Monthly Archives: April 2023

Cisco

Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-401 ENCOR Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies

Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese

Associated certifications
CCNP Enterprise
CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure
CCIE Enterprise Wireless
Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Core

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to implementing core enterprise network technologies, including:

Dual stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture
Virtualization
Infrastructure
Network assurance
Security
Automation

Exam preparation Official Cisco training
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
ENCOR training videos
ENCOR study materials

Exam Description
To earn your CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, or CCIE Enterprise Wireless certification, you must pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam. This exam tests your knowledge of:

Exam Description:
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies v1.0 (ENCOR 350-401) is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing core enterprise network technologies including dual stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security and automation. The course, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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15% 1.0 Architecture
1.1 Explain the different design principles used in an enterprise network
1.1.a Enterprise network design such as Tier 2, Tier 3, and Fabric Capacity planning
1.1.b High availability techniques such as redundancy, FHRP, and SSO
1.2 Analyze design principles of a WLAN deployment
1.2.a Wireless deployment models (centralized, distributed, controller-less, controller based, cloud, remote branch)
1.2.b Location services in a WLAN design
1.3 Differentiate between on-premises and cloud infrastructure deployments
1.4 Explain the working principles of the Cisco SD-WAN solution
1.4.a SD-WAN control and data planes elements
1.4.b Traditional WAN and SD-WAN solutions
1.5 Explain the working principles of the Cisco SD-Access solution
1.5.a SD-Access control and data planes elements
1.5.b Traditional campus interoperating with SD-Access
1.6 Describe concepts of wired and wireless QoS
1.6.a QoS components
1.6.b QoS policy
1.7 Differentiate hardware and software switching mechanisms
1.7.a Process and CEF
1.7.b MAC address table and TCAM
1.7.c FIB vs. RIB

10% 2.0 Virtualization
2.1 Describe device virtualization technologies
2.1.a Hypervisor type 1 and 2
2.1.b Virtual machine
2.1.c Virtual switching
2.2 Configure and verify data path virtualization technologies
2.2.a VRF
2.2.b GRE and IPsec tunneling
2.3 Describe network virtualization concepts
2.3.a LISP
2.3.b VXLAN

30% 3.0 Infrastructure
3.1 Layer 2
3.1.a Troubleshoot static and dynamic 802.1q trunking protocols
3.1.b Troubleshoot static and dynamic EtherChannels
3.1.c Configure and verify common Spanning Tree Protocols (RSTP and MST)
3.2 Layer 3
3.2.a Compare routing concepts of EIGRP and OSPF (advanced distance vector vs. link state, load balancing, path selection, path operations, metrics)
3.2.b Configure and verify simple OSPF environments, including multiple normal areas, summarization, and filtering (neighbor adjacency, point-to-point and broadcast network types, and passive interface)
3.2.c Configure and verify eBGP between directly connected neighbors (best path selection algorithm and neighbor relationships)
3.3 Wireless
3.3.a Describe Layer 1 concepts, such as RF power, RSSI, SNR, interference noise, band and channels, and wireless client devices capabilities
3.3.b Describe AP modes and antenna types
3.3.c Describe access point discovery and join process (discovery algorithms, WLC selection process)
3.3.d Describe the main principles and use cases for Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
3.3.e Troubleshoot WLAN configuration and wireless client connectivity issues
3.4 IP Services
3.4.a Describe Network Time Protocol (NTP)
3.4.b Configure and verify NAT/PAT
3.4.c Configure first hop redundancy protocols, such as HSRP and VRRP
3.4.d Describe multicast protocols, such as PIM and IGMP v2/v3

10% 4.0 Network Assurance
4.1 Diagnose network problems using tools such as debugs, conditional debugs, trace route, ping, SNMP, and syslog
4.2 Configure and verify device monitoring using syslog for remote logging
4.3 Configure and verify NetFlow and Flexible NetFlow
4.4 Configure and verify SPAN/RSPAN/ERSPAN
4.5 Configure and verify IPSLA
4.6 Describe Cisco DNA Center workflows to apply network configuration, monitoring, and management
4.7 Configure and verify NETCONF and RESTCONF

20% 5.0 Security
5.1 Configure and verify device access control
5.1.a Lines and password protection
5.1.b Authentication and authorization using AAA
5.2 Configure and verify infrastructure security features
5.2.a ACLs
5.2.b CoPP
5.3 Describe REST API security
5.4 Configure and verify wireless security features
5.4.a EAP
5.4.b WebAuth
5.4.c PSK
5.5 Describe the components of network security design
5.5.a Threat defense
5.5.b Endpoint security
5.5.c Next-generation firewall
5.5.d TrustSec, MACsec
5.5.e Network access control with 802.1X, MAB, and WebAuth

15% 6.0 Automation
6.1 Interpret basic Python components and scripts
6.2 Construct valid JSON encoded file
6.3 Describe the high-level principles and benefits of a data modeling language, such as YANG
6.4 Describe APIs for Cisco DNA Center and vManage
6.5 Interpret REST API response codes and results in payload using Cisco DNA Center and RESTCONF
6.6 Construct EEM applet to automate configuration, troubleshooting, or data collection
6.7 Compare agent vs. agentless orchestration tools, such as Chef, Puppet, Ansible, and SaltStack

QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of YANG? (Choose two.)

A. It enforces the use of a specific encoding format for NETCONF.
B. It collects statistical constraint analysis information.
C. It enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf list.
D. It enforces configuration semantics.
E. It enforces configuration constraints.

Answer: A, E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP legs in. Which configuration change is required?

A. Add the access-class keyword to the username command
B. Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command
C. Add the autocommand keyword to the username command
D. Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs .
Which action reduces the user impact?

A. increase the AP heartbeat timeout
B. increase BandSelect
C. enable coverage hole detection
D. increase the dynamic channel assignment interval

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is used to perform OoS packet classification?

A. the Options field in the Layer 3 header
B. the Type field in the Layer 2 frame
C. the Flags field in the Layer 3 header
D. the TOS field in the Layer 3 header

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

A. 1500
B. 9100
C. 4464
D. 17914

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two network problems Indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.)

A. port flapping
B. excess jitter
C. misrouted network packets
D. duplicate IP addresses
E. bandwidth-related packet loss

Answer: B, E

QUESTION 7
A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?

A. Autonomous
B. Mobility Express
C. SD-Access wireless
D. Local mode

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which method of account authentication does OAuth 2.0 within REST APIs?

A. username/role combination
B. access tokens
C. cookie authentication
D. basic signature workflow

Answer: B

Amazon

DOP-C02 AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional Exam

DOP-C02 AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional Exam

The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional showcases individuals’ technical expertise in provisioning, operating, and managing distributed application systems on the AWS platform, giving them increased confidence and credibility with peers, stakeholders, and customers. Organizations with these qualified professionals can ensure speedy delivery of secure, compliant, systems that are highly available and scalable.

Did you know? Job listings requiring this certification have increased by 52% between Oct 2021 and Sept 2022 (source: Lightcast™ September 2022).

Exam overview
Level: Professional
Length: 180 minutes to complete the exam
Format: 75 questions, either multiple choice or multiple response.

Recommended AWS knowledge
The target candidate has the following:
• Experience in building highly automated infrastructure
• Experience in administering operating systems
• Experience with modern development and operations processes and methodologies
• Experience in securing AWS infrastructure


Exam Topics
Domain 1: SDLC Automation 22%
Domain 2: Configuration Management and IaC 17%
Domain 3: Resilient Cloud Solutions 15%
Domain 4: Monitoring and Logging 15%
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 14%
Domain 6: Security and Compliance 17%
TOTAL 100%

Who should take this exam?
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional is intended for individuals with two or more years of experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments. Before you take this exam, we recommend you have:

Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language; building highly automated infrastructures; and administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Ability to implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Ability to implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance validation
Ability to define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS

What does it take to earn this certification?
To earn this certification, you’ll need to take and pass the AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional exam (DOP-C02). The exam features a combination of two question formats: multiple choice and multiple response. Additional information, such as the exam content outline and passing score, is in the exam guide.

Review sample questions that demonstrate the format of the questions used on this exam and include rationales for the correct answers.

Prepare for your exam
You’ve set your goal. Now it’s time to build knowledge and skills to propel your career. Check out these resources from AWS Training and Certification that are relevant to AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional. We don’t require that you take any specific training before you take an exam. These recommended resources are opportunities to learn from the experts at AWS.

Additional resources – including AWS Builder Labs and game-based learning to complement your prep – are available with a subscription on AWS Skill Builder.

Select a resource type from the section below to learn more.

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QUESTION 1
A company has a mobile application that makes HTTP API calls to an Application Load Balancer (ALB).
The ALB routes requests to an AWS Lambda function. Many different versions of the application are
in use at any given time, including versions that are in testing by a subset of users. The version of the
application is defined in the user-agent header that is sent with all requests to the API.
After a series of recent changes to the API, the company has observed issues with the application.
The company needs to gather a metric for each API operation by response code for each version of
the application that is in use. A DevOps engineer has modified the Lambda function to extract the
API operation name, version information from the user-agent header and response code.
Which additional set of actions should the DevOps engineer take to gather the required metrics?

A. Modify the Lambda function to write the API operation name, response code, and version number
as a log line to an Amazon CloudWatch Logs log group. Configure a CloudWatch Logs metric filter that
increments a metric for each API operation name. Specify response code and application version as
dimensions for the metric.

B. Modify the Lambda function to write the API operation name, response code, and version number
as a log line to an Amazon CloudWatch Logs log group. Configure a CloudWatch Logs Insights query
to populate CloudWatch metrics from the log lines. Specify response code and application version as
dimensions for the metric.

C. Configure the ALB access logs to write to an Amazon CloudWatch Logs log group. Modify the
Lambda function to respond to the ALB with the API operation name, response code, and version
number as response metadata. Configure a CloudWatch Logs metric filter that increments a metric
for each API operation name. Specify response code and application version as dimensions for the metric.

D. Configure AWS X-Ray integration on the Lambda function. Modify the Lambda function to create
an X-Ray subsegment with the API operation name, response code, and version number. Configure XRay
insights to extract an aggregated metric for each API operation name and to publish the metric
to Amazon CloudWatch. Specify response code and application version as dimensions for the metric.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company provides an application to customers. The application has an Amazon API Gateway REST
API that invokes an AWS Lambda function. On initialization, the Lambda function loads a large
amount of data from an Amazon DynamoDB table. The data load process results in long cold-start
times of 8-10 seconds. The DynamoDB table has DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) configured.
Customers report that the application intermittently takes a long time to respond to requests. The
application receives thousands of requests throughout the day. In the middle of the day, the
application experiences 10 times more requests than at any other time of the day. Near the end of
the day, the application’s request volume decreases to 10% of its normal total.
A DevOps engineer needs to reduce the latency of the Lambda function at all times of the day.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Configure provisioned concurrency on the Lambda function with a concurrency value of 1. Delete the DAX cluster for the DynamoDB table.
B. Configure reserved concurrency on the Lambda function with a concurrency value of 0.
C. Configure provisioned concurrency on the Lambda function. Configure AWS Application Auto Scaling on the Lambda function with provisioned concurrency values set to a minimum of 1 and a maximum of 100.
D. Configure reserved concurrency on the Lambda function. Configure AWS Application Auto Scaling on the API Gateway API with a reserved concurrency maximum value of 100.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A company is adopting AWS CodeDeploy to automate its application deployments for a Java-Apache
Tomcat application with an Apache Webserver. The development team started with a proof of
concept, created a deployment group for a developer environment, and performed functional tests
within the application. After completion, the team will create additional deployment groups for
staging and production.
The current log level is configured within the Apache settings, but the team wants to change this
configuration dynamically when the deployment occurs, so that they can set different log level
configurations depending on the deployment group without having a different application revision
for each group.
How can these requirements be met with the LEAST management overhead and without requiring
different script versions for each deployment group?

A. Tag the Amazon EC2 instances depending on the deployment group. Then place a script into the
application revision that calls the metadata service and the EC2 API to identify which deployment
group the instance is part of. Use this information to configure the log level settings. Reference the
script as part of the AfterInstall lifecycle hook in the appspec.yml file.

B. Create a script that uses the CodeDeploy environment variable DEPLOYMENT_GROUP_ NAME to
identify which deployment group the instance is part of. Use this information to configure the log
level settings. Reference this script as part of the BeforeInstall lifecycle hook in the appspec.yml file.

C. Create a CodeDeploy custom environment variable for each environment. Then place a script into
the application revision that checks this environment variable to identify which deployment group
the instance is part of. Use this information to configure the log level settings. Reference this script as
part of the ValidateService lifecycle hook in the appspec.yml file.

D. Create a script that uses the CodeDeploy environment variable DEPLOYMENT_GROUP_ID to
identify which deployment group the instance is part of to configure the log level settings. Reference
this script as part of the Install lifecycle hook in the appspec.yml file.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company requires its developers to tag all Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes in an
account to indicate a desired backup frequency. This requirement Includes EBS volumes that do not
require backups. The company uses custom tags named Backup_Frequency that have values of none,
dally, or weekly that correspond to the desired backup frequency. An audit finds that developers are
occasionally not tagging the EBS volumes.
A DevOps engineer needs to ensure that all EBS volumes always have the Backup_Frequency tag so
that the company can perform backups at least weekly unless a different value is specified.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Set up AWS Config in the account. Create a custom rule that returns a compliance failure for all
Amazon EC2 resources that do not have a Backup Frequency tag applied. Configure a remediation
action that uses a custom AWS Systems Manager Automation runbook to apply the
Backup_Frequency tag with a value of weekly.

B. Set up AWS Config in the account. Use a managed rule that returns a compliance failure for
EC2::Volume resources that do not have a Backup Frequency tag applied. Configure a remediation
action that uses a custom AWS Systems Manager Automation runbook to apply the
Backup_Frequency tag with a value of weekly.

C. Turn on AWS CloudTrail in the account. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to EBS
CreateVolume events. Configure a custom AWS Systems Manager Automation runbook to apply the
Backup_Frequency tag with a value of weekly. Specify the runbook as the target of the rule.

D. Turn on AWS CloudTrail in the account. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to EBS
CreateVolume events or EBS ModifyVolume events. Configure a custom AWS Systems Manager
Automation runbook to apply the Backup_Frequency tag with a value of weekly. Specify the runbook
as the target of the rule.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company is using an Amazon Aurora cluster as the data store for its application. The Aurora cluster
is configured with a single DB instance. The application performs read and write operations on the
database by using the cluster’s instance endpoint.
The company has scheduled an update to be applied to the cluster during an upcoming maintenance
window. The cluster must remain available with the least possible interruption during the
maintenance window.
What should a DevOps engineer do to meet these requirements?

A. Add a reader instance to the Aurora cluster. Update the application to use the Aurora cluster
endpoint for write operations. Update the Aurora cluster’s reader endpoint for reads.

B. Add a reader instance to the Aurora cluster. Create a custom ANY endpoint for the cluster. Update
the application to use the Aurora cluster’s custom ANY endpoint for read and write operations.

C. Turn on the Multi-AZ option on the Aurora cluster. Update the application to use the Aurora cluster
endpoint for write operations. Update the Aurora cluster’s reader endpoint for reads.

D. Turn on the Multi-AZ option on the Aurora cluster. Create a custom ANY endpoint for the cluster.
Update the application to use the Aurora cluster’s custom ANY endpoint for read and write
operations.

Answer: B

Huawei

Huawei H12-731_V2.0 HCIE-Security (Written) V2.0 Exam

The H12-731_V2.0 exam is also known as HCIE-Security (Written) exam, and it is one of the highest-level certification exams offered by Huawei. This exam validates the candidate’s advanced knowledge and skills in security technologies and solutions.

Here are some details about the exam:
Exam code: H12-731_V2.0
Exam name: HCIE-Security (Written)
Exam duration: 3 hours
Exam format: Multiple choice
Number of questions: 100
Exam language: English

The exam covers a wide range of security technologies and solutions, including network security, application security, security management, and more. Here are the exam topics:
Security Threats and Trends
Network Security
Security of Applications and Data
Security Management and Audit
Security Technologies and Solutions

To prepare for the H12-731_V2.0 exam, it is recommended to take Huawei’s HCIE-Security training course, which covers the exam objectives in-depth and provides hands-on practice. Additionally, candidates can use Huawei’s study materials, such as exam guides, case studies, and whitepapers, to supplement their learning. Finally, candidates should also practice with sample exam questions and take mock exams to test their knowledge and build confidence for the actual exam.

The H12-731_V2.0 HCIE-Security (Written) exam is intended for security professionals who want to demonstrate their advanced knowledge and skills in security technologies and solutions. This exam is best suited for:
Experienced security engineers
Security consultants
Security managers
Security architects
Network administrators
System administrators

To take this exam, candidates should have a strong foundation in network security, including firewalls, VPNs, IPS/IDS, and other security technologies. Additionally, candidates should have experience in security management, risk management, and compliance and audit. It is recommended that candidates also have at least three to five years of work experience in security-related roles before attempting this exam.

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QUESTION 1
When personal privacy information is violated or leaked How to deal with the adoption of self-help measures?

A. Require the infringer to stop the infringement.
B. Obtain privacy information of infringers and warn them.
C. Call the police and ask the public security authorities to deal with it.
D. Filing a lawsuit in the people’s court.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
According to the requirements of Graded Protection 2.0, the scope of security audits should cover not only every operating system user on the server, but also which of the following

A. Database user
B. Monitor users
C. Configure the user
D. Non-admin users

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Databases often store important information about the enterprise, and hackers try to gain profits by destroying servers and databases Therefore. Securing databases is becoming increasingly important.
Which of the following are common database political methods?
A. SQL injection
B. Privilege elevation
C. Eliminate unpatched database vulnerabilities
D. Steal backed-up (unencrypted) tapes
E. Brute force weak password or default username and password

Answer: ABCDE

QUESTION 4
JDBC is a mechanism for Java applications to talk to various different databases, and ODEC, similar to JDEC, is also an important database access technology.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In the Cloudabric scenario, which of the following ways is the firewall deployed?

A. One machine deployment
B. Primary/standby dual-machine images
C. Dual machine load sharing
D. Hot standby for both active and standby machines

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following options is not included in the data theft phase of HiSec Insight?

A Ping Tunnel detection
B. DNS Turnel detection
C. Traffic base anomaly detection
D. Web anomaly detection

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
When Hisec Insight is linked with terminals, it is mainly linked with the EDR of third-party vendors with cooperative relationships.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Answer: A

Tech

156-835 Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam

The Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam (156-835) is intended for IT professionals who have experience with Check Point’s Hyperscale Network Security solution, Check Point Maestro. This exam is designed for individuals who are responsible for deploying, managing, and troubleshooting large-scale network security environments using Check Point Maestro.

Typical candidates for this exam may include network administrators, security administrators, security engineers, and network architects who are responsible for designing, implementing, and managing large and complex network security infrastructures. To take the exam, candidates should have a strong understanding of networking concepts, network security principles, and Check Point Maestro architecture and functionality.

If you are interested in pursuing a career in network security or you are responsible for managing large-scale network security environments using Check Point Maestro, the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam may be a good fit for you.

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However, Certkingdom can give you an idea of the topics and concepts that are covered on the exam. According to Check Point, the exam covers the following topics:
Check Point Maestro Overview
Planning and Deployment of Check Point Maestro
Check Point Maestro Architecture and Components
Check Point Maestro Management and Operations
Check Point Maestro High Availability and Disaster Recovery
Check Point Maestro Security Management

To prepare for the exam, you should study these topics in-depth and review official Check Point training materials and study guides. You can also take practice exams and participate in online forums to test your knowledge and connect with other professionals.

The Check Point Certified Maestro Expert (156-835) exam is designed to validate the skills and knowledge of candidates in deploying, managing, and troubleshooting Check Point Maestro, a Hyperscale Network Security solution.

Here are some key details about the 156-835 exam:
Exam format: The exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions and is administered online through Pearson VUE.
Time limit: Candidates have 120 minutes (2 hours) to complete the exam.
Passing score: To pass the exam, candidates must score at least 70%.
Prerequisites: Candidates must have a valid Check Point Certified Maestro Administrator certification before taking the exam.

Exam objectives:
The exam covers a range of topics related to Check Point Maestro, including architecture and deployment, management and administration, monitoring and troubleshooting, and advanced features and optimization.

Exam preparation: To prepare for the exam, Check Point recommends attending the Check Point Maestro Expert Training course, which covers the exam objectives in detail. Additionally, candidates can use the official Check Point study guide and practice exams, as well as other training resources and online forums.

Certification validity: The Check Point Certified Maestro Expert certification is valid for two years. Candidates must recertify by passing a relevant exam or completing continuing education credits before the certification expiration date.

To prepare for the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam (156-835), you can use a variety of resources, including official Check Point training courses, study guides, practice exams, and online forums. Here are some options:

Check Point Maestro Expert Training: Check Point offers an official training course designed to prepare candidates for the exam. This course covers the exam objectives in detail and provides hands-on practice with Check Point Maestro. You can attend this training either in-person or online.

Check Point Certification Study Guides: Check Point also offers official study guides that cover the exam objectives in detail. These guides include practice questions and answers to help you prepare for the exam.

Practice Exams: Check Point offers official practice exams that simulate the actual exam experience. These exams include questions and answers that are similar to what you can expect on the actual exam.

Online Forums: You can also find online forums where you can connect with other Check Point professionals and discuss exam preparation strategies, ask questions, and share experiences.

By using a combination of these resources, you can increase your chances of passing the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Exam and gaining valuable skills and knowledge in Check Point Maestro.

 

QUESTION 1
For a VSX configuration -“ Which statement is wrong?

A. All Virtual Systems exist on the SMO
B. All Virtual Systems exist on all Appliances
C. VSX configuration is the same on all Appliances within the same Security Group
D. Each Appliance owns different Virtual Systems

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
There are two 10Gbps dual-port NIC installed on a 6800 appliance. Which interfaces should be connected to Orchestrator 1 for downlinks’ intra-orchestrator redundancy when using two Orchestrators?

A. Port 1 in Slot 1 and Port 2 in Slot 1
B. Port 1 in Slot 2 and Port 2 in Slot 1
C. Any pair of available ports
D. Port 1 in Slot 1 and Port 1 in Slot 2

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of RJ-45 connectors located at the front panel of the Orchestrator MHO-170?

A. Two Out-of-band interfaces for access to Orchestrator itself
B. Out-of-band interface for access to Orchestrator itself and Serial Console connector
C. 1Gbps connectivity for Security Groups
D. Reserved for internal purposes. Not in use

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Splitter cannot be used __________.

A. To connect single port on orchestrator to multiple Appliances
B. To connect single port on Appliance to multiple ports on the orchestrator
C. To connect single port on orchestrator to the same Appliance
D. To connect single port on orchestrator to multiple port on external switch

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What will happen in case of NAT of the traffic passing through Management network?

A. This traffic will not pass correction, since it will be dropped
B. This traffic will pass with no inspection
C. Since Management traffic is always going to SMO, it will take a care for Correction Layer and will re-distribute traffic to other Appliances
D. Orchestrator will disable NAT and traffic will pass with no issue

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
One single Appliance supports 1M concurrent connections. How many concurrent connections will support Security Group of 2 Appliances?

A. 2M
B. 500K
C. 4M
D. 1M

Answer: A

Tech

NSE7_EFW-7.0 Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 7.0 Exam Dumps

Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 7.0

Exam series: NSE7_EFW-7.0
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 7.0.1, FortiManager 7.0.1, FortiAnalyzer 7.0.1
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 7 Certification
The Fortinet Network Security Architect designation identifies your advanced skills in deploying, administering, and troubleshooting Fortinet security solutions. Fortinet recommends this certification for network and security
professionals who are involved in the advanced administration and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0
The Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 7 Network Security Architect program, and recognizes the Successful candidate’s knowledge and expertise with Fortinet solutions in enterprise security
infrastructure environments.

The exam tests applied knowledge of the integration, administration, troubleshooting, and central management of an enterprise Firewall solution composed of FortiOS 7.0.1, FortiManager 7.0.1, and FortiAnalyzer 7.0.1.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0 exam is intended for network and security professionals who are responsible for the design, administration, and support of an enterprise security infrastructure composed of many

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FortiGate devices.
Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 7—Enterprise Firewall 7.0
Exam series NSE7_EFW-7.0
Time allowed 60 minutes
Exam questions 35 multiple-choice questions
Language English and Japanese
Product version FortiOS 7.0.1, FortiManager 7.0.1, FortiAnalyzer 7.0.1

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
* System and session troubleshooting
* Implement the Fortinet Security Fabric
* Diagnose and troubleshoot resource problems using built-in tools
* Diagnose and troubleshoot connectivity problems using built-in tools
* Troubleshoot different operation modes for a FGCP HA cluster
* central management
* Troubleshoot central management issues
* Content inspection
* Troubleshoot FortiGuard issues
* Troubleshoot web filtering issues
* Troubleshoot the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
* Routing
* Troubleshoot routing packets using static routes
* Troubleshoot Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing for enterprise traffic
* Troubleshoot OSPF routing for enterprise traffic
* VPN
* Implement a meshed or partially redundant IPsec VPN
* Troubleshoot Autodiscovery VPN (ADVPN) to enable on-demand VPN tunnels between sites

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 7 Enterprise Firewall
* NSE 4 FortiGate Security
* NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure
* NSE 5 FortiManager
* NSE 5 FortiAnalyzer

Other Resources
* Fortinet Technical Documentation
* Fortinet Knowledge Base

Experience
You should be familiar with the design, administration, and support of an enterprise security infrastructure using FortiGate devices.

Exam Sample Questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit, which contains partial output from an IKE real-time debug.
The administrator does not have access to the remote gateway.
Based on the debug output, which configuration change can the administrator make to the local gateway to resolve the phase 1 negotiation error?

A. In the phase 1 network configuration, set the IKE version to 2.
B. In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AES128-SHA128 to the list of encryption algorithms.
C. In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AESCBC-SHA2 to the list of encryption algorithms.
D. In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AES256-SHA256 to the list of encryption algorithms.

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit, which shows the output of a web filtering diagnose command.
Which configuration change would result in non-zero results in the cache statistics section?

A. set server-type rating under config system central-management
B. set webfilter-cache enable under config system fortiguard
C. set webfilter-force-off disable under config system fortiguard
D. set ngfw-mode policy-based under config system settings

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibits, which show the configuration on FortiGate and partial session information for
internet traffic from a user on the internal network.
If the priority on route ID 2 were changed from 10 to 0, what would happen to traffic matching that user session?

A. The session would remain in the session table, but its traffic would now egress from both port1 and port2.
B. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port2.
C. The session would be deleted, and the client would need to start a new session.
D. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibits, which show the configuration on FortiGate and partial internet session information from a user on the internal network.
An administrator would like to test session failover between the two service provider connections.
What changes must the administrator make to force this existing session to immediately start using
the other interface? (Choose two.)

A. Configure set snat-route-change enable.
B. Change the priority of the port2 static route to 5.
C. Change the priority of the port1 static route to 11.
D. unset snat-route-change to return it to the default setting.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
What are two functions of automation stitches? (Choose two.)

A. Automation stitches can be configured on any FortiGate device in a Security Fabric environment.
B. An automation stitch configured to execute actions sequentially can take parameters from previous actions as input for the current action.
C. Automation stitches can be created to run diagnostic commands and attach the results to an email message when CPU or memory usage exceeds specified thresholds.
D. An automation stitch configured to execute actions in parallel can be set to insert a specific delay between actions.

Answer: BC

SAP

C_SACP_2302 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP Analytics Cloud: Planning Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 60 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 73%
Duration: 120 mins
Languages: English

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Description
The “SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP Analytics Cloud: Planning” certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental and core knowledge required of the SAP Analytics Cloud Planning Consultant profile. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and technical skills to participate as a member of a project team. This certification is recommended as an associate level qualification . The certificate issued for passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Introduction, dimensions, and planning models > 12%
Design, build, and maintain dimensions and models to meet various planning requirements.
SACP21 (SAC 2023.2)

Core planning functionality > 12%
Configure and use planning features to input data, distribute data, simulate, and analyze currencies.
SACP21 (SAC 2023.2)

Forecasting, collaboration, and process control > 12%
Use and configure predictive forecast, smart predict, rolling forecasts, and value driver trees.
SACP21 (SAC 2023.2)

Data actions and allocation processes > 12%
Configure, use, and schedule data actions and allocations.
SACP21 (SAC 2023.2)
General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.
Security Guidelines

 

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about the SAP Analytics Cloud Planning workspace is true?

A. The workspace includes multiple tabs for different data sources.
B. The workspace includes a single tab for all data sources.
C. The workspace includes a separate tab for each planning model.
D. The workspace does not support multiple tabs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In SAP Analytics Cloud Planning, which of the following formula functions can be used to round a number to a specific number of decimal places?

A. ROUNDUP
B. ROUNDDOWN
C. ROUNDTO
D. ROUNDMATH

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following formula operators in SAP Analytics Cloud Planning is used to add two or more values together?

A. +
B. –
C. *
D. /

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In SAP Analytics Cloud Planning, which of the following formula components is used to filter data based on certain criteria?

A. Function
B. Dimension
C. Operator
D. Member

Answer: A

SAP

C_IBP_2302 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP IBP for Supply Chain (2302)

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 60%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

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Description
The “SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP IBP for Supply Chain (2302)” certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the basic knowledge in the area of the SAP supply chain planning. This certificate proves that the candidate has a basic overall understanding within this consultant profile of the industry solutions, and can implement this knowledge practically in projects under guidance of an experienced consultant. It is recommended as an entry-level qualification to allow consultants to get acquainted with the fundamentals of SAP Integrated Business Planning. Please note that this 2302 version of the exam takes part in the Stay Current with SAP Global Certification program. Once you pass this version of the exam, make sure that you start your stay current process. You will be required to take the quarterly stay current assessment for all subsequent SAP IBP releases via the SAP Learning Hub starting with the 2305 release to maintain your SAP IBP consultant certification status and badge. In order to participate in the stay current program and access the stay current enablement and assessment, you will need at minimum an SAP Learning Hub, edition for IoT and Digital Supply Chain subscription. (https://training.sap.com/learninghub)

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

User Interface > 12%
Use the Fiori Launchpad to customize the UI, work with Excel UI
IBP100
IBP110
IBP200

General Configuration of a Planning Area > 12%
Display, create, copy, edit, check, and activate a planning area.
IBP200
IBP300

Key Figures & Attributes > 12%
Create and use key figures and attributes to model the supply chain.
IBP200
IBP300

Planning Operators & Application Jobs > 12%
Configure and use Planning Operators to automate processes in your planning model.
IBP200
IBP300
IBP700

Model Supply Processes > 12%
Configure supply planning, run various solvers to generate planning results
IBP200
IBP700

Solution Architecture & Data Integration 8% – 12%
Optimize the integration scenarios and architecture of your planning solution.
IBP100
IBP200
IBP300
IBP700

Model Sales & Operations Processes < 8%
Describe how IBP extends the logic of S&OP in the network using advanced demand and supply planning integrated with financial plans.
IBP200

Analytics and Reporting < 8%
Define and view information with user-defined charts and dashboards.
IBP200

Demand Planning < 8%
Create and transform forecasts in your planning model.
IBP100
IBP200

Master Data < 8%
Optimize inventory in the supply chain utilizing algorithms that derive inventory targets.
IBP200

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.
Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about the SAP Analytics Cloud Planning workspace is true?

A. The workspace includes multiple tabs for different data sources.
B. The workspace includes a single tab for all data sources.
C. The workspace includes a separate tab for each planning model.
D. The workspace does not support multiple tabs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In SAP Analytics Cloud Planning, which of the following formula functions can be used to round a number to a specific number of decimal places?

A. ROUNDUP
B. ROUNDDOWN
C. ROUNDTO
D. ROUNDMATH

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following formula operators in SAP Analytics Cloud Planning is used to add two or morevalues together?

A. +
B. –
C. *
D. /

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In SAP Analytics Cloud Planning, which of the following formula components is used to filter data based on certain criteria?

A. Function
B. Dimension
C. Operator
D. Member

Answer: A

SAP

C_TS4FI_2021 SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP S/4HANA for Financial Accounting Associates (SAP S/4HANA 2021) Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 63%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: German, English, Spanish, French, Japanese, Portuguese, Chinese

Description
PLEASE NOTE: This certification has been published for early adopters. Some recommended “ways to attain” are not yet available. – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – -The “SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP S/4HANA for Financial Accounting Associates (SAP S/4HANA 2021)” certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of SAP S/4HANA Financial Accounting. It tests that the candidate has a good overall understanding within this consultant profile and can implement this knowledge practically in projects under the guidance of an experienced consultant. It is recommended as an entry-level qualification to allow consultants to get acquainted within Financial Accounting projects. This certificate is the ideal starting point for a professional career as a Financial Accounting consultant on SAP S/4HANA. If experience in SAP implementation projects of Financial Accounting are added over years, a professional career can be validated by taking a second exam: “SAP Certified Application Professional – Financials in SAP S/4HANA for SAP ERP Financials experts”. The certificate issued for passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

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Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.

You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Financial Closing > 12%
Perform month and year-end closing in Financial Accounting (exchange rate valuation, post provisions etc.), create balance sheet, create profit and loss statements, monitor closing operations using the Financial Closing Cockpit, post accruals with accrual documents and recurring entry documents, and manage posting periods.

TS4F02 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
or
S4F15 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4F17 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

General Ledger Accounting > 12%
Create and maintain general ledger accounts, exchange rates, bank master data and define house banks. Create and reverse general ledger transfer postings, post cross-company code transactions, create profit centers and segments. Clear an account and define and use a chart of accounts. Maintain tolerances, tax codes, and post documents with document splitting.

TS4F01 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
or
S4F12 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4F13 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Accounts Payable & Accounts Receivable > 12%
Create and maintain business partners, post invoices and payments and use special g/l transactions, reverse invoices and payments, block open invoices for payment, configure the payment program, and manage partial payments. Define the customizing settings for the Payment Medium Workbench, use the debit balance check for handling payments, define terms of payment and payment types, explain the connection of customers to vendors, describe integration with procurement and sales.

TS4F01 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
or
S4F12 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4F13 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Asset Accounting > 12%
Create and maintain charts of depreciation and the depreciation areas, asset classes, asset master data, and configure and perform FI-AA business processes in the SAP system. Set up valuation and depreciation, perform periodic and year-end closing processes, and explain and configure parallel accounting.

TS4F02 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
or
S4F15 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4F17 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Organizational Assignments and Process Integration > 12%
Manage Organizational Units, currencies, configure Validations and Document Types, utilize Reporting Tools, configure Substitutions, and manage Number ranges.

TS4F01 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
or
S4F12 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4F13 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

Overview and Deployment of SAP S/4HANA < 8%
Explain the SAP HANA Architecture and describe the SAP S/4HANA scope and deployment options.

TS4F01 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
or
S4F12 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)
S4F13 (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as “Topic Areas” and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

QUESTION 1
Which fields of a financial accounting document influence the automatic payment program?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this questions.

A. Payment method
B. Payment transaction
C. Payment type
D. Term of payment
E. Baseline date

Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION 2
What do you need to do to configure a new exchange rate type in SAP SHANA?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. Maintain exchange rates daily.
B. Set up the relationship between currencies using translation ratios.
C. Specify the company code currency as the base currency.
D. Specify a purpose for the exchange rate type.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION 3
What does the document splitting funtion do?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. It enriches all relevant balance sheet account lines with the defined splitting characteristics.
B. It ensure that you can create complete financial reports per profit center if it is required by the business.
C. It enable the automatic creation of additional posting documents for each defined splitting characteristics.
D. It enriches all customer and vendor line items with the defined splitting characteristics in the relevant subledgers.

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 4
Your SAP S4/HANA system is integrated with controlling, You perform cost-of-sales accounting and you profit and loss per profit center.
When posting a supplier invoice to a primary cost account, wich field is mandatory by standard procedures?

A. Functional area
B. Segment
C. Business area
D. Profitability segment

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which statement best describe extension ledgers in SAP SHANA?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. Multiple extension ledgers can point to the same underlying ledger
B. Extension ledgers can be assigned their own fiscal year variant
C. Extension ledgers can be assigned their own posting period variant
D. Extension ledgers can have different currencies than the underlying ledger

Answer: A, C

QUESTION 6
You are responsible for implementing Asset Accounting. You are provided with the legacy data of
various assets and their grouping information based on classifications, useful life, and depreciation terms.
What configuration step would you initiate to maintain these categories in SAP SHANA?

A. Define depreciation areas for each category of legacy asset.
B. Define depreciation areas to transfer all the legacy data.
C. Define asset classes and maintain their attributes.
D. Define depreciation keys and calculation keys.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is technical year-end closing activity in SAP S4/HANA?

A. Foreign currency valuation must be posted
B. Accruals must be posted
C. Balance sheet adjustments must be posted
D. Ledger balances must be carried forward

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements are valid for financial document number ranges?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this questions.

A. The same financial document number range can be assigned to several document type
B. All financial document number ranges can contain numbers and/or letters
C. Financial document number ranges defined at client level should NOT overlap
D. Financial document number ranges are defined at company code level
E. Financial document number ranges must be defined for the year in which they are used

Cisco

200-901 DevNet Associate (DEVASC) Exam Dumps PDF

The Cisco Certified DevNet Associate exam certifies basic network application abilities such as software development and design for Cisco platforms. The CCNA DevNet course is designed for software developers who wish to improve their programmability, software, and automation abilities.

DevOps training can help Network Engineers start their automation journey because they understand the network better.

200-901 DEVASC
Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Associated certification : DevNet Associate

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

Network fundamentals
Network access
IP connectivity
IP services
Security fundamentals
Automation and programmability

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training
Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Core Platforms (DEVASC)
Network Automation training videos
DEVASC study materials

Exam Description
To earn your DevNet Associate certification, you must pass the 200-901 DEVASC exam. This 120-minute exam tests your knowledge of:

Exam Description: DevNet Associate Exam v1.0 (DEVASC 200-901) is a 120-minute exam associated with the DevNet Associate – Developer Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of software development and design including understanding and using APIs, Cisco platforms and development, application development and security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Core Platforms, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

15% 1.0 Software Development and Design
1.1 Compare data formats (XML, JSON, and YAML)
1.2 Describe parsing of common data format (XML, JSON, and YAML) to Python data structures
1.3 Describe the concepts of test-driven development
1.4 Compare software development methods (agile, lean, and waterfall)
1.5 Explain the benefits of organizing code into methods / functions, classes, and modules
1.6 Identify the advantages of common design patterns (MVC and Observer)
1.7 Explain the advantages of version control
1.8 Utilize common version control operations with Git
1.8.a Clone
1.8.b Add/remove
1.8.c Commit
1.8.d Push / pull
1.8.e Branch
1.8.f Merge and handling conflicts
1.8.g diff

20% 2.0 Understanding and Using APIs
2.1 Construct a REST API request to accomplish a task given API documentation
2.2 Describe common usage patterns related to webhooks
2.3 Identify the constraints when consuming APIs
2.4 Explain common HTTP response codes associated with REST APIs
2.5 Troubleshoot a problem given the HTTP response code, request and API documentation
2.6 Identify the parts of an HTTP response (response code, headers, body)
2.7 Utilize common API authentication mechanisms: basic, custom token, and API keys
2.8 Compare common API styles (REST, RPC, synchronous, and asynchronous)
2.9 Construct a Python script that calls a REST API using the requests library

15% 3.0 Cisco Platforms and Development
3.1 Construct a Python script that uses a Cisco SDK given SDK documentation
3.2 Describe the capabilities of Cisco network management platforms and APIs (Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, ACI, Cisco SD-WAN, and NSO)
3.3 Describe the capabilities of Cisco compute management platforms and APIs (UCS Manager, UCS Director, and Intersight)
3.4 Describe the capabilities of Cisco collaboration platforms and APIs (Webex Teams, Webex devices, Cisco Unified Communication Manager including AXL and UDS interfaces, and Finesse)
3.5 Describe the capabilities of Cisco security platforms and APIs (Firepower, Umbrella, AMP, ISE, and ThreatGrid)
3.6 Describe the device level APIs and dynamic interfaces for IOS XE and NX-OS
3.7 Identify the appropriate DevNet resource for a given scenario (Sandbox, Code Exchange, support, forums, Learning Labs, and API documentation)
3.8 Apply concepts of model driven programmability (YANG, RESTCONF, and NETCONF) in a Cisco environment
3.9 Construct code to perform a specific operation based on a set of requirements and given API reference documentation such as these:
3.9.a Obtain a list of network devices by using Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, ACI, Cisco SD-WAN, or NSO
3.9.b Manage spaces, participants, and messages in Webex Teams
3.9.c Obtain a list of clients / hosts seen on a network using Meraki or Cisco DNA Center

15% 4.0 Application Deployment and Security
4.1 Describe benefits of edge computing
4.2 Identify attributes of different application deployment models (private cloud, public cloud, hybrid cloud, and edge)
4.3 Identify the attributes of these application deployment types
4.3.a Virtual machines
4.3.b Bare metal
4.3.c Containers
4.4 Describe components for a CI/CD pipeline in application deployments
4.5 Construct a Python unit test
4.6 Interpret contents of a Dockerfile
4.7 Utilize Docker images in local developer environment
4.8 Identify application security issues related to secret protection, encryption (storage and transport), and data handling
4.9 Explain how firewall, DNS, load balancers, and reverse proxy in application deployment
4.10 Describe top OWASP threats (such as XSS, SQL injections, and CSRF)
4.11 Utilize Bash commands (file management, directory navigation, and environmental variables)
4.12 Identify the principles of DevOps practices

20% 5.0 Infrastructure and Automation
5.1 Describe the value of model driven programmability for infrastructure automation
5.2 Compare controller-level to device-level management
5.3 Describe the use and roles of network simulation and test tools (such as VIRL and pyATS)
5.4 Describe the components and benefits of CI/CD pipeline in infrastructure automation
5.5 Describe principles of infrastructure as code
5.6 Describe the capabilities of automation tools such as Ansible, Puppet, Chef, and Cisco NSO
5.7 Identify the workflow being automated by a Python script that uses Cisco APIs including ACI, Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, or RESTCONF
5.8 Identify the workflow being automated by an Ansible playbook (management packages, user management related to services, basic service configuration, and start/stop)
5.9 Identify the workflow being automated by a bash script (such as file management, app install, user management, directory navigation)
5.10 Interpret the results of a RESTCONF or NETCONF query
5.11 Interpret basic YANG models
5.12 Interpret a unified diff
5.13 Describe the principles and benefits of a code review process
5.14 Interpret sequence diagram that includes API calls

15% 6.0 Network Fundamentals
6.1 Describe the purpose and usage of MAC addresses and VLANs
6.2 Describe the purpose and usage of IP addresses, routes, subnet mask / prefix, and gateways
6.3 Describe the function of common networking components (such as switches, routers, firewalls, and load balancers)
6.4 Interpret a basic network topology diagram with elements such as switches, routers, firewalls, load balancers, and port values
6.5 Describe the function of management, data, and control planes in a network device
6.6 Describe the functionality of these IP Services: DHCP, DNS, NAT, SNMP, NTP
6.7 Recognize common protocol port values (such as, SSH, Telnet, HTTP, HTTPS, and NETCONF)
6.8 Identify cause of application connectivity issues (NAT problem, Transport Port blocked, proxy, and VPN)
6.9 Explain the impacts of network constraints on applications

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QUESTION 1
Which type of threat occur when an attacker can send hostile data to an interpreter within an application?

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Sensitive data exposure
C. Broken authentication
D. Injection

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this Ansible playbook on an IOS router?

A. A new running configuration is pushed to the IOS router.
B. The current running configuration of the IOS router is backed up.
C. The start-up configuration of the IOS router is copied to a local folder.
D. A new start-up configuration is copied to the IOS router.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two statement describe the role of an artifact repository in a CI/CD pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. An artifact repository allows to compare and merge changes in the source code of files involved in a build process.
B. An artifact repository is needed only for CI/CD pipeline executed on a public cloud infrastructure.
C. An artifact repository provides traceability, search, and management of binary files.
D. An artifact repository is needed only for managing open source software.
E. An artifact repository stores files needed and generated during the build process.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Cisco VIRL software tool?

A. To verify configurations against compliance standards
B. To simulate and model networks
C. To automate API workflows
D. To test performance of an application

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which detail is included in a routing table?

A. IP protocol
B. Broadcast address
C. TCP or UDP port number
D. Destination next hop or outgoing interface

Answer: D

Cisco

Cisco 300-415 ENSDWI Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions Exam Dumps

Cisco’s DevNet certification program is designed to equip IT professionals with the knowledge and skills required to develop and manage modern network applications. This unique certification route focuses on emerging technologies such as automation, IoT, DevOps, and Webex, and is the first of its kind in the industry. The program offers four certification levels: Associate, Specialist, Professional, and Expert, catering to individuals at different stages of their career. By earning a DevNet certification, IT professionals can demonstrate their expertise and competency in developing and managing modern network applications, and enhance their career prospects in this rapidly evolving field.

Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Associated certifications: CCNP Enterprise
Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise SD-WAN Implementation

Exam overview

This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco’s SD-WAN solution, including:
SD-WAN architecture
Controller deployment
Edge router deployment
Policies
Security
Quality of service
Multicast
Management and operations

Exam preparation

Official Cisco training
Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions v1.1 (300-415)
Exam Description:
Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions v1.1 (ENSDWI 300-415) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Enterprise Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco’s SD-WAN solution including SD-WAN architecture, controller deployment, WAN Edge router deployment, policies, security, quality of service, multicast, and management and operations. The course, Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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20% 1.0 Architecture
1.1 Describe Cisco SD-WAN architecture and components
1.1.a Orchestration plane (vBond, NAT)
1.1.b Management plane (vManage)
1.1.c Control plane (vSmart, OMP)
1.1.d Data plane (WAN Edge)
1.1.d (i) TLOC
1.1.d (ii) IPsec and GRE
1.1.d (iii) vRoute
1.1.d (iv) BFD
1.2 Describe Cisco SD-WAN Edge platforms and capabilities
1.3 Describe Cisco SD-WAN Cloud OnRamp
1.3.a SaaS
1.3.b IaaS
1.3.c Colocation

15% 2.0 Controller Deployment
2.1 Describe controller cloud deployment
2.2 Describe controller on-premises deployment
2.2.a Hosting platform (KVM and Hypervisor)
2.2.b Installing controllers
2.2.c Scalability and redundancy
2.3 Configure certificates and device lists
2.4 Troubleshoot control plane connectivity between controllers

20% 3.0 Router Deployment
3.1 Describe WAN Edge deployment
3.1.a On-boarding
3.1.b Orchestration with zero-touch provisioning and plug-and-play
3.1.c Data center and regional hub deployments
3.2 Configure Cisco SD-WAN data plane
3.2.a Circuit termination and TLOC-extension
3.2.b Dynamic tunnels
3.2.c Underlay-overlay connectivity
3.3 Configure OMP
3.4 Configure TLOCs
3.5 Configure CLI and vManage feature configuration templates
3.5.a VRRP
3.5.b OSPF
3.5.c BGP
3.5.d EIGRP
3.6 Describe multicast support in Cisco SD-WAN

20% 4.0 Policies
4.1 Configure control policies
4.2 Configure data policies
4.3 Configure end-to-end segmentation
4.3.a VPN segmentation
4.3.b Topologies
4.4 Configure Cisco SD-WAN application-aware routing
4.5 Configure direct Internet access

15% 5.0 Security and Quality of Service
5.1 Configure service insertion
5.2 Describe Cisco SD-WAN security features
5.2.a. Application-aware enterprise firewall
5.2.b IPS
5.2.c URL filtering
5.2.d AMP
5.2.e SSL and TLS proxy
5.3 Describe Cloud security integration
5.3.a. DNS security
5.3.b. Secure Internet Gateway (SIG)
5.4 Configure QoS treatment on WAN Edge routers
5.4.a Scheduling
5.4.b Queuing
5.4.c Shaping
5.4.d Policing
5.4.e Marking
5.4.f Per-tunnel and adaptive QoS

10% 6.0 Management and Operations
6.1 Describe authentication, monitoring, and reporting from vManage
6.2 Configure authentication, monitoring, and reporting
6.3 Describe REST API monitoring
6.4 Describe software image management from vManage

 

QUESTION 1
What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)

A. centralized control and data plane
B. distributed authentication policies
C. management of SLA
D. infrastructure as a service
E. centralized raid storage of data

Answer: C D

QUESTION 2
An engineer is troubleshooting a certificate issue on vEdge. Which command is used to verify the validity of the certificates?

A. show control local-properties
B. show control summary
C. show certificate installed
D. show certificate status

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is a benefit of the application-aware firewall?

A. It blocks traffic by MAC address
B. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet.
C. It blocks traffic by application.
D. It blocks encrypted traffic

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When VPNs are grouped to create destination zone in Zone-Based Firewall, how many zones can a single VPN be part of?

A. two
B. four
C. one
D. three

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which attributes are configured to uniquely Identify and represent a TLOC route?

A. system IP address, link color, and encapsulation
B. firewall, IPS, and application optimization
C. site ID, tag, and VPN
D. origin, originator, and preference

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which device information is requited on PNP/ZTP to support the zero-touch onboarding process?

A. serial and chassis numbers
B. interface IP address
C. public DNS entry
D. system IP address

Answer: A