity to a secure WLAN.
Configure and validate a complex multisite high availability mobility environment.
Configure a guest WLAN and validate client connectivity.
Configure and validate remote connectivity using RAP or a branch office solution.

20% Implement advanced services and security solutions.
Configure role derivation and integrate with an existing AAA server.
Configure and verify tunneled node.
Configure and validate IAP-VPN to a controller for remote access.
Configure advanced firewall policies.
Configure a WLAN with WPA2/PSK Mac authentication for role derivation.
Implement RFProtect.
Configure and validate a multizone solution.

17% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions.
Use AirWave and a Mobility Master to gather information about client health.
Create triggers and custom reports in AirWave.
Monitor the Spectrum Analyzer dashboard on the Mobility Controller.
Monitor and analyze controller health.
Monitor and optimize the RF environment.
Integrate and monitor devices with AirWave.

18% Perform advanced troubleshooting.
Troubleshoot controller licensing.
Troubleshoot controller and AP communication in a Mobility Master-Mobility Controller-Virtual Mobility Controller environment.
Troubleshoot client connectivity and network access.
Troubleshoot UCC issues.
Troubleshoot multizone.

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is in charge of a Mobility Master (MM) – Mobility Controller (MC) based WLAN.
The administrator has deployed an Airwave Management Platform (AMP) server in order to improve the monitoring
capabilities and generate reports and alerts.
The administrator has configured SNMPv3 and Admin credentials on both the MMs and MCs and has created
Groups and Folders in the AMP server.
What two additional steps must the administrator do in order to let Airwave monitor the network devices?
(Choose two.)

A. Manually add the Active MM and wait for automatic Discovery.
B. Map the AMP’s IP address with a mgmt-config profile in the MM.
C. Set the AMP’s IP address and Org string as DHCP option 43.
D. Manually add each MM, MC and Access Point in the AMP server.
E. Move “New” devices into a group and folder in Airwave.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
A customer wants a WLAN solution that permits Aps to terminate WPA-2 encrypted traffic from different SSIDs
to different geographic locations where non-related IT departments will take care of enforcing security policies.
A key requirement is to minimize network congestion, overhead, and delay while providing data privacy from
the client to the security policy enforcement point. Therefore, the solution must use the shortest path from
source to destination.

Which Aruba feature best accommodates this scenario?

A. Inter MC S2S IPsec tunnels
B. RAPs
C. Multizone Aps
D. VIA
E. Inter MC GRE tunnels

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A company plans to build a resort that includes a hotel with 1610 rooms, a casino, and a convention center.
The company is interested in a mobility solution that provides scalability and a service-based approach, where
they can rent the WLAN infrastructure at the convention center to any customer (tenant) that hosts events at the resort.
The solution should provide:
• Seamless roaming when users move from the hotel to the casino or the convention center
• Simultaneous propagation of the resort and customer-owned SSIDs at the convention center
• Null management access upon resort network infrastructure to the customers (tenants)
• Configuration and monitor rights of rented SSIDs to the customers (tenants)
Which deployment meets the requirements?

A. Deploy an MM-MC infrastructure with multizone AP’s, with one zone for tenant SSIDs.
B. Deploy IAPs along with AirWave, and deploy role-based management access control.
C. Deploy IAPs with zone based SSIDs and manage them with different central accounts.
D. Deploy an MM-MC infrastructure, and create different hierarchy groups for MCs and APs.
E. Deploy IAPs, and manage them with different central accounts.

Correct Answer: E

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IBM

C1000-112 Fundamentals of Quantum Computation Using Qiskit v0.2X Developer

July 23, 2021 Lindsay

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 44
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

An IBM Qiskit Developer is an individual who demonstrates fundamental knowledge of quantum computing concepts and is able to express them using the Qiskit open source software development kit (SDK). They have experience using the Qiskit SDK from the Python programming language to create and execute quantum computing programs on IBM Quantum computers and simulators.

Key areas of competency:
Defining, executing, and visualizing results of quantum circuits using the Qiskit SDK
Understanding single-qubit gates and their rotations on the Bloch sphere.
Understanding various multi-qubit gates and their effects in quantum circuits.
Leveraging fundamental Qiskit SDK features including commonly-used classes and functions located in qiskit.circuit, qiskit.execute, qiskit.providers, qiskit.qasm, qiskit.quantum_info, qiskit.tools, and qiskit.visualization packages.

During exam development, the Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) define all of the tasks, knowledge and experience that an individual would need in order to successfully fulfill their role with the product or solution. These are represented by the objectives below and the questions on the certification exam are based upon these objective.

1 Perform Operations on Quantum Circuits 47%
Construct multi-qubit quantum registers
Measure quantum circuits in classical registers
Use single-qubit gates
Use multi-qubit gates
Use barrier operations
Return the circuit depth
Extend quantum circuits
Return the OpenQASM string for a circuit

2 Executing Experiments 3%
Execute a quantum circuit

3 Implement BasicAer: Python-based Simulators 3%
Use the available simulators

4 Implement Qasm 1%
Read a QASM file

5 Compare and Contrast Quantum Information 10%
Use classical and quantum registers
Use operators
Measure fidelity

6 Return the Experiment Results 7%
Return the histogram data of an experiment
Return the statevector of an experiment
Return the unitary of an experiment

7 Use Qiskit Tools 1%
Monitor the status of a job instance

8 Display and Use System Information 3%
Perform operations around the Qiskit version
Use information gained from quiskit_backend_overview

9 Construct Visualizations 19%
Draw a circuit
Plot a histogram of data
Plot a Bloch multivector
Plot a Bloch vector
Plot a QSphere
Plot a density matrix
Plot a gate map with error rates

10 Access Aer Provider 6%
Assess a statevector_simulator backend
Assess a qasm_simulator backend
Assess a unitary_simulator backend

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: C0010300
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
An IBM Qiskit Developer is an individual who demonstrates fundamental knowledge of quantum computing concepts and is able to express them using the Qiskit open source software development kit (SDK). They have experience using the Qiskit SDK from the Python programming language to create and execute quantum computing programs on IBM Quantum computers and simulators.

Key areas of competency:
Defining, executing, and visualizing results of quantum circuits using the Qiskit SDK
Understanding single-qubit gates and their rotations on the Bloch sphere.
Understanding various multi-qubit gates and their effects in quantum circuits.
Leveraging fundamental Qiskit SDK features including commonly-used classes and functions located in qiskit.circuit, qiskit.execute, qiskit.providers, qiskit.qasm, qiskit.quantum_info, qiskit.tools, and qiskit.visualization packages.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working knowledge of creating, executing, and visualizing the results quantum of circuits using the online IBM Quantum Composer
Working knowledge of developing examples that highlight features of the Qiskit SDK, such as those found in the online IBM Quantum Lab
Working knowledge of modeling quantum states and evolution with complex vectors and matrices.
Working knowledge of Pauli matrices.
Working knowledge of quantum state measurement probabilities.
Familiarity with common circuits such as those that result in the Bell states.

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Microsoft, Microsoft 365

Exam MS-500: Microsoft 365 Security Administration

July 19, 2021 Lindsay

The content of this exam will be updated on July 26, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.

Candidates for this exam implement, manage, and monitor security and compliance solutions for Microsoft 365 and hybrid environments. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator proactively secures Microsoft 365 enterprise environments, responds to threats, performs investigations, and enforces data governance. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator collaborates with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator, business stakeholders, and other workload administrators to plan and implement security strategies and ensures that the solutions comply with the policies and regulations of the organization.

Candidates for this exam are familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and have strong skills and experience with identity protection, information protection, threat protection, security management, and data governance. This role focuses on the Microsoft 365 environment and includes hybrid environments.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Security Administrator Associate
Related exams: none
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
Exam MS-500: Microsoft 365 Security Administration
Languages: English, Japanese
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: implement and manage identity and access; implement and manage threat protection; implement and manage information protection; and manage governance and compliance features in Microsoft 365.

Price based on the country in which the exam is proctored.
For non-students interested in technology
Limited time offer for job seekers impacted by COVID-19 and students
Learn about our commitment to support people impacted by COVID-19.
Official practice test for Microsoft 365 Security Administration
All objectives of the exam are covered in depth so you’ll be ready for any question on the exam.

Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on July 26, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what will be changing.
Implement and manage identity and access (30-35%)
Implement and manage threat protection (20-25%)
Implement and manage information protection (15-20%)
Manage governance and compliance features in Microsoft 365 (25-30%)

The exam guide below shows the changes that will be implemented on July 26, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam implement, manage, and monitor security and compliance solutions for Microsoft 365 and hybrid environments. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator proactively secures M365 enterprise environments, responds to threats, performs investigations, and enforces data governance. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator collaborates with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator, business stakeholders, and other workload administrators to plan and implement security strategies and ensures that the solutions comply with the policies and regulations of the organization.

Candidates for this exam are familiar with M365 workloads and have strong skills and experience with identity protection, information protection, threat protection, security management, and data governance. This role focuses on the M365 environment and includes hybrid environments.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Implement and manage identity and access (30-35%)
Secure Microsoft 365 hybrid environments
 plan Azure AD authentication options
 plan Azure AD synchronization options
 monitor and troubleshoot Azure AD Connect events

Secure Identities
 implement Azure AD group membership
 implement password management
 configure and manage identity governance

Implement authentication methods
 plan sign-on security
 implement multi-factor authentication (MFA) by using conditional access policy
 manage and monitor MFA
 plan and implement device authentication methods like Windows Hello
 configure and manage Azure AD user authentication options and self-service password management

Implement conditional access
 plan for compliance and conditional access policies
 configure and manage device compliance for endpoint security
 implement and manage conditional access

Implement role-based access control (RBAC)
 plan for roles
 configure roles
 audit roles

Implement Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
 plan for Azure PIM
 assign eligibility and activate admin roles
 manage Azure PIM role requests and assignments
 monitor PIM history and alerts

Implement Azure AD Identity Protection
 implement user risk policy
 implement sign-in risk policy
 configure Identity Protection alerts
 review and respond to risk events

Implement and manage threat protection (20-25%)
Implement an enterprise hybrid threat protection solution
 plan a Microsoft Defender for Identity solution
 install and configure Microsoft Defender for Identity
 monitor and manage Microsoft Defender for Identity

Implement device threat protection
 plan a Microsoft Defender for Endpoint solution
 implement Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
 manage and monitor Microsoft Defender For Endpoint

Implement and manage device and application protection
 plan for device and application protection
 configure and manage Microsoft Defender Application Guard
 configure and manage Microsoft Defender Application Control
 configure and manage exploit protection
 configure Secure Boot
 configure and manage Windows device encryption
 configure and manage non-Windows device encryption
 plan for securing applications data on devices
 implement application protection policies

Implement and manage Microsoft Defender for Office 365
 configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365
 monitor Microsoft Defender for Office 365
 conduct simulated attacks using Attack Simulator

Monitor Microsoft 365 Security with Azure Sentinel
 plan and implement Azure Sentinel
 configure playbooks in Azure Sentinel
 manage and monitor Azure Sentinel
 respond to threats in Azure Sentinel

Implement and manage information protection (15-20%)
Secure data access within Office 365
 implement and manage Customer Lockbox
 configure data access in Office 365 collaboration workloads
 configure B2B sharing for external users

Manage sensitivity labels
 plan a sensitivity label solution
 configure sensitivity labels and policies.
 configure and use label analytics
 use sensitivity labels with Teams, Sharepoint, OneDrive and Office apps

Manage Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
 plan a DLP solution
 create and manage DLP policies
 create and manage sensitive information types
 monitor DLP reports
 manage DLP notifications

Implement and manage Microsoft Cloud App Security
 plan Cloud App Security implementation
 configure Microsoft Cloud App Security
 manage cloud app discovery
 manage entries in the Cloud app catalog
 manage apps in Cloud App Security
 manage Microsoft Cloud App Security
 configure Cloud App Security connectors and Oauth apps
 configure Cloud App Security policies and templates
 review, interpret and respond to Cloud App Security alerts, reports, dashboards and logs.

Manage governance and compliance features in Microsoft 365 (25-30%)
Configure and analyze security reporting
 monitor and manage device security status using Microsoft Endpoint Manager Admin Center.
 manage and monitor security and dashboards using Microsoft 365 Security Center
 plan for custom security reporting with Graph Security API
 use secure score dashboards to review actions and recommendations
 configure alert policies

Manage and analyze audit logs and reports
 plan for auditing and reporting
 perform audit log search
 review and interpret compliance reports and dashboards
 configure audit alert policy

Manage data governance and retention
 plan for data governance and retention
 review and interpret data governance reports and dashboards
 configure retention labels and policies
 define data governance event types
 define and manage communication compliance policies
 configure Information holds
 find and recover deleted Office 365 data
 configure data archiving
 manage inactive mailboxes

Manage search and investigation
 plan for content search and eDiscovery
 delegate permissions to use search and discovery tools
 use search and investigation tools to perform content searches
 export content search results
 manage eDiscovery cases

Manage data privacy regulation compliance
 plan for regulatory compliance in Microsoft 365
 review and interpret GDPR dashboards and reports
 manage Data Subject Requests (DSRs)
 administer Compliance Manager in Microsoft 365 compliance center
 review Compliance Manager reports
 create and perform Compliance Manager assessments and action items

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a user named User1. Several users have full access to the mailbox of User1.
Some email messages sent to User1 appear to have been read and deleted before the user viewed them.
When you search the audit log in Microsoft 365 Compliance to identify who signed in to the mailbox of User1, the results are blank.
You need to ensure that you can view future sign-ins to the mailbox of User1.
You run the Set-MailboxFolderPermission –Identity “User1”
-User User1@contoso.com –AccessRights Owner command.
Does that meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription.
You plan to audit all Microsoft Exchange Online user and admin activities.
You need to ensure that all the Exchange audit log records are retained for one year.
What should you do?

A. Modify the retention period of the default audit retention policy.
B. Create a custom audit retention policy.
C. Assign Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 licenses to all users.
D. Modify the record type of the default audit retention policy.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a team named Team1 in Microsoft Teams.
You plan to place all the content in Team1 on hold.
You need to identify which mailbox and which Microsoft SharePoint site collection are associated to Team1.
Which cmdlet should you use?

A. Get-UnifiedGroup
B. Get-MailUser
C. Get-Team
D. Get-TeamChannel

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have an Azure Sentinel workspace that has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) connector and a Microsoft Office 365 connector.
You need to use a Fusion rule template to detect multistage attacks in which users sign in by using
compromised credentials, and then delete multiple files from Microsoft OneDrive.
Based on the Fusion rule template, you create an active rule that has the default settings.
What should you do next?

A. Add data connectors.
B. Add a workbook.
C. Add a playbook.
D. Create a custom rule template.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and a hybrid Microsoft Exchange Server organization.
Each member of a group named Executive has an on-premises mailbox. Only the Executive group members
have multi-factor authentication (MFA) enabled. Each member of a group named Research has a mailbox in Exchange Online.
You need to use Microsoft Office 365 Attack simulator to model a spear-phishing attack that targets the Research group members.
The email addresses that you intend to spoof belong to the Executive group members.
What should you do first?

A. From the Azure ATP admin center, configure the primary workspace settings
B. From the Microsoft Azure portal, configure the user risk policy settings in Azure AD Identity Protection
C. Enable MFA for the Research group members
D. Migrate the Executive group members to Exchange Online

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION

You plan to add a file named ConfidentialHR.docx to a Microsoft SharePoint library.
You need to ensure that a user named Megan Bowen is notified when another user accesses ConfidentialHR.xlsx.
To complete this task, sign in to the Microsoft 365 portal.

Correct Answer: See explanation below.

Explanation:
You need to configure an alert policy.
1. Go to the Security & Compliance Admin Center.
2. Navigate to Alerts > Alert Policies.
3. Click on + New alert policy to create a new policy.
4. Give the policy a name and select a severity level. For example: Medium.
5. In the Category section, select Information Governance and click Next.
6. In the Select an activity section, select Any file or folder activity.
7. Click Add a condition and select File name.
8. Type in the filename ConfidentialHR.xlsx and click Next.
9. In the email recipients section, add Megan Bowen and click Next.
10.Click Finish to create the alert policy.

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VMware

5V0-21.21 VMware HCI Master Specialist Exam

July 17, 2021 Lindsay

Exam Info
Duration : 100 minutes
Number of Questions : 50
Passing Score : 300 Learn More
Format : Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored

EXAM OVERVIEW
The VMware HCI Master Specialist exam validates a candidate’s ability to deploy and manage a software-defined storage solution with VMware vSAN.

PREPARE FOR THE EXAM

Required Training
VMware vSAN: Management and Operations [V7](Required)
VMware vSAN: Management and Operations [V7] – On Demand (Required)
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7] [Required]
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7]-On Demand (Required)
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7] plus VMware vSAN: Troubleshooting [V6.6] Workshop (Required)
VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage [V6.7] plus VMware vSAN: Troubleshooting [V6.6] Workshop

Recommended training
VMware vSAN: Troubleshooting Workshop [V6.x] (Recommended)
VMware vSAN: Production Operations [V6.7] (Recommended)

Exam Details
The Master Specialist HCI exam (5V0-21.21), which leads to Master Specialist -HCI 2021certification, is a 55-itemexam with a passing score of 300, using a scaled method. Exam timeis 100 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is aproctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website

Badge Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware
Education Services – Certification website

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate will have achieved VCP-DCV and vSAN Specialist certification. Candidates should have 1 year of experience designing, configuring, managing, and upgrading VMware HCI environments. Candidates should be familiar with deployment and administration of VMs using Storage Policy-Based Management. Candidates should have intermediate knowledge of storage, storage hardware, monitoring, and remediation topics, as well as basic networking and security knowledge and must have completed the VMware vSAN: Deploy and Manage training. The MQC should have all of the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 –Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 –Products and Solutions
Section 3 –Planning and Designing
Section 4 –Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 –Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 –Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 –Administrative and Operational Task

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 -Architecture and Technologies -There are no testable objectives for this
Section 2 -VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 -Given a scenario, identify the VMware products and solutions that will interact with a vSAN solution.
Objective 2.2 -Given a scenario, identify the VMware products and solutions that will consume a vSAN solution.

Section 3 -Planning and Designing
Objective 3.1 -Given a scenario, identify the appropriate vSAN cluster design.
Objective 3.2 -Given a scenario, identify the appropriate vSAN services design. Objective 3.3 -Use vSAN design and sizing tools (sizing cache tier for workload; no of nodes; VM sizing; Live Optics; HCI Bench etc.)
Objective 3.3-Given a scenario, identify the implications of integrating VMware solutions with vSAN.
Objective 3.4-Given a scenario, identify how to plan and size a vSAN implementation.
Objective 3.5-Given a scenario, identify the use cases for an HCI Mesh infrastructure.

Section 4 -Installing, Configuring, and Setup-There are no testable objectives for this

Section 5 -Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades
Objective 5.1 -Given a scenario, identify the appropriate vSAN upgrade methodology.
Objective 5.2 -Given a scenario, identify how to apply the appropriate maintenance mode option.
Objective 5.3 -Given a scenario, identify the appropriate method for managing disks and disk groups.

Section 6 -Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 -Given a scenario, identify the appropriate action to recover from a vSAN or infrastructure failure.
Objective 6.2 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate action to troubleshoot performance issues in a vSAN deployment.
Objective 6.3 -Given a scenario, identify the steps to troubleshoot a stretched vSAN cluster. Objective 6.4 -Evaluate performance information in the UI and using vsantop

Section 7 -Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 -Identify vSAN data placement changes (stretched clusters, fault domains)
Objective 7.2 -Identify the operational tasks required to manage an encrypted vSAN.
Objective 7.3 -Given a scenario, identify the impact of making changes to a storage policy.
Objective 7.4–Given a scenario, identify the tasks to manage a stretched vSAN cluster.

QUESTION 1
In a stretched vSAN cluster, how is Read Locality established after fail over to the secondary site?

A. 100% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the local site
B. 50% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the local site
C. 100% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the remote site
D. 50% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the remote site

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In a vSAN stretched cluster, which value must be set in the vSAN policy if there is no requirement for data mirroring across sites?

A. SFTT = 0
B. SFTT = 1
C. PFTT = 1
D. PFTT = 0

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An architect needs to automate an infrastructure that supports VMware Horizon as well as VMware Tanzu.
Which solution mandates the use of VMware vSAN?

A. VMware Cloud Foundation
B. VMware Horizon
C. VMware Tanzu
D. VMware vRealize Automation

Correct Answer: D

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Tech

e-Biz+ EK0-001 CompTIA E-Biz+ Exam

July 16, 2021 Lindsay

CompTIA e-Biz+ Exam Details:
CompTIA’s e-Biz+ certification is an entry level certification that is suitable for both technical and non-technical professionals to certify their skills in e-business. The e-Biz+ exam focuses on e-business and technologies related to e-business. This certification certifies the knowledge of marketing and sales professionals with 12 months of e-business experience.

The job roles for e-Biz+ certified professionals typically include: marketing or sales professional, finance professional, customer service professional, business analyst and IT project manager
Exam Information

The required exam to be taken for this e-Biz+ certification is

Exam : EK0-002
Have you considered moving your skills and career path toward e-commerce? Does your company desire to build an e-commerce solution and they are looking to you as the constructor of the solution? Undeniably, e-commerce, and e-Business more specifically, is a growing and vibrant part of business. Many feel that the future of business lies in e-commerce and e-Business. More and more airlines rely on customers to book reservations online, e-Bay is one of the largest venues for buying or selling almost anything, and think of all the items one can buy on amazon.com! Certainly, doing business online is becoming more and more of a factor each day.

What skills does one need to be part of building e-commerce solutions? Many skills are needed from different areas of IT. Programmers are needed to develop everything from databases and business logic components to credit card structures and shopping carts. System administrators manage the systems and network infrastructures that allow the e-commerce sites to exist. Also, Web designers work to make the look, feel, and user interactivity of an e-commerce site perfect for business.

CompTIA, the makers of the popular A+, Network+, and Security+ exams, has created an entry-level, vendor-neutral certification named e-Biz+ that examines one’s ability to work in an e-Business environment. Let’s take a closer look at this certification to see what it can offer someone interested in working within an e-Business infrastructure.

The e-Biz+ Certification
The e-Biz+ program offers foundational training and certification to both business professionals and IT professionals. This certification is a bit unique because both technical and non-technical people in the e-Business profession are able to attain this credential. Both sets of potential candidates must have 12 months of core e-Business experience, though, to participate in this certification process. The e-Biz+ exam tests the candidates’ knowledge and abilities with key concepts, e-Business fundamentals, and essential technologies used in an effective e-Business solution. The exam is comprised of 70 identification and situational multiple-choice questions, 90 minutes are allotted to complete this exam, and a passing score of 67% correct must be obtained.

What’s on the e-Biz+ Exam?
Let’s take a look at what the exam contains. The exam has four subject area domains. The following table highlights the subject areas the e-Biz+ exam contains and the percentage each domain makes up of the total exam:

Domain % of Examination
1.0) e-Business Concepts and Fundamentals 20%
2.0) Business Initiatives for e-Business 17%
3.0) e-Business Strategy and Planning 35%
4.0) e-Business Infrastructure 28%

The following sections will brief you on typical items each domain contains. Always be sure to stay current with examination objectives by checking the exam vendor’s Web site. Exam objectives can and do change without much notice. Be sure to periodically check the e-Biz+ objectives list at www.comptia.com to ensure that expectations don’t change while you pursue this certification.

Domain 1.0—e-Business Concepts and Fundamentals
This section examines your knowledge of fundamental e-Business concepts and terms. It also examines your knowledge of business models, business concepts, legal issues in e-Business, and e-Business payment structures, among other items.

Domain 2.0—Business Initiatives for e-Business
This section assesses your knowledge of risks, opportunities, and advantages of implementing an e-Business infrastructure in a business. You also will be assessed in key deployment and support issues with implementing an e-Business system. Lastly, you will be asked to describe technology issues you and the customer must grapple with as you plan an e-Business.

Domain 3.0—e-Business Strategy and Planning
In this domain your knowledge of technologies, security, and disaster recovery will be tested. Issues related to marketing your e-Business and customer support are also examined, among other items. This section is heavily dependent on planning the appropriate technologies, business flows, marketing, and customer service mechanisms.

Domain 4.0—e-Business Infrastructure
This domain dives further into technological hardware, data communications, and security implementations. This domain is certainly more technical than the previous domains. Non-IT e-Biz+ candidates will have to spend considerable time learning about the hardware, protocols, and designs needed to build and maintain the knowledge management and business transactions needed in an effective e-Business.

e-Biz+ Facts
The following items are important facts to know as you prepare to take your e-Biz+ exam:

The e-Biz+ exam is offered through both Vue and Prometric testing services. Vue can be reached at www.vue.com and Prometric can be reached at www.2test.com.
The exam code for the e-Biz+ exam you need to give to Vue or Prometric is EK0-001.

The cost of the exam is dependent on the quantity you wish to purchase and your standing with CompTIA. The following table from www.comptia.com highlights the pricing matrix:

Quantity Corporate Member Pricing Non-Member Pricing
1-50 $175 $225
51-250 $150 $225
251+ $125 $225

If you passed this exam when the Gartner group offered it, you are still considered certified.

Conclusions
e-Business is certainly an ever-growing and changing area. With the recent downturn in the IT economy, many e-Business plans were altered or scrapped altogether. However, as the overall economy is picking up, e-Businesses may pick up as well. Many consumers find the ease of purchase and payment, delivery, and selection of well-designed e-Businesses to be appealing. If you have a desire to start an e-Business or if you would simply like to have some training and credentials in building e-Businesses, the e-Biz+ certification is a solid foundation to begin with. This exam will force you to know solid fundamentals in business concepts, technological concepts, and marketing concepts. Having this foundation is certainly a top-notch way to begin designing, building, implementing, and supporting world-class e-Businesses!

QUESTION 1
Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?

A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):

A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes spamming?

A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive your messages.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is called:

A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig’s event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?

A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting

Answer: B

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IBM

C1000-010 IBM Operational Decision Manager Standard V8.9.1 Application Development Exam

July 14, 2021 Lindsay

Number of questions: 61
Number of questions to pass: 46
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 5 sections described below. For more detail, please see the study guide on the Exam Preparation tab.

Development: Environment Set-up 9%
Install
Migrate

Development: Architecture 16%
Analyze business requirements
Plan the Architecture
Identify decisions, decision points, and business policies

Rule Designer 39%
Create Decision Service projects
Import the XOM
Create BOM and vocabulary
Add Decision Operations
Deploy RuleApp
Create Client Application
Create Ruleflow
Author rules and decision tables
Manage BOM update
Manage synchronization
Define and run queries

Decision Center 16%
Define Roles and Responsibilities
Secure Decision Center
Define decision governance framework
Set up Deployment from Decision Center
Enable and customize testing and simulations for business users
Understand branching and merging

Rule Execution Server 20%
Work with the RES REST API
Manage RuleApp and Ruleset Versioning policy
Integration
Use Decision Warehouse
Optimize Execution

QUESTION 1
What properly needs to be set in a BOM Configuration file to ignore elements present in the BOM class but missing from the XOM?

A. ignore.MissingXomElement
B. update.ignoreDifferences
C. update.ignoreMissingXomElement
D. update.ignoreMissingBomElement

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement describes the primary role of a developer in the discovery and analysis phase of a project?

A. Developers develop rules to produce an initial ruleset and object model.
B. Developers do not participate in discovery and analysis tasks.
C. Developers review the rule design document to confirm that terms used in the rules match the execution object model.
D. Developers work with business analysts to identify decision points in the business models and document the decision points table.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company wants to implement a business rules solution for warranty claims on their widgets. The customer requires
that servers should not store any information about the context of clients between calls and must have a strict
enforcement of objects, rules and constraints. The implementation must support complex operations and synchronous
calls. Integration with other services must be platform independent. What implementation best fits the customers requirements?

A. Use a local EJB rule session.
B. Implement an MDB with JSON format.
C. Use an HTDS SOAP web service and JSON format.
D. Implement a custom SOAP web service and XML format

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
How would the following rule be classified?
The total insured value of the vehicle IS DEFINED AS the vehicle base value +
Min (the value of vehicle accessories, 40% the vehicle base value)

A. Inference
B. Guideline
C. Constraint
D. Calculation

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which IRL function needs to be manually migrated to ARL?

A. reset ()
B. getCurrrentTask ()
C. setMainTask(String)
D. Tasklnstance.getTask ()

Answer: D

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Monthly Archives: July 2021